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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 3 > Large Animal > Flashcards

Large Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Signs of coital exanthema in the stallion include the following, except:

A) Paraphimosis and inability to breed if untreated
B) Raised pink ulcerations on the shaft and glans of the penis
C) Similar lesions around the vulva of the mare
D) Unwillingness to breed dur to pain

A

A) Paraphimosis and inability to breed if untreated

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2
Q

What is the etiologic agent that causes porcine polyserositis and arthritis (Glässer’s disease)?

A

Haemophilus parasuis

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3
Q

To diagnose pregnancy in a miniature mare 180 days post-breeding, one should measure:

A) eCG (endometrial cups)
B) Estrone sulfate (feto-placental unit)
C) Pregnancy-specific protein B (binucleated trophoblastic cells of the placenta)
D) Progesterone (Corpus luteum)

A

B) Estrone sulfate (produced by the feto-placental unit)

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4
Q

Calving paralysis causes abduction and flexion of both hindlimbs in cattle due to parturient trauma of which paired nerve?

A

The obturator nerves; alternatively, if the cow’s fetlocks also are flexed, peroneal paralysis should be suspected.

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5
Q

Name 2 bacterial pathogens associated with the bovine respiratory disease complex (BRD).

A

Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, Histophilus somni, Mycoplasma bovis

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6
Q

Why is gastric decompression essential when treating a horse with duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (anterior enteritis, proximal enteritis)?

A

Without decompression, the continuous production of entero-gastric reflux can result in gastric rupture (a horse with gastric rupture would have to be euthanized as a horse would not survive the resulting peritonitis); additionally, gastric distension causes pain. /

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7
Q

In pigs, what does the term ‘‘teat-order’’ refer to?

A

It describes the development of a preference of each piglet for a particular nipple. This behavioral characteristic ensures that feeding of large litters remains effective and the piglets do not spend most of their time re-establishing a feeding order. (Just like vet students who stay in the same classroom seat for 3 years…)

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8
Q

A farmer presents a calf due to ‘‘dropping’’ of the hip and hock. On examination, you identify right hindlimb paresis with overflexion of the fetlock. One week prior to presentation, the calf received an IM injection in the same limb. What is the most likely neuroanatomic diagnosis?

A

Sciatic nerve paralysis

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9
Q

A male llama shows signs of colic and posturing to urinate, but no urine is voided. On a serum biochemistry profile, you identify an elevation in BUN and creatinine. What is the most likely cause of these clinical findings?

A

Obstruction of the urethra - urolithiasis. In most livestock species, this condition usually occurs in castrated animals; however, in camelids, intact males are most commonly affected.

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10
Q

An owner reports that ‘‘spavin’’ was treated in her horse via transection of a structure that lies dorsomedial to the hock. What is this structure?

A

Cunean tendon (medial tendon of the cranial tibial muscle)

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11
Q

An alpaca is noted to occasionally roll into dorsal recumbency and writhe on the ground. The animal is otherwise well. What is the most likely explanation?

A

'’Dust bathing’’ or ‘‘rolling’’, a form of self-grooming behavior that is very common in new world camelids. Differential diagnoses include colic, dystocia, and urolithiasis.

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12
Q

What makes the bite of a male camelid much more hazardous than that of most other make domestic livestock?

A

Male camelids have formidable canine teeth with which they have been known to inflict fatal injuries.

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13
Q

What are the names of the joint pouches in the equine stifle and which ones communicate?

A

Femoropatellar, medial and lateral femorotibial.
The femoropatellar and medial femorotibial almost always communicate, the femoropatellar and the lateral femorotibial communicate approximately 25% of the time, and the medial and lateral femorotibial pouches almost never communicate. This is relevant for injections into the joint.

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14
Q

'’Glass tetany’’ of cattle is a result of which metabolic abnormality?

A

Hypomagnesemia

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15
Q

On radiographs, you see a well-circumscribed dermal mass with granular mineralization and no bony involvement, adjacent to the tarsus of an Arabian stallion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Equine mast cell tumor, a benign tumor which is not associated with lameness and is curative with excision.

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16
Q

Regarding use of progesterone or altrenogest in the mare, which is FALSE?

A) They may be used for synchronizing estrus
B) They increase myometrial tone
C) They may be used to suppress estrous behavior
D) They will suppress follicular development and ovulation

A

D) They will suppress follicular development and ovulation

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17
Q

A herd of dairy goats has recently experienced an outbreak of general ill thrift and abortions. Several kids have swollen joints. Culture of joint fluid does not result in any growth using standard culture procedure. What is the most likely cause?

A

Mycoplasma spp.; Increasingly, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used for identifying mycoplasma organisms.

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18
Q

A group of pigs show signs of blindness, deafness, aimless wandering, head pressing, and seizures. Clinical pathologic findings include hypernatremia and eosinopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Sodium chloride (salt) poisoning; this can result from excessive salt intake or restricted water intake

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19
Q

Several animals in a goat herd have clinical signs that include swollen carpi, stiff gait, and difficulty rising. Some animals also have a firm udder on palpation, and coughing is noted. What is the most likely etiology?

A

Caprine arthritis encephalitis; genus lentivirus, family Retroviridae

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20
Q

A horse presents for acute onset of head tilt, a drooping ear, ptosis, and deviation of the nose to the left. During endoscopy of the left guttural pouch, you notice bony proliferation of the stylohyoid bone as well as hyperemia of the surrounding mucosa. What is the diagnosis?

A

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

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21
Q

Name 2 viral diseases associated with the bovine respiratory disease complex.

A

Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVD), Bovine respiratory syncytial virus, Bovine herpesvirus-1, Parainfluenza type 3

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22
Q

Of the following species, which is classified as an induced ovulator?

A) Alpaca
B) Goat
C) Pig
D) Sheep

A

A) Alpaca

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23
Q

Define ‘‘manica flexoria’’.

A

The portion of the superficial digital flexor tendon that encircles the deep digital flexor tendon just above the level of the proximal sesamoid bones (manica = hand).

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24
Q

Which of the following hormones lengthens diestrus in the bovine?

A) Estrogen
B) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Prostaglandin F2 alpha

A

C) Progesterone

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25
Correction of pneumovagina in the mare when it is too severe for successful correction with a Caslick's vulvoplasty is possible using: A) Buhner's technique B) Caudal relocation of the transverse fold C) Perineal body reconstruction (Gadd procedure) D) Urethral extension
C) Perineal body reconstruction (Gadd procedure)
26
To hasten onset of puberty/synchronize estrus in gilts, one should: A) Bring boars to gilt housing (2-4hrs/day) B) Delay exposing gilts to boars until 185 days of age C) Expose gilts to boars of similar age and weight D) Take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes daily
D) Take gilts to the boar housing area and allow contact for 15 minutes daily A is done to identify the females in estrus.
27
What are the 3 arteries that supply the equine uterus?
The uterine branch of the ovarian artery, the uterine artery (from the origin of the external iliac artery), and the uterine branch of the vaginal artery.
28
Which proportion of C-3 (third compartment of the stomach) in camelids contains true gastric glands?
The terminal one-fifth; as opposed to the entire abomasum in ruminants. A common point of contention: even though camelids ruminate, they are not in the same family as ruminants phylogenetically because they do not have a true rumen.
29
Name 3 hematologic characteristics of camelids that are a result of their adaptation to altitude.
1) High hemoglobin concentration 2) Large number of erythrocytes 3) Small, ellipsoid, thin erythrocytes (greater surface area) 4) High MCHC 5) High hemoglobin affinity to oxygen 6) Efficient utilization of oxygen by the tissues (oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left at low altitudes)
30
In the ''OVSYNCH'' system for timed artificial insemination of cattle, the second dose of gonadotrophin releasing hormone is given to: A) Assist in early corpus luteum formation B) Destroy any luteal tissue C) Recruit a new follicular wave D) Stimulate ovulation
D) Stimulate ovulation
31
When palpating a mare during estrus, the uterus is: A) Easily palpable due to uterine edema B) Easily retractable into the pelvic canal due to relaxation of the broad ligament C) Lacking tone and may be difficult to find D) Not easy to reach due to relaxation of the broad ligament
C) Lacking tone and may be difficult to find This is the result of the effects of estrogen on uterine tone.
32
Equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis has been associated with which infectious organism?
Equine herpesvirus 5 (EHV-5)
33
A horse has alopecia and crusting on the ventral abdomen and ears. The owner reports that this problem seems to occur every year during the warm months and seems to improve if the horse is kept inside. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Insect hypersensitivity
34
On a dairy farm, several calves show clinical signs, including ear droop, ptosis, head shaking, and scratching/rubbing of the ear. Upon closer examination, you realize that some calves also have swollen joints. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Mycoplasma bovis; infection with M. bovis can result in middle/inner ear infection, as well as arthritis and synovitis in calves.
35
Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency, a recessive trait resulting in mutation of the glycogen branching enzyme gene, was originally diagnosed in which two horse breeds?
Quarter horse and Paint horse
36
On skull radiographs of a horse with a draining tract in the region of the external auditory meatus, you see a mineralized mass that has the appearance of a tooth. What is the diagnosis?
A dentigerous cyst (also known as temporal teratoma or ''ear tooth'')
37
In camelids, is gastric intubation usually achieved through the nasal cavity or the oral cavity?
Through the oral cavity. The nasal cavity is narrow and only the passage of an impractically small tube would be possible.
38
In horses, a definitive diagnosis of cryptorchidism is usually reserved until a colt has reached which age?
1 year, though testicles most commonly descend into the scrotum by 6 months of age.
39
You are treating a horse with colitis. You notice that the horse is shifting its weight back and forth and placing its front limbs further forward than normal. The hind limbs are shifted cranially. You also notice bounding digital pulses in both front limbs. What is the likely diagnosis?
Laminitis. Laminitis can be a sequela of colitis; one proposed mechanism is inflammation of the laminae in response to release of endotoxin and other bacterial components from the inflamed colon.
40
A horse that is housed indoors without access to fresh grass shows generalized weakness, fatigue, and weight loss despite normal appetite. It spends an unusual amount of time lying down. Serum vitamin E levels are low. What should be your next diagnostic test?
Muscle biopsy of the sacrocaudal dorsomedial muscle at the base pg the tail, looking for denervation atrophy due to equine motor neuron disease.
41
You choose to sedate a stallion prior to floating its teeth, but unwisely you choose acepromazine as part of your sedation protocol. Which specific complication might occur in this horse that does not occur in other species?
Paraphimosis. The protrusion of the penis may last for extended periods of time (e.g., more than 2 hours) (** Not at the doses we use at the chuv... extremely rare. Its just way too mild for teeth floating. You will need either Xylazine +/- Butorphanol (too keep his feet down should he be a kicker) or to replace the Xyla by Detomidine if you need more time to do the procedure).
42
You examine a pregnant mare at 15 days' gestation and identify twins, you manually crush one via rectal palpation. What are 2 reasons for doing this?
Twin pregnancies can often terminate in: 1) Early fetal resorption or loss 2) Late-term abortions 3) Birth of small, growth-retarded foals Mares aborting twins in late gestation also: 4) Frequently have foaling difficulties 5) Can be difficult to rebreed
43
Your arrival from overseas is marred by the confiscation of pork sausage you brought. Name 2 viral diseases, both potentially contracted by pigs feeding on uncooked garbage containing infected pig tissues, that are the basis for this action.
1) Hog cholera (synonym: Classical swine fever) 2) African swine fever 3) Foot and mouth disease
44
Which infectious organism (genus and species) is most commonly reported in association with closure of large animal hospitals in North America?
Salmonella Enterica
45
In September, the plasma ACTH concentration of a clinically normal pony in the northern hemisphere is above the reference range. What do you have to consider when interpreting this result?
Seasonality. Plasma ACTH tends to be higher in the fall and normal animals can be erroneously diagnoses with pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction.
46
Lameness in horses is graded on a 5-point scale. What defines a grade 4 out of 5 lameness?
A consistently observable lameness at a walk
47
What is the pathologic mechanism of persistent infection with bovine viral diarrhea virus?
Animals become persistently infected with BVDV if the fetus is exposed to the virus before development of the immune system. This results in immune tolerance as the virus is recognized as ''self''.
48
Apart from sheep and cattle, which other domestic large animal species have been found to be susceptible to bovine viral diarrhea virus?
North American camelids (llamas and alpacas)
49
Regarding pregnancy failure in pigs, most infections resulting in mummification occur in what gestational age range?
Between 35-70 days of gestation
50
What are two most common disorders that cause sinusitis in the horse?
Respiratory disease and maxillary cheek tooth root abscessation
51
In the horse, the suture in the basisphenoid bone should fuse by which age? A) 3 years B) 4 years C) 5 years D) 6 years
C) 5 years This is an important consideration when evaluating radiographs of horses with head trauma.
52
Which one of these is not like the others? Alpaca, cria, guanaco, llama, vicuna
Cria, which is the young (means ''baby animal'') of any South American camelid. The other 4 are the specific species that make up the South American camelid group.
53
Which congenital defect should be suspected in a cria with flared nostrils and open-mouth breathing?
Choanal atresia
54
A dairy cow shows acute onset of agalactia, anorexia, fever, and severe depression. The front right quarter is swollen and warm to palpation. A serous fluid can be milked from this quarter. The cow dies 6 hours after the onset of clinical signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Peracute coliform mastitis
55
A pregnant ewe develops neurologic signs, including incoordination, circling, and teeth grinding. During your examination you also identify ketonuria. The animal is due to lamb in 2 weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pregnancy toxemia (ketosis, twin-lamb disease); this condition occurs during the last 2-4 weeks of gestation and is caused by a negative energy balance resulting from increased demand due to rapid fetal growth in the late gestation and insufficient caloric intake.
56
Which 3 major serum mineral imbalances can result in recumbency in cows (''downer cow syndrome'')?
Hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia
57
Which statement is FALSE regarding Q fever? A) It is a common cause of ovine or caprine abortion B) It is a zoonosis C) It is caused by a rickettsial organism D) Most infections are asymptomatic
A) It is a common cause of ovine or caprine abortion
58
In pigs, massive hemorrhagic hepatic necrosis (hepatosis dietetica) is associated with a deficiency of __________?
Selenium and vitamin E
59
Which organism is the most common isolate in cattle with bacterial endocarditis?
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
60
Volatile fatty acids (VFAs) are the major source of energy in cows. The principal VFAs are acetate, propionate and butyrate. Which of these if glucogenic?
Propionate is glucogenic; it enters the tricarboxylic acid cycle at the level of succinyl CoA.
61
You palpate a cow's ovary and determine that a 3.8cm (1.5 inch)-diameter follicle is present. Is this normal, or are you suspicious of a follicular cyst?
This suggests a follicular cyst, as would any follicle above 2.5 cm (1 inch) in diameter in a cow. (Careful though, this does NOT apply to horses who can have much larger follicles).
62
What is the etiologic agent that causes exudative epidermitis (greasy pig disease) in weanling and suckling pigs?
Staphylococcus hyicus
63
What is the long-term prognosis for an Arabian foal with juvenile idiopathic epilepsy: good, guarded, or poor?
The long-term prognosis is good. with cessation of seizures usually occurring by 1 year of age.
64
You examine a recumbent goat. The animal has the head pulled into the flank. Prior to recumbency, the owner noted the animal was circling in one direction. Name 2 risk factors that have been associated with this infectious disease.
Sudden changes in weather, feeding, or general management; stress from poor nutrition, parasitism, or other concurrent disease; crowding, confinement in winter; feeding of silage, particularly poor quality silage (all predispose to listeriosis).
65
Several dairy cows are moderately lame and have decreased milk production. On the skin proximal to the interdigital space you see multiple wart-like growths, mostly on the plantar aspect of the hind feet. What is your primary differential diagnosis?
Papillomatous digital dermatitis (Foot warts or hairy heel warts)
66
In August, a llama from New Hampshire shows fever, lethargy, ataxia, seizures, recumbency, torticollis, opisthotonos, and vestibular signs. The animal dies 2 days later and post-mortem findings are consistent with encephalitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
EEE - Eastern equine encephalitis virus
67
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infections have been most commonly identified in which 2 large animal species?
Horse and pig
68
The following techniques are used for rectovaginal fistula repair, except: A) Conversion to 3rd degree perineal laceration, repair B) Laparotomy, perineal body reconstruction C) Perineal body dissection, closure of rectal and vestibular mucosa D) Mucosal flap in dorsal vestibular wall, suture to rectal mucosa
B) Laparotomy, perineal body reconstruction
69
In October, two horses near Brisbane (AUS) show acute onset of respiratory distress, fever, and depression. Their caretaker also develops signs of respiratory disease. A root tree for bats is found in the horses' pasture. What is the most likely etiology?
Equine hendra virus (Henipavirus, Paramyxovirinae). This virus was first identified in 1995 and can be fatal for both horses and humans.
70
In the mare, transition from anestrus to normal cycling (vernal transition) ends when the: A) Diameter of the largest follicle reaches 35mm B) First ovulation occurs C) Mare stops teasing in heat after 5 or more days D) Mare teases in heat for 5 or more consecutive days
B) First ovulation occurs
71
Phimosis in the stallion is defined as: A) A Neurologic condition resulting in desensitization of the penile glans B) A prolonged period of tumescence (persistent erection) C) Inability to extend the penis outside of the sheath D) Inability to retract the penis back into the sheath
C) Inability to extend the penis outside of the sheath
72
Endometritis in the mare is usually due to any of the following bacteria except: A) Bacillus spp. B) Escherichia Coli C) Pseudomonas spp. D) Streptococcus zooepidermicus
A) Bacillus spp.
73
Several horses in a barn show signs of respiratory disease, including coughing and nasal discharge. One mare aborts her foal in the 8th month of gestation. Two horses have pelvic limb weakness and decreased tail tone. What is the most likely etiology?
Equine Herpesvirus type 1 (EHV-1)
74
Which of the following is the best-recognized risk factor for epiploic foramen entrapment in horses? A) Breed B) Crib biting C) High concentration of sand in the feed D) Pain E) Physical inactivity
B) Crib biting The reason is unclear, but changes in abdominal pressure as the horse prepares to ingest air have been proposed as part of the disease mechanism.
75
A foal treated for R. equi pneumonia with a standard antibiotic protocol develops diarrhea. Which is true? A) Diarrhea is usually self-resolving B) Gentamicin would have been a good alternative C) Treatment should be changed to macrolide monotherapy
A) Diarrhea is usually self-resolving Diarrhea in this context is usually self-resolving. Gentamicin does not penetrate into rhodococcal abscesses, even with susceptible bacteria (B), and macrolide monotherapy is ineffective (C).
76
What is the clinical manifestation of horses infected with Brucella abortus?
''Poll evil'' or ''Fistulous withers'' (Fistulous tracts originating from the atlantal or supraspinous bursae, respectively)
77
What is the most common cause of colic in an otherwise healthy newborn foal?
Meconium impaction
78
Horses are hindgut fermenters. Volatile fatty acids (VFAs) are the endproduct of the fermentation process and an important energy source. Which are the main 3 VFAs produced?
Acetate, propionate, butyrate. The same VFAs are produced in cows.
79
You examine an adult goat and notice peripheral lymphadenopathy. Before aspirating one of the lymph nodes you are justifiably concerned about zoonosis due to which etiologic agent?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (Caseous lymphadenitis)
80
Upon endoscopic examination of a horse with a history of exercise intolerance and respiratory stertor, you cannot visualize the free border of the epiglottis. What is the diagnosis?
Epiglottic entrapment. Dorsal displacement of the soft palate is also an acceptable answer if the entire epiglottis is not visible.
81
After a week and a half of rain, numerous individuals in a flock of sheep exhibit matted, discolored, malodorous fleece. What is the likely diagnosis?
Ovine fleece rot caused by proliferation of Pseudomonas spp.. This disease is economically important because the affected sheep are predisposed to myiasis, and the value of the wool is decreased.
82
Which body system is predominantly affected in pigs with parvovirus infection?
The reproductive system (failure to farrow, small litter size, mummified fetuses)
83
A cow presents with a sudden onset of seizures. The owner noticed that the animal had become more aggressive and seemed to vocalize frequently. Which environmental toxicant should be considered?
Lead. These are clinical signs commonly associated with leas poisoning. Polioencephalomalacia may look similar, but animals with lead toxicosis are more prone to seizures, vocalizing and aggression. Infectious diseases that may present similarly include rabies and bovine spongiform encephalopathy, which should be considered as important differential diagnoses.
84
Several horses show sudden onset of hyperexcitability, ataxia, sweating, tachycardia, dyspnea, pyrexia, and death. On post-mortem, hemorrhage is present in skeletal and cardiac muscle. A ''supplement'' was given IV 2-3 hours prior to onset. What is the most likely etiology?
Acute selenium toxicosis
85
A 2 year-old stallion rears and falls backwards. Afterwards, the horse is progressively ataxic. This is a common presentation for a fracture of which bone?
Basisphenoid
86
What are 3 zoonotic organisms that cause abortion in sheep?
Brucella melitensis, Coxiella burnetti, Toxoplasma gondii, Chlamydia psittaci, Campylobacter jejuni, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella spp.
87
Placentitis in the mare is commonly a result of: A) Ascending infection through the cervix B) Hematogenous spread of bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract C) Primary infection of the fetus that spreads to the placental tissues D) Septicemia
A) Ascending infection through the cervix
88
Which organism is known for causing abortion ''storms'' in sheep?
Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus
89
A 3 day-old calf presents with bilateral pelvic limb lameness which has been present since birth. The owner reports the calf required manual extraction to free the hind limbs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Femoral nerve damage due to excessive force applied to free the calf, causing hyperextension of the hips and putting traction on the femoral nerve or its roots (''hip lock'').
90
Name 3 conditions that must be met for the extra-label use of drugs in food animals.
1) Administered/ordered by a veterinarian 2) On-label treatments unavailable 3) Valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship 4) For therapeutic/humane purposes only 5) Administration to individual animals or in water, not in feed 6) Identification and treatment records are adequate and maintained for 2 years 7) Veterinarian established extended drug withdrawal period supported by scientific evidence 8) Drug is adequately labeled
91
After which day of pregnancy is a fetal membrane slip palpable in a cow's rectal exam?
30-35 days (in the pregnant horn; also palpable in the nonpregnant horn approximately by day 70)
92
The esophagus enters which compartment of the camelid stomach?
C-1
93
A one month-old alpaca presents for bilateral ocular discharge since birth. After fluorescein application, the dye does not appear in the nostrils. What is your next diagnostic imaging test of choice?
Dacryocystorhinography. This is used for evaluating the anatomy of the nasolacrimal duct and localize the obstruction prior to surgical correction.
94
Why is the use of chloramphenicol prohibited in food animals?
Chloramphenicol has been associated with the development of a non-dose related aplastic anemia in people.
95
Name the disease caused by the blood borne parasite Theileria equi.
Equine piroplasmosis, an emerging disease of horses in the United States. This is an animal health issue with potentially serious economic implications as the US was previously considered free of this disease.
96
In pig meat, both PSE (Pale soft and exudative) and DFD (Dark firm and dry) meat are a result of stress prior to slaughter. How do the predisposing conditions resulting in these changes in meat quality differ?
PSE meat is a result of acute pig stress right before or during slaughter (increased lactate production). DFD meat is a result of chronic pig stress (glycogen depletion).
97
Why is the left side more commonly affected than the right in horses with laryngeal hemiplegia?
The fact that the condition is more common on the left side has been attributed to the greater length of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve compared to the right.
98
Which of the following is NOT useful in estimation of the duration of pregnancy in the bovine? A) Fetal size and crown-to-nose measurement B) Length of the amniotic vesicle C) Location of the cervix D) Placentome size at the uterine bifurcation
C) Location of the cervix
99
Fluid therapy in horses with HYPP should only include fluids free of, or low in, __________.
Potassium. The use of potassium penicillin should also be avoided in these horses.
100
If a cow ingests poison hemlock or lupines between days 40 and 75 of pregnancy, a characteristic lesion may be apparent in the calf at birth. What is the lesion?
Congenital contractures (''crooked calf disease'' - poison hemlock; congenital arthrogryposis - lupines)

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 3 (6 decks)

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