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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 3 > The ''Ologies'' > Flashcards

The ''Ologies'' Flashcards

1
Q

Which is FALSE regarding trilostane?

A) It can lower serum P and increase serum Ca2+ levels
B) It has been used for treating alopecia X in Alaskan malamutes
C) K+ concentration can increase due to suppression of aldosterone secretion
D) There is no risk of adrenal necrosis

A

D) There is no risk of adrenal necrosis.
This is false. Adrenal necrosis has been documented in dogs receiving trilostane.

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2
Q

Which artery in a healthy adult animal carries de-oxygenated blood?

A

The pulmonary artery

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3
Q

Which benign dermal tumor of epidermal Langerhans cell origin typically presents as a single solitary lesion in young dogs (less than 3 years of age) and often spontaneously regresses within 1 to 2 months of presentation?

A

Canine cutaneous histiocytoma

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4
Q

True or False: Bacteria and yeast are primary factors in otitis externa.

A

False, they tend to be opportunists when a primary non-infectious disorder exists (atopy, flea allergy, conformational abnormalities of the external ear, etc.)

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5
Q

When choosing between two topical ointments, one containing corticosteroids and one without, for the treatment of conjunctivitis, what is an important condition to rule out before deciding which medication to dispense?

A

Corneal ulceration; if present, topical corticosteroids are contraindicated as they delay healing and promote keratomalacia/melting.

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6
Q

A dog presents with a circumscribed, hairless, partially-ulcerated lesion on the dorsal aspect of the left carpus. The owner reports that the dog is ‘‘always licking’’ the affected area. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Acral lick dermatitis (lick granuloma, neurodermatitis), which has no known cause, but is a relatively common psychogenic dermatitis. Boredom, or a mild sensory polyneuropathy leading to a sensation of pruritus or pain may play a role in lesion development. (‘‘Acral’’ means ‘‘pertaining to the limb’’).

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7
Q

What is the postantibiotic effect (PAE)?

A

Bacterial growth remains suppressed for a period of time after the drug concentration has decreased below the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). The PAE depends both on the antimicrobial and the bacterial pathogen. This is the reason gentamicin can be given once a day to domestic animals even though the elimination half life is 3 hours or less.

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8
Q

What is the primary source of coccidiosis infections in nursing puppies?

A

Environmental contamination with oocysts

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9
Q

In the pelvic limb, the flexor (withdrawal) reflex is mediated by which nerve?

A

The sciatic nerve

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10
Q

In health, how long do neutrophils survive in the tissues?

A

24-48 hours

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11
Q

Milbemycin is effective against all but which one of these parasites?

A) Uncinaria stenocephala
B) Ancylostoma caninum
C) Otodectes cyonis
D) Dirofilaria immitis microfilariae
E) Trichuris vulpis

A

A) Uncinaria stenocephala
Milbemycin (Interceptor) is not known to be effective against tapeworms.

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12
Q

What is the name of a molecule that is too small to be immunogenic, but which, when it attaches to a larger molecule, is recognized by the immune system and can thus elicit a hypersensitivity reaction?

A

A hapten (examples: Penicillin, poison ivy)

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13
Q

In the mammalian immune system, the plasma cell is derived from which cell?

A

B cell (lymphocyte). Activated B-cells can either become immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cells or memory cells.

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14
Q

Name 2 examples of pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).

A

Lipopolysaccharides (LPSs); Peptidoglycans; Lipoteichoic acid; Flagellins; Double stranded RNA; Unmethylated DNA.
These are all components of pathogens that are recognized as non-self by all mammals.

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15
Q

Which canine breed is commonly reported to have vacuolated (grey) eosinophils?

A

Greyhounds

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16
Q

An adult pig carcass shows emaciation, dehydration, and fecal staining. The dominant lesion is a diffuse colitis, with sharp demarcation at the cecum (no small intestinal lesion). Histologically, spirochete organisms are seen in the colonic crypts. What is the diagnosis?

A

Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infection)

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17
Q

In a puppy, by which age should anatomic closure of the ductus arteriosus occur?

A) It is closed at the time of parturition
B) 2-5 days
C) 7-10 days
D) 12-15 days

A

C) 7-10 days

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18
Q

The abdominal part of the caudal vena cava and the azygos vein are formed from which embryological vessels?

A

The caudal cardinal veins

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19
Q

With respect to cellular function, what do Kupffer cells, microglial cells, and Langerhans cells have in common?

A

They are all phagocytic cells. Kupffer cells and microglial cells are macrophages (derived from monocytes) and Langerhans cells are dendritic cells.

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20
Q

Which of the following cytokines is NOT an endogenous pyrogen?

A) IL-1
B) IL-6
C) IL-8
D) TNF alpha

A

C) IL-8; Interleukin 8 (also called CXCL8) is a chemokine with a major role in neutrophil chemotaxis

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21
Q

Which feline infectious respiratory disease is characterized by oral ulceration?

A

Feline calicivirus. Feline immunodeficiency virus infection is associated with stomatitis, but uncommonly with oral ulceration.

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22
Q

Between which liver lobes is the gallbladder located?

A

Between the right medial lobe and the quadrate lobe.

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23
Q

A group of growing piglets exhibits erythematous papules and pustules on the ventral and lateral abdomen, lateral thorax, and medial forelimbs and thighs. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Swinepox, a mild viral infection with very low mortality which occurs worldwide and is endemic in regions with intensive swine production.

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24
Q

The production of lactate as a metabolic end-product (from pyruvate) allows the regeneration of which molecule?

A

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)

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25
What is the source of the S4 heart sound?
It is the sound of blood being pushed into the ventricles by atrial contraction.
26
In the fetus, the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve lies to the left of the adult curve. What does that mean?
Fetal erythrocytes have a higher affinity for oxygen. This allows the fetus to exist in a state of tissue hypoxia compared with the adult. This explains the observation that foals with hypoxic brain injury commonly first show signs 2-3 days postpartum (they have used up their fetal hemoglobin).
27
The strongest stimulus for postprandial gallbladder contraction in dogs is provided by which hormone?
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
28
Which 2 embryological structures allow blood to bypass the lungs in the fetal circulation?
Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus
29
How does metabolic acidosis affect plasma potassium concentration?
Plasma potassium concentration increases in cases with metabolic acidosis, as a result of extracellular shift of potassium; it is important to consider that an acidotic animal with plasma potassium within the reference range may become hypokalemic once the acidosis is corrected.
30
Your 1 day0old male patient urinates, and you notice that instead of coming from the penis, the urine emerges from the umbilicus. What is the embryologic defect?
Patent urachus (Ouraque persistant)
31
A horse that has been kept in a muddy paddock, has bilateral hindlimb lameness. On examination, you find the frogs of both hooves have foul-smelling black exudate. What are the most likely diagnosis and etiologic agent?
Necrotizing pododermatitis (thrush); caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum
32
Which effect do angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors have on systemic blood pressure?
They decrease it
33
Name 3 diseases that can cause enlargement of both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins.
1) Left to right shunts (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus, ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect) 2) Peripheral arteriovenous fistula 3) Fluid retention due to heart failure 4) Iatrogenic intravenous fluid overload
34
Which of the following inflammatory medications induces vasoconstriction? A) Bradykinin B) Nitric oxide C) PGE2 D) Thromboxane A2
D) Thromboxane A2 All others are vasodilators
35
Which canine parasite is a major cause of abortion among dairy cattle?
Neospora caninum
36
With metabolic acidosis, and with regards to the concentration of HCO3- and PCO2, what is the primary disturbance and what is the compensatory response?
Primary disturbance: Decreased HCO3- concentration Compensation: Decreased PCO2
37
What is the most common physical exam abnormality on initial presentation of a dog with lymphoma?
Multicentric lymphadenopathy (Stage III)
38
Which family of drugs is most useful in treating glomerular disease causing proteinuria?
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors; Adjunctive treatments often include an anticoagulant (e.g. Aspirin), omega-3 fatty acid supplementation, and arteriodilators if systemic hypertension is present.
39
Which testicular tumor, typically arising from an intra-abdominally retained testicle, is associated with gynecomastia and bone marrow suppression?
Sertoli cell tumor
40
What is the first canine oral tumor to have a commercially-available vaccine approved for use by oncologists to treat the disease?
Malignant melanoma
41
Are enveloped or nonenveloped viruses more resistant to physical inactivation (heat, detergents, etc.)?
Nonenveloped viruses are more resistant. The lipid membrane of enveloped viruses makes them fragile and more susceptible to inactivation.
42
What is the mode of transmission of the canine distemper virus?
Aerosol or direct contact with secretions
43
Antibiotics of which class cause staining of the deciduous teeth in puppies when given to the dam during pregnancy?
Tetracyclines
44
What is the name of the giant kidney worm of dogs?
Dioctophyma renale
45
Which two hormones are most directly responsible for water and solute resorption by the kidney?
Aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)
46
What is the minimum number of weeks needed for oral antibiotic treatment of deep pyodermas?
6 to 8 weeks. In practical terms, individual treatment is continued 2-3 weeks beyond clinical cure.
47
Name 2 of the 4 major physiologic mechanisms of pulmonary edema.
1) Increased vascular hydrostatic pressure 2) Decreased plasma oncotic pressure 3) Increased vascular permeability 4) Impaired lymphatic drainage
48
Parathyroid hormone stimulates which changes in circulating calcium and phosphorus?
Increase in serum ionized calcium, decrease in serum phosphorus
49
What is the function of Schwann cells?
They are responsible for myelination of peripheral nerves.
50
Chronic phenobarbital therapy classically can cause toxicosis and failure to which organ?
The liver
51
Name 5 elements that must appear on a prescription label.
Date; patient name; client name; doctor name; hospital name and address; drug name; drug concentration; dosage and administration; number of refills and expiration date.
52
You are monitoring a dog under general anesthesia. Name 4 physical indicators of a light level of anesthesia.
1) Spontaneous movement 2) Reflex movement in response to surgical stimulation 3) Abrupt increase in heart rate, blood pressure or respiratory rate 4) Increased mandibular muscle tone 5) Change to thoracic breathing 6) Presence of palpebral reflex, pupillary light reflex, or dazzle reflex 7) Central eyeball position with medium sized pupil (eyeball does not rotate when ketamine is used) 8) Gag and swallow reflex present
53
Name two members of the genus pestivirus that are clinically relevant in veterinary medicine.
Bovine viral diarrhea virus, border disease virus, classical swine fever virus (hog cholera virus).
54
How is a mirror image artifact created in diagnostic ultrasound?
Sound bounces off a strong, smooth surface such as the diaphragm, ''reflecting'' the pulse to another tissue interface which the ultrasound system calculates to be beyond the first, and this is where it appears on the scan (e.g. a ''second'' gallbladder appearing cranial to the diaphragm).
55
Where in the adrenal glans does mitotane (o,p'-DDD) work in the treatment of hyperadrenocorticism?
Necrosis of the adrenal cortex (zonas fasciculata & reticularis +/- zona glomerulosa). Memory helper #1 Glomerulosa = mineralocorticoids (''salt'') Fasciculata & Reticularis = Glucocorticoids and androgens (''sugar & sex''). Memory helper #2 Zones from outermost to innermost = Glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis (GFR, like glomerular filtration rate)
56
What is the most common oral neoplasm in dogs?
Malignant melanoma
57
Infection with canine parvovirus occurs by which route?
Fecal-oral
58
Which type of inflammatory lesion is seen histopathologically with Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis infection in cattle?
Granulomatous
59
Are Paramyxoviridae RNA or DNA viruses?
RNA viruses
60
Streptococci are divided into 3 types based on hemolysis patterns when grown on blood agar plates (alpha-, beta-, and gamma- hemolytic). Of which type are most of the pathogenic streptococci?
Beta-hemolytic
61
Which bacterium is commonly associated with ulcerative enterocolitis and granulomatous bronchopneumonia in foals?
Rhodococcus equi
62
On your first day in your new practice, you notice that one bottle of ketamine contains yellow, clear liquid, whereas the other contains colorless liquid. Both are well before their expiry dates. What is the difference?
Practices may routinely ass acepromazine (which is yellow) to their ketamine vials.
63
Most opaque white solutions, like procaine penicillin G, should never be administered intravenously. What are 2 opaque white solutions that are an exception to this rule?
Propofol and total parenteral nutrition (lipids)
64
Name 3 diseases that are associated with metastatic calcification of soft tissues in small animals.
1) Renal secondary hyperparathyroidism 2) Lymphoma 3) Canine adenocarcinoma of apocrine glands of the anal sacs 4) Hypervitaminosis D 5) Destruction of bone from primary or metastatic neoplasia
65
A vial of lidocaine may also come with a second pharmaceutical already added that vasoconstricts. This formulation should never be given IV because the second agent may cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. What is this second drug?
Epinephrine
66
Which are the primary lymphoid organs?
Thymus and bone marrow (mammals) or bursa of Fabricius (birds)
67
Eurytrema procyonis is a parasite that affects which organ in the cat?
The pancreas
68
The avian influenza virus, a single-stranded, enveloped, RNA virus, belongs to which virus family?
Orthomyxoviridae
69
Which percentage of feta cardiac output does the placenta receive? A) 25% B) 35% C) 45% D) 55%
C) 45%
70
What is the pathogenesis of edema disease in pigs?
Subsequent to dietary changes at weaning, Escherichia coli proliferates in the small intestine and produces an exotoxin (ETEC - edema disease principle) which spreads hematogenously, causing generalized vascular endothelial injury, resulting in fluid loss and edema.
71
As with feline immunodeficiency virus, equine infectious anemia virus is a retrovirus of which subfamily?
Lentiviridae / Lentivirus
72
The intercapital ligament connects the heads of which ribs?
Ribs 2-11. The ligament connecting the heads of the 11th pair of ribs is smaller than the others. This is one reason intervertebral disk disease in dogs is less common in this region.
73
What is the immune mechanism of type I hypersensitivity?
IgE - mediated mast cell degranulation
74
Which byproduct of raw bread dough has been associated with toxicosis in dogs?
Ethanol
75
In stage 3 of anesthesia (unconsciousness), which plane corresponds to surgical anesthesia?
Plane 2 (surgical anesthesia; Plane 1 is light, Plane 3 is deep)
76
According to Stewart's theory of strong ion difference, is HCO3- a dependent or an independent variable?
It is a dependent variable. It does not change directly, but rather changes in response to changes in independent variables (the strong ions, e.g, sodium, chloride, potassium)
77
In dogs and cats, which one of the following is higher in concentration in urine than in plasma? A) Amino acids B) Chloride C) Phosphate
B) Chloride
78
Which etiologic agent is associated with the bovine adult form of multicentric lymphoma?
Bovine leukosis virus (Family Retroviridae)
79
Name 3 nonrenal lesions associated with uremia.
1) Ulcerative and hemorrhagic gastritis and/or colitis 2) Ulcerative and necrotic stomatitis 3) Soft-tissue mineralization 4) Pneumonitis/Pulmonary edema 5) Pericarditis 6) Fibrous osteodystrophy 7) Atrial and Aortic thrombosis 8) Hypoplastic anemia 9) Parathyroid hyperplasia
80
Dogs are the main domestic reservoir for which zoonotic agent transmitted by sand fly vector?
Leishmania infantum, the causative agent of visceral leishmaniasis
81
What is the most common side-effect of azathioprine in cats, which makes it contraindicated in this species?
Myelosuppression
82
Name 3 pharmacologic effects of glucocorticoids that lead to immunosuppression.
1) Decrease circulating levels of T-lymphocytes 2) Decrease interferon production 3) Diminish intracellular killing 4) Inhibit lymphocyte, neutrophil and monocyte migration 5) Inhibit lymphokines 6) Inhibit Phagocytosis 7) Reduce antigen processing
83
Changes in extracellular fluid osmolality cause water to shift between the intracellular and extracellular spaces. Which biochemical components are the major contributors to osmolality?
Electrolytes and small molecules (e.g. urea, glucose). Large molecules (e.g proteins) are responsible for oncotic pressure, but they contribute little to osmolality.
84
Concerning tetralogy of Fallot, which of the 4 lesions is NOT a primary congenital anomaly?
Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy, which develops in response to pulmonic stenosis
85
What is the injectable adulticide of choice for treating heartworm disease in dogs?
Melarsomine (Immiticide)
86
What are the three common types of testicular tumors in small animals?
Interstitial cell, Sertoli cell, and seminoma
87
Which class of antibiotics has been shown to cause deafness in some cases when used systematically or topically?
Aminoglycosides
88
Bovine abortion associated with Neospora caninum typically occurs during which gestational age range?
Three to nine months
89
Initially, after rapid blood loss, the hematocrit will remain normal. How long after the onset of the hemorrhage does interstitial fluid begin to shift into the vasculature, causing dilution of the erythrocyte mass?
2-3 hours and continuing for 48-72 hours
90
What percentage of the liver must be removed for regeneration and recovery to no longer be possible?
80%
91
Which hormone is responsible for converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?
Renin
92
What is the most common bacterium associated with canine diskospondylitis?
Staphylococcus spp.
93
What is the mechanism of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
Inhibition of cyclooxygenase resulting in reduced formation of prostanoid metabolites (e.g. thromboxanes and prostaglandins)
94
The term cardiogenic pulmonary edema generally refers to edema caused by which one of the following? A) Left-sided congestive heart failure B) Right-sided congestive heart failure
A) Left-sided congestive heart failure
95
Name 3 clinical signs of increased intracranial pressure.
1) Altered mentation 2) Circling 3) Head pressing 4) Pacing 5) Aimless wandering 6) Cortical blindness 7) Seizures (lesions of cerebral cortex and thalamus) 8) Hyperreflexia 9) Tetraplegia 10) Absence of pupillary light reflex (midbrain) 11) Mydriasis (Mesencephalon) 12) Cranial nerve dysfunction 13) Disturbance of consciousness 14) Abnormal respiration (Medulla Oblongata)
96
Necropsy of an emaciated white-tailed deer reveals superficial lymphadenitis with cutaneous draining abscesses, and multiple firm, tan pleural nodules. Which reportable disease must be considered?
Bovine tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
97
What is the mechanism of action of the bronchodilator clenbuterol?
Beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonism
98
When beginning warfarin treatment for anticoagulation, why can a slightly procoagulant state occur initially (first 24-48 hours)?
Warfarin initially antagonizes proteins C and S, which are natural anticoagulants.
99
Potassium bromide is not routinely recommended for use in cats due to which potential complication?
Bronchial asthma exacerbation
100
Through which mechanism does the kidney maintain perfusion during hypotension?
Autoregulation; mediated by PGE2

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 3 (6 decks)

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