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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 3 > Wild Card > Flashcards

Wild Card Flashcards

1
Q

You are about to perform a myelogram and there are two bottles of iodinated contrast medium on the shelf: ionic (Hypaque-76) and nonionic (Omnipaque). Which one do you choose, and why?

A

Nonionic iodinated contrast medium (Omnipaque), because injection of ionic iodinated contrast medium into the subarachnoid space is strictly contraindicated (causes fluid shifts into the space that are usually fatal).

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2
Q

When administering a drug to a food animal, established withdrawal times only apply if which condition is met?

A

Only is the drug is used according to the approved labelling.

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3
Q

What is the definition of specific gravity?

A

Specific gravity refers to the ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of distilled water. Therefore, specific gravity depends on the molecular weight of particles as well as the number present in the solution.

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4
Q

Which of the following antibiotics best crosses the normal blood-brain barrier?

A) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate
B) Cefazolin
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Gentamicin

A

C) Chloramphenicol

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5
Q

Which describes a true hermaphrodite?

A) Chromosomal and gonadal sex agree, phenotypic sex and tubular organs are modified towards the other sex
B) Chromosomal and gonadal sex reversed
C) Both ovarian and testicular tissue present
D) Gonadal and tubular sex are reversed

A

A) Chromosomal and gonadal sex agree, phenotypic sex and tubular organs are modified towards the other sex

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6
Q

Which of the following species is most sensitive to xylazine - cats, cows, dogs, horses, rabbits?

A

Cows

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7
Q

In which intervertebral space would an epidural injection be given to provide regional anesthesia for procedures performed caudal to the umbilicus in a dog?

A

Between the seventh lumbar vertebra (L7) and the first sacral vertebra (S1).

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8
Q

Stage III of labor ends with what?

A) Dilation of the cervix
B) Entry of the fetus into the pelvic canal
C) Delivery of the fetus
D) Delivery of the placenta

A

D) Delivery of the placenta

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9
Q

Through which developmental zone of the physis do fractures typically occur?

A

Zone of hypertrophy

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10
Q

Name 2 factors that can influence the effectiveness of a disinfectant.

A

1) Organic debris
2) Concentration
3) Temperature
4) Contact time

Organic debris can inactivate disinfectants, which is why cleaning before disinfection is essential.

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11
Q

Which 3 vessels are part of the circle of Willis (also called the arterial circle of the brain)?

A

The right and left internal carotid arteries, and the basilar artery form an elongated arterial ring on the ventral surface of the brain.

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12
Q

Where are the Renshaw cells located, and what is their function?

A

Ventral horns of the spinal cord; they are inhibitory neurons that transmit inhibitory signals to surrounding motor neurons.

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13
Q

Which structure is primarily responsible for preventing caudal displacement of the femur and cranial displacement of the tibia in the stifle?

A

The cranial cruciate ligament

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14
Q

The lesions of pyogranulomatous nephritis that are associated with the non-effusive/’‘dry’’ form of feline infectious peritonitis are related to which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV - delayed hypersensitivity

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15
Q

In acid-base balance, what does the law of electroneutrality stipulate?

A

The sum of all cations must equal the sum of all anions (in body fluids).

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16
Q

Isolation guidelines for human medicine target the prevention of five different types of transmission of infectious diseases. Name 2.

A

1) Contact transmission
2) Droplet transmission
3) Airborne transmission
4) Common vehicle transmission
5) Vector-borne transmission

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17
Q

Rapid blood loss causes fatal hypovolemic shock after approximately which proportion of the blood volume is lost?

A) 10-15%
B) 25-30%
C) 40-45%
D) 55-60%

A

C) 40-45%

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18
Q

What is the definition of an outbreak of a disease?

A

An increased occurrence of infections above the expected baseline (endemic) level.

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19
Q

In a case with angular limb deformity, what does the term ‘‘valgus’’ mean?

A

Lateral deviation of the limb distal to the origin of the deformity.

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20
Q

In the adult, haematopoietically active bone marrow can be collected from which anatomical locations?

A

Flat bones (Sternum, ribs, pelvis, vertebrae) and proximal ends of long bones (Humerus, femur)

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21
Q

A dog with acute renal failure has a positive serum titer for Leptospira interrogans, serovar hardjo. The dog was vaccinated 2 months earlier. Is this titer related to vaccination?

A

No. Vaccines protect against serovars icterohaemorrhagiae and canicola (conventional) or, additionnally, also pomona and gryppothyphosa (newer vaccines). No vaccine protects against hargjo, autumnalis, bratislava or others.

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22
Q

Name 3 protozoal causes of splenomegaly in the dog and/or cat.

A

Babesiosis, cytauxzoonosis, hepatozoonosis, leishmaniasis, toxoplasmosis, trypanosomiasis.

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23
Q

Name 4 round cell tumors.

A

1) Lymphoma
2) Mast cell tumor
3) Plasmocytoma
4) Histiocytoma
5) Transmissible veneral tumor

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24
Q

The Somogyi response can be seen as a complication of insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus. What is this response?

A

The Somogyi response is insulin-induced hypoglycemia leading to counterregulatory glycogenolysis and secretion of glucagon and epinephrine, which results in severe hyperglycemia (rebound effect). This explains the need for blood glucose curves in patients with poorly controlled diabetes receiving increasing dosages of insulin,

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25
Q

Which is FALSE regarding avian influenza?

A) Broilers: Signs may include severe depression, facial/neck edema, torticollis, ataxia, death
B) Mature chickens: Wattles often swollen and cyanotic
C) Incubation period is up to 7 days
D) Low pathogenic form does not mutate to high pathogenic form

A

D) Low pathogenic form does not mutate to high pathogenic form
This is false because the low pathogenic form of the virus does mutate to the highly pathogenic form. A common characteristic of influenza viruses is their propensity to mutate.

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26
Q

What is meant by the ALARA principle in radiation safety?

A

The concept of limiting exposure of radiation workers to a level As Low As Reasonably Achievable.

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27
Q

What is the treatment of choice for symptomatic third-degree atrioventricular block?

A

Permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation

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28
Q

Name 2 of the most common locations for an esophageal foreign body in the dog.

A

1) Cranial cervical region
2) Thoracic inlet
3) Base of the heart
4) Caudal esophagus cranial to esophageal hiatus

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29
Q

What are the features that distinguish hematochezia from melena?

A

Hematochezia is caused by large bowel disease, results in passage of frank red blood, and may be associated with tenesmus, mucoid feces, and increased urgency/frequency of defecation.
Melena is caused by gastric or small intestinal disease, is associated with black, tarry, digested blood, and rarely causes tenesmus, mucoid feces, or urgency.

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30
Q

Where in the interventricular septum are ventricular septal defects (VSDs) most commonly found in small animals?

A

In the membranous portion (cats, dogs; also horses). Dogs and cats typically develop VSDs in the inlet portion of the membranous septum. Both cattle and small ruminants also routinely can have muscular VSDs.

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31
Q

What is the name of a female ferret? And of a baby ferret?

A

A female ferret is called a jill, and her offspring are kits.

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32
Q

When placing an intramedullary pin retrograde in the femur, how should the hindlimb be manipulated in order to minimize the risk of traumatizing the sciatic nerve during the procedure?

A

Hindlimb adduction and external rotation, and extension of the hip.

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33
Q

Which structure secretes cerebrospinal fluid?

A

The choroid plexi of the ventricles of the brain.

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34
Q

A colleague wishes to add 30 milliequivalents (mEq) of potassium chloride to a half-full liter bag of 0.9% saline, The plan calls for a fluid rate of 140 mL/kg/day (twice maintenance rate). Is this rate of potassium administration safe, or is it excessive?

A

It is safe. 30 mEq KCl in 0.5L = 60 mEq/L KCl. Volume of total fluid being administered = 144 ml/kg/day, which equals to 6mL/kg/h, or 0.006 l/kg/h. Therefore, the amount of KCl being administered is 0.006 l/kg/hr x 60 mEq/l = 0.36 mEq/kg/hr KCl, which is acceptable, but close to the maximal upper limit of potassium administration (never exceed 0.5 mEq/kg/hr).

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35
Q

Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of which cells in which organ?

A

Adrenal medullary cells

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36
Q

Based on the inverse square relationship, by decreasing the distance from the x-ray source by a factor of 2, the intensity of exposure will increase by a factor of ____.

A

4

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37
Q

A parotid duct transposition is used for surgical correction of which disease?

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)

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38
Q

In the dog and cat, a plantigrade posture has at least 4 different anatomic causes, whereas plamigrade posture is the result of only one anatomic abnormality. What is it?

A

Loss of integrity of the palmar carpal ligaments.
A plantigrade stance can be caused by tibial nerve dysfunction, rupture of part or all of the common calcanean tendon, fracture of the calcaneus, and disruption of the long plantar ligament.

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39
Q

A few days after assisting a lambing you begin to develop a severe headache, fever, malaise, and other flulike symptoms. Name one of at least 3 zoonoses you might have acquired.

A

1) Q fever
2) Brucellosis
3) Listeriosis
AKA wear gloves!!

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40
Q

In a dog with brachial plexus avulsion, would you expect the forelimb reflexes to be hyperreflexic, hyporeflexic, or normoreflexic?

A

Hyporeflexic

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41
Q

In dogs and horses, what is the cardiac notch, where is it located, and on which side of the body is it larger?

A

A small area overlaying the heart where lung tissue is not interposed between the heart and body wall, located at the ventral aspect of the 4th intercostal space, and larger on the right side.

42
Q

A dog has a parasite that predisposes it to esophageal osteosarcoma and rupture of the thoracic aorta. What is the treatment of choice?

A

Doramectin (Spirocerca lupi)

43
Q

The coagulation factors are all proteins, except for factor IV. What is the other name for factor IV?

A

Calcium, Ca2+

44
Q

Your patient is recovering from an extensive orthopedic procedure. You provide analgesia with IV hydromorphone and IV butorphanol. You notice that the analgesia and sedation are less than what you would expect from the cumulative effects of these two drugs. Why?

A

Butorphanol is a partial opiate agonist-antagonist. By coadministering it with hydromorphone, you partially reversed the effects of the hydromorphone.

45
Q

If rabies virus infection is suspected, which sample(s) would you submit to a state or federal diagnostic laboratory?

A

Entire carcass or head (not just brain - minimize human exposure due to zoonotic potential)

46
Q

What is parotitis?

A

Inflammation of the parotid salivary glands

47
Q

From which cells of which organ is somatostatin secreted?

A

Delta cells of the pancreas

48
Q

Which zone of the adrenal cortex is incapable of synthesizing cortisol?

A

Zona glomerulosa

49
Q

Which hormone’s primary function is to stimulate secretion of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

50
Q

When constructing a fluid therapy plan for a critically ill patient, which are the 3 factors that determine the total volume of fluids to be administered?

A

1) Maintenance requirements
2) Hydration status
3) Ongoing losses

51
Q

What do crackles heard on auscultation of the lungs indicate?

A

Edema, exudate, or fibrosis

52
Q

On auscultation, do wheezes most likely indicate alveolar, bronchial or tracheal disease?

A

Bronchial disease

53
Q

Which of the following species is most resistant to tetanus?

A) Cat
B) Chicken
C) Cow
D) Dog
E) Horse

A

B) Chicken

54
Q

Which of the associations is incorrect?

A) Buck/ram: hemodynamic penis, pronounced sigmoid flexure
B) Dog: Glans penis with pars longa glandis distally, pars bulbus glandis proximally
C) Stallion: hemodynamic penis, no sigmoid flexure
D) Tom: May contain an os penis

A

A) Buck/ram: hemodynamic penis, pronounced sigmoid flexure

55
Q

Other than surgical ligation, what are two methods for surgical correction of a portosystemic shunt?

A

1) Ameroid constrictor
2) Cellophane banding
3) Hydraulic occluder
4) Intravascular coils

56
Q

Of the following species, which has the most prolonged elevation of luteinizing hormone prior to ovulation?

A) Bovine
B) Canine
C) Equine
D) Porcine

A

C) Equine

57
Q

Which type of fracture courses through a portion of the physis and epiphysis in young dogs and is generally considered to be an articular fracture?

A

Salter-Harris type III

58
Q

Restoring euvolemia from hypovolemia can take 24-48h under optimal circumstances. Name 3 causes for a failure to achieve euvolemia in this time period despite fluid therapy.

A

1) Calculation errors
2) Underestimation of deficit
3) Ongoing losses greater than estimated
4) Too-rapid infusion with consequent diuresis
5) Mechanical problem with fluid delivery (pump failure, kinked or extravascular catheter, etc.)

59
Q

Name 4 conditions that predispose a small animal patient to pulmonary thromboembolism.

A

1) Angiostrongyliasis
2) corticosteroids (endogenous or exogenous)
3) Dirofilariasis
4) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
5) Heart disease (right atrial enlargement, endocarditis)
6) Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
7) Indwelling central venous catheters
8) Neoplasia
9) Pancreatitis
10) Protein-losing enteropathy
11) Renal disease (Amyloidosis, Glomerulonephritis)
12) Septicemia
13) Trauma

60
Q

Where is transitional cell carcinoma typically located in the canine urinary bladder?

A

The trigone

61
Q

What is the difference between molality and molarity?

A

Molality: Number of moles of solute per kg of solvent
Molarity: Number of moles of solute per liter of solution

62
Q

Which is true regarding blood transfusions in cats?

A) Transfusion of type A blood into type B cat can result in acute hemolysis the first time transfusion is given
B) Transfusion of type B blood into type A cat can result in acute hemolysis the first time a transfusion is given

A

A) - The transfusion of type A blood into a type B cat can result in a life-threatening intravascular hemolytic reaction the first time a transfusion is given. Type B blood transfusions given to type A cats do not result result in severe intravascular hemolysis, but the erythrocytes are phagocytized and removed within a few days.

63
Q

Which name is given to electrolytes and inorganic solutes that form in the brain and help prevent dehydration in the face of a hyperosmolar state?

A

Idiogenic osmoles

64
Q

What is the percentage of total body water in neonates?

A

80% of a neonatal animal’s body weight is water

65
Q

In peripheral vestibular disease, is the fast phase of nystagmus directed away from or toward the side of the lesion?

A

Away (nystagmus runs away from the lesion)

66
Q

In the mammary gland, which cells are responsible for the synthesis of the major milk constituents casein, lactose, and fat?

A

The mammary epithelial cella

67
Q

Name 2 factors to consider in order to chose the most appropriate disinfectant.

A

1) Spectrum of activity
2) Relative efficacy in the presence of organic debris
3) Toxicity to animals and humans
4) Potential damaging effects on certain surfaces
5) Cost
6) Potential environmental effets

68
Q

In a milk sample, a somatic cell count (SCC) superior to what amount is consistent with inflammation (mastitis) in cattle and other livestock?

A

100 000 cells/mL; Milk from a healthy mammary gland contains less than this amount of cells, which are mostly macrophages; infection of the mammary gland will result in significantly higher SCC, mostly as a result of neutrophil recruitment.

69
Q

Molecular diagnostics (tests that evaluate for the presence of DNA or RNA) are increasingly used in veterinary medicine for the detection of infectious agents. Name 2 advantages of the use of these tests.

A

Better sensitivity and specificity than most immunoassays, automated platforms that increase throughput, quantitative assessment of viral load (clinically useful), fast turnaround time that can speed up detection and reduce overall cost, simultaneous analysis of multiple samples.

70
Q

What is the difference between microphthalmia and phthisis bulbi?

A

Microphthalmia: Congenitally smaller than normal globe(s)
Phthisis bulbi: Acquired shrinkage of the globe secondary to trauma or inflammation

71
Q

Assuming an intact endoneurial sheath, a transected axon will regrow at which distance per day?

A

1mm per day

72
Q

What is hypopyon?

A

An accumulation of white blood cells (pus) in the anterior chamber of the eye.

73
Q

Which nerve supplies sympathetic innervation to the bladder?

A

The hypogastric nerve

74
Q

What is the most biologically active form of thyroid hormone?

A

Triiodothyronine (T3). T4 is what is produced by the gland and deiodinated peripherally in the tissues; T3 interacts with the tissue receptors.

75
Q

What is the major pathophysiologic mechanism of cytauxzoonosis in cats?

A

Blood vessel obstruction with schizont-laden macrophages

76
Q

Which one of the following findings is consistent with an innocent (physiologic) heart murmur?

A) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B) Diastolic timing
C) Palpable thrill
D) Variable intensity with heart rate

A

D) Variable intensity with heart rate

77
Q

What is the most common disorder in animals that causes elevations of plasma concentrations of brain natriuretic peptide?

A

Heart disease/congestive heart failure. Discovered in the porcine brain in 1990, BNP is mainly released from diseased cardiac ventricles.

78
Q

How long does it take for phenobarbital to reach a steady state concentration in the serum of a dog?

A

Two weeks

79
Q

Name 3 of the 4 developmental zones of the physis.

A

1) Reserve
2) Proliferation
3) Hypertrophy
4) Mineralization

80
Q

An 8 month-old foal has swollen joints and a radiographically flared physis of the distal radius. The condition is self-limiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Physitis. It is a developmental orthopedic condition resulting from disturbance in endochondral ossification at the physis (growth plate).

81
Q

Which 5 muscles contribute to the common calcaneal (Achilles) tendon in the dog?

A

1) Superficial digital flexor
2) Gastrocnemius
3) Biceps femoris
4) Semitendinosus
5) Gracilis
(Mnemonic: Silly girls buy silly gifts)

82
Q

Which embryogenic vessel carries oxygenated maternal blood from the placenta to the fetal systemic circulation?

A

Ductus venosus

83
Q

What is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation?

A

Direct current electrical defibrillation using a defibrillator. Chemical defibrillation (calcium bromide, bretylium) and precordial thumps are generally ineffective.

84
Q

The amino acid structure of feline insulin is most similar to that of which other mammal?

A

Bovine, which explains the historic preference for beef-based insulin for treatment in cats.

85
Q

Which test characteristic is a measure of the test’s ability to identify true positives , given that the tested group is truly positive?

A

Test sensitivity

86
Q

Calcium homeostasis is regulated by 3 calciotropic hormones. Name these hormones.

A

Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D

87
Q

What would you like to do next?

A) Order a pizza
B) Quit school and sail the world
C) Open another bottle of red wine
D) Continue to play this fabulous board game!

A

The correct answer, of course, is: enjoy pizza and red wine while playing this fabulous board game as you sail around the world on your yacht.

88
Q

What is the concentration of glargine insulin and therefore what type of insulin syringes should be used when administering glargine insulin?

A

100 U/mL; U-100 insulin syringes

89
Q

Considering the names of these disorders, what is unusual about mycosis fungoides and botryomycosis?

A

Despite the ‘‘myco’’ part of each name, neither disease is caused by a fungus. Botryomycosis is an exuberant staphylococcal infection of the skin (mainly of horses), whereas mycosis fungoides is a form of cutaneous lymphoma.

90
Q

Which type of blood product should a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) receive and why?

A

Fresh whole plasma, platelet-rich plasma, fresh frozen plasma, or whole blood; all are optimal products because they contain clotting factors.

91
Q

What is the primary tick vector responsible for transmission of Anaplasma phagocytophilum infection in the midwestern and northwestern US?

A

Ixodes scapularis

92
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus and what may it indicate?

A

It is an increase in pulse pressure on expiration and a decrease in pulse pressure on inspiration, which is noticeably exaggerated in cardiac tamponade.

93
Q

Pharmacologic agents used for delaying parturition are called:

A) Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists
B) Myometrolytics
C) Oxytocin receptor agonists
D) Tocolytics

A

D) Tocolytics

94
Q

Which species is susceptible to infection with Aelurostrongylus worms, and which body system does this parasite affect?

A

Cats (Aeluro is the greek work for cat); Respiratory system

95
Q

Which form of enteral feeding is preferable in animals with severe pancreatitis?

A

Jejunostomy tube feeding

96
Q

Which is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A) Furosemide
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) Spironolactone
D) Torsemide

A

C) Spironolactone

97
Q

Which racoon parasite is a cause of larva migrans in children?

A

Baylisascaris procyonis

98
Q

What is the earliest erythrocyte-specific precursor in the bone marrow?

A

Rubriblast

99
Q

Define bruxism, odontoprisis, and trismus.

A

Bruxism is involuntary, non-functional grinding or clenching of the teeth, a synonym is odontoprisis;
Trismus is an inability to open the mouth, usually as a result of motor disturbance of the trigeminal nerves causing spasm of the masticatory muscles.

100
Q

In an animal with 7% dehydration, low serum albumin concentration, and high-normal hematocrit, which of the following would be the best choice in addition to isotonic crystalloid fluids?

A) Colloids
B) Hypertonic saline
C) Whole blood

A

A) Colloids

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 3 (6 decks)

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