WHOLE MODULE Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two opposing theories of early development

A

Epigenesis - Aristotle belief that development is a gradual process, stage by stage, whereby new functions and characteristics are added on top of others. The other theory is that everything is already present and pre-established in the fertilised egg and all is required is amplification

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2
Q

What is meant by preformationism

A

The idea that organs develop from miniature versions of themselves as a homunculus (little human)

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3
Q

Explain Wissman’s theory of how cells become different

A

Two types of cells exist, somatic and germ cells. Germ cells contain determinants (germ plasm) whereas somatic cells only contain a subset of these determinants which define its particular set of characteristics

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4
Q

Recall the experiments carried out by Wilhelm Roux on frog embryos

A

Roux killed half of the cells at the 2 and 4-cell stage and looked at this effect on the developing embryo. It was noticed that ablation of these cells lead to the production of half embryos. This lead him to believe that at that stage each cell contributes uniquely to the development of the embryo and that the cell that wasn’t killed is only capable of adopting its primary fate.

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5
Q

How do the experiments carried out by Hans Driesch differ to those of Roux

A

Hans Driesch carried out similar experiments on sea urchin embryos. He divided the embryos up at the 2 and 4 cell stage and allowed them to develop, each cell in isolation from the others. He believed that these cells would give rise to the relevant part of the body plan already decided on. However each of the separated cells gave rise to a separate sea urchin proving that these cells were totipotent and could give rise to any of the cells of the body.

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6
Q

How does cell shape influence behaviour

A

Epithelial cells are fixed and immobile whereas mesenchymal cells allow migration. Thus epithelial to mesenchymal transitions (EMTs) are essential during development particularly in gastrulation.

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7
Q

What are the four types of cell-cell communication

A

Paracrine, autocrine, Juxtacrine and endocrine

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8
Q

Which types of cell signalling occur in development

A

Paracrine, autocrine and Juxtacrine

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9
Q

Which type of cell-cell communication involves a factor acting on receptors on the same cell that produced it

A

Autocrine

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10
Q

Which type of cell-cell communication involves two cells communicating with each other by direct contact

A

Juxtacrine

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11
Q

Which type of cell-cell communication involves a factor acting on a receptor on a neighbouring cell

A

Paracrine

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12
Q

Give an example of a juxtacrine signalling mechanism seen in development

A

Delta-notch

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13
Q

Give example(s) of paracrine/autocrine signalling mechanisms seen in development

A

Shh, Wnt, TGF?, BMP and FGF signalling

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14
Q

What are the two types of cell division seen during development and how do they differ

A

Symmetric cell division - progeny divide and give rise to two identical daughter cells. Asymmetric cell division – progeny divide and give rise to two daughters with different characteristics

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15
Q

How is asymmetric cell division achieved

A

Cytoplasmic, extracellular or membranal determinants are segregated/distributed unevenly in the precursor cells so that when it divides the daughters contain different levels

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16
Q

Every cell has the potential to communicate with other cells, T or F

A

F - some cells dont

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17
Q

Cells need to be competent to respond to a signal by receiving and transmitting a signal to the nucleus, T or F

A

T

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18
Q

What type of signal initiates a new program

A

Instructive signals

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19
Q

What type of signal provides a favourable environment for a specific program

A

Permissive signals

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20
Q

What is meant by a morphogen

A

A morphogen is a chemical (usually a diffusible signalling molecule) whose concentration varies forming a concentration gradient

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21
Q

What are the three requirements of a molecule for it to be a morphogen

A

Produced from a localised source, usually sensed through cell surface receptors and cells respond differently to difference concentrations of the morphogen

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22
Q

What are the common features of signal transduction pathways

A

Ligand binding to a receptor causes its activation which leads to the transduction of the signal to the nucleus via a cascade if secondary messenger activation. This in-turn leads to the activation of a transcription factor which induces the transcription of specific target genes

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23
Q

Gene content is identical in most cells and transcription/translation dictates the protein content of a cell, T or F

A

T

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24
Q

At what levels does the cell operate control on a gene program

A

Production of mRNA, processing and stability of mRNA, production of proteins and the activity of proteins

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25
Q

What are the two ways in which the cell controls the genetic program at the level of gene transcription

A

Differential gene expression, enhancer-mediated control

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26
Q

What other two methods are the of controlling the genetic program

A

miRNA, controls at the level of chromatin

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27
Q

What feature of cells is essential for the normal development, growth and repair of organs and how is this achieved

A

Tissue homeostasis - achieved by a balance of new cell formation and knowledge of how many cells are required by a tissue and when it needs to build more

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28
Q

What are the effects of disruption of tissue homeostasis

A

Contributes to ageing and degeneration

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29
Q

What are the four processes underlying development

A

Pattern formation, morphogenesis, cell differentiation and growth

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30
Q

What is meant by pattern formation

A

The organisation of cells within the body and how they occupy particular points in the xyz axis

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31
Q

What is meant by the term morphogenesis

A

The creation of shape

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32
Q

Outline the process of morphogenesis

A

How a cell/organ/tissue adopts a particular 3D shape and how cells move and reorganise during development to generate functional organisms

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33
Q

What four attributes of cells determines morphogenesis

A

Adhesion, migration, death and shape

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34
Q

Define cell differentiation

A

The process by which cells become different from one another and acquire specialised properties

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35
Q

What governs differentiation

A

Changes in gene expression which dictate the repertoire of proteins synthesised by a cell

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36
Q

Differentiation is an increase in cell fate and specialisation over time that corresponds to a decrease in pluripotency, T or F

A

F - differentiation is a gradual restriction in cell fate over time whereby specialisation increases and pluripotency decreases

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37
Q

What attributes of cells in development contributes to growth or a tissue/organ

A

Cell proliferation, enlargement and accretion

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38
Q

What is meant by cell accretion

A

Growth of a tissue/organ that occurs by a gradual accumulation of additional layers of cells

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39
Q

Describe Haeckels funnel model of development

A

Embryos start off developing similarly but become progressively different as time goes on

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40
Q

How does the Von Baer Hourglass model differ to the Haeckel funnel model

A

Embryos start off developing differently, but then converge at gastrulation, showing substantially conserved phenotypes. After this point they then diverge again

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41
Q

How can the spatial and temporal expression of a gene of interest be studied in development, what can you actually measure

A

You can investigate where and when the mRNA of this gene is transcribed

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42
Q

List the 5 techniques that can be used to determine where/when a gene is expressed in the embryo

A

In situ hybridisation, northern blotting, reverse transcriptase PCR, micro-arrays and reporter lines

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43
Q

Outline the process of in situ hybridisation

A

A probe with complementary base pairs to the target gene is synthesised and labelled with a digoxigenin (DIG) immune-tag. This will bind to the target sequence of the gene of interest and then a secondary antibody binds to the DIG label. Binding of the secondary antibody leads to an enzymatic reaction that produces a reaction product that indirectly marks all the cells that produce that specific mRNA.

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44
Q

What is the major disadvantage of in situ hybridisation

A

You have to kill the embryo in order to carry out the technique

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45
Q

Explain the process of reporter line transgenics

A

Introduce a coding sequence for a reporter gene i.e. GFP, RFP or ?-gal into the coding sequence of the gene of interest. This will result in the reporter gene being under control of the target genes promoter sequence. Hence, wherever the gene of interest is expressed the reporter will be too. This can be easily visualised or investigated

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46
Q

What methods can be used to determine if a protein is actually expressed at the same time as a gene by investigating if the mRNA produced is actually transcribed

A

Western blotting, immunohistochemistry

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47
Q

Explain how immunofluorescence can be used to visualise where a protein is expressed during development

A

Introducing labelled tags to antibodies for various epitopes of a protein of interest allow you to visualise where these epitopes and proteins are expressed

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48
Q

Gain and loss of function experiments are used to investigate if target genes are essential in development, T or F

A

T

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49
Q

How can loss of function mutations be used to test for essential genes in development

A

By introducing a premature STOP codon into the target sequence you can investigate how essential a gene is in development. Loss of function mutations results in a disruption in the expression or function of the mutated genes

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50
Q

How can gain of functions mutations be used to investigate essential developmental genes

A

Mutations in regulatory regions of a DNA sequence can lead to increased levels of transcription. This confers a gain in the activity of the mutated protein

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51
Q

What is the difference between forwards and reverse genetics

A

Forward genetics investigates the identity of genetic mutations responsible for a specific observed phenotype. In contrast, reverse genetics seeks to characterise the phenotype produced from a particular gene mutation

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52
Q

How can tissue ablation be used in the study of gene regulation during development

A

Tissue ablation and ectopic grafting experiments can be correlated with levels of transcription factors. You can also investigate is a transcription factor soaked bead is sufficient to direct gene expression

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53
Q

How can the tissues/organs that are derived from cells that express a certain gene be elucidated

A

This is investigated in order to determine if every single tissue expressing a factor originated from the early structure expressing it. This can be investigated through fate mapping and determination experiments.

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54
Q

Chick-quail chimera labelling with dyes has been used to investigate cell fate and determination through dye labelling of progenitor cells, T or F

A

T

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55
Q

Define a morphogen

A

A soluble secreted molecule that acts at a distance to specify the fates of cells

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56
Q

What are the two main attributes of a morphogen

A

Morphogens act at a distance to induce different output or cell fates at different concentrations by forming a gradient in the embryo.

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57
Q

How is higher information encoding achieved by morphogens

A

More information is encoded by the higher morphogen concentrations closer to the source

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58
Q

What two mechanisms can account for the different cell fates achieved by morphogens

A

Temporal diffusion of the secreted signals from the source to where it is destroyed/sunk. Similarly, the magnitude of the morphogen concentration also causes the acquisition of different cell fates

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59
Q

Why are morphogen gradients usually exponential decays

A

Morphogens move by passive diffusion throughout the embryo leading to the exponential decay appearance of the gradient

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60
Q

How may it be possible to achieve a straight linear morphogen gradient

A

Active movement of the morphogen may achieve a linear gradient

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61
Q

The shape of the morphogen gradient is what encodes the information to direct cell differentiation, T or F

A

T

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62
Q

All molecule involved in patterning of the embryo are morphogens, T or F

A

F – permissive signals aren’t morphogens

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63
Q

Why aren’t permissive signals morphogens

A

Permissive signals only direct a cell to response to an instructive signal

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64
Q

Instructive signals are morphogens, T or F

A

T

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65
Q

What would be seen in a field of cells as a result of ectopic grafting of another source if the secreted factor was a morphogen

A

A mirror image of cell differentiation would be seen

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66
Q

What would be seen in a field of cells as a result of ectopic grafting of another source if the secreted factor was a permissive signal

A

This would have no effect on cell differentiation, all cells in the field would develop normally as the permissive signal only enables the cells to respond to a morphogen

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67
Q

Give an example of an experiment that has proved a gene product is a morphogen by ectopic grafting

A

Ectopic grafting of an shh soaked bead opposite to its normal site in the chick limb bud leads wing development that defined by a mirror image duplication of the digits etc.

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68
Q

What would be the effects of forcing a uniform gradient of a secreted factor across a field of cells if this factor was a permissive signal

A

There would be no abnormal effects on cell development. The same number of fates will be produced and each cell would adopt the correct fate

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69
Q

What would be the effects of forcing a uniform gradient of a secreted factor across a field of cells if this factor was an instructive signal

A

This would result on the field of cells only adopting one fate as all cells would receive the same ligand concentration

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70
Q

Explain what is meant by the bucket brigade signalling mechanism and why this is therefore not used by morphogens

A

The bucket brigade mechanisms uses sequential signalling of the cells that acts immediately on the adjacent cell. Expression of one signal induces a target cells to produce another different signal. This signal acts on the next cell in the sequence to induce production/secretion of another different factor and so on. As this signalling occurs between adjacent cells and not over distance, this isn’t a type of morphogen signalling

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71
Q

How can you experimentally modify a potential morphogenic molecule to make it juxtacrine

A

Using genetic engineering to add a transmembrane domain region to the protein sequence to make it a membrane bound signal

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72
Q

What would be the effects of making a morphogen juxtacrine and how would this differ if the signal was part of a bucket brigade signalling mechanism

A

If the ligand was a morphogen, making it juxtacrine would lead to only the first cell being induced to adopt its fate as the ligand will be unable to act at a distance and direct differentiation by diffusion. This would be due to it becoming membrane bound and only able to act on adjacent cells. If the factor was part of a bucket brigade mechanism, then the signalling would be unaffected as adjacent cells would still receive their ligand and thus go onto produce the next sequential secreted factor.

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73
Q

How would creation of a genetic mosaic lacking a morphogen receptor influence differentiation

A

The cell lacking the receptor would adopt the same fate as the terminal cell in the field would normally. This would be due to the fact that the terminal cell usually receives the lowest/no morphogen signal. Cells after the one lacking the morphogen receptor would however development normally

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74
Q

How would the bucket brigade signalling mechanism be affected by a lacking receptor

A

Cell fate wouldn’t be effected if the receptor knocked out from a cell was one for a ligand that acts upstream of the cell in the sequential signalling pathway. This is because at this point in the cell field, this ligand is no longer acting and instead a different ligand is acting on the target cell produce by the proximal adjacent cells. However, if the receptor knocked out was the first receptor in the sequential sequence then none of the cells would adopt their fate and would remain undifferentiatiated

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75
Q

Shallowing morphogen gradients would encode far less information than steeper ones, T or F

A

T

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76
Q

How can a higher effective concentration of a morphogen be achieved

A

Preventing the morphogen from diffusing in axes that aren’t desirable

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77
Q

How can non-beneficial morphogen diffusion be prevented

A

Morphogen binding to molecules in the extracellular matrix such as heparan sulphate proteoglycans allows sequestration and facilitation of morphogen diffusion, effectively increasing the size/steepness of the gradient in desirable planes. This acts to increase the amount of information encoded by the morphogen gradient

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78
Q

Heparan sulphate proteoglycans are sometimes referred to as co-receptors and bind many different ligands, T or F

A

T

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79
Q

How can rapid degradation of the morphogen at the sink increase information encoding

A

Increases the steepness of the morphogen gradient

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80
Q

Decreasing the range of the morphogen gradient can be achieved by localisation of the morphogen in the desired range, T or F

A

F – this acts to extend the range

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81
Q

How can morphogens move through cells in a tissue and give an example of a molecule for which this is the cane

A

Planar transcytosis - Repeated cycles of endocytosis and re-secretion. Dpp is transcytosed and antibody staining has revealed its presence in vesicles

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82
Q

How is the timing of morphogen gradient establishment critical to cell differentiation

A

The cells are prevented from responding at an inappropriate time where the morphogen concentration won’t have reached that required by the particular cell to direct its correct fate. This is likely achieved by the cell waiting for a steady state of receptor activation to be achieved but the molecular mechanism by which this occurs isn’t understood

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83
Q

Explain how a cell interprets a morphogen gradient before responding and determining its fate

A

Morphogen concentration is directly correlated to the activation of transcription factors inside the cells. Higher concentration of morphogen often results in a higher concentration of an activated transcription factor. In this model, receptor activation causes transcription factors to enter the nucleus and direct transcription. Levels of activated transcription factor determine the fate of the cell

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84
Q

Which morphogen is the only known one which itself is a transcription factor and how does it act

A

Bicoid is a morphogen and a transcription factor. Bicoid mRNA is localised at the anterior of the egg and is translated into protein during early embryogenesis. Bicoid protein then diffuses through the cytoplasm and accumulates in nuclei of the syncytial blastoderm generating a concentration gradient

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85
Q

How do different levels of transcription factors dictate the different fates of cells under the influence of a morphogen

A

Binding of a transcription factor to the promoter seuequence of genes that confer a particular cell fate is an equilibrium reaction with an on and off rate. The strength of the equilibrium that’s moving gene expression towards its on state will control how strongly the gene is expressed. Increasing transcription concentration factor would increase on state by shifting the equilibrium to the right to counteract this increase in transcription factor levels. The concentration of activated transcription factor determines if it binds to high or low affinity sites. Each of these sites dictate a different cell fate and differential gene expression

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86
Q

What happens at low-medium transcription factor levels and how does this confer a particular cell fate

A

At low-medium concentration of the transcription factor only the high affinity sites will elicit binding which will direct a particular cell fate and specific subset of gene expression

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87
Q

What happens at high transcription factor levels and how does this confer a particular cell fate

A

At high concentrations of the transcription factor the low affinity sites will now allow binding. Binding of the transcription factor to these sites will result in differential gene expression and a different cell fate. More ligand will increase activation of low affinity sites

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88
Q

How do the low affinity sites allow differential gene expression if the high affinity transcription factor binding site are also being activated

A

One of the genes switched on by transcription factor binding to the low affinity sites will turn off by transcriptional repression) the high affinity genes in a process called crosstalk

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89
Q

Explain how strict thresholds of cell differentiation are achieved even if the morphogen gradient isn’t steep

A

Positive feedback helps a cell commit to its specific fate. If one of the genes switched on by high affinity site binding encodes a transcription factor – it can, amongst other things, activate its own expression

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90
Q

Drosophila melanogaster is a segmented animal, T or F

A

T

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91
Q

The genome of Drosophila has been sequenced, T or F

A

T

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92
Q

Drosophila can regulate their own body temperature, T or F

A

F – they cannot

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93
Q

What two temperatures are stocks of Drosophila kept

A

18 and 25°C

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94
Q

Which temperature stocks tend to have a lifecycle of around 10 days

A

25°C stocks

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95
Q

Which temperature stocks tend to have a longer life cycle of upwards of 21 days

A

18°C stocks

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96
Q

How much time elapses from laying of a fertilised Drosophila egg to hatching

A

24 hours

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97
Q

Briefly outline Thomas Hunt-Morgan’s contribution to Drosophila research

A

Hunt-Morgan noticed a white-eyed fly in his lab one day. He bred this fly with wild type flies to investigate the phenotypes produced

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98
Q

What was Sturtevants contribution to Drosophila research

A

Constructed the first genetic map and arranged it in a linear order

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99
Q

Bridges showed that chromosomes must contains genes, T or F

A

T

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100
Q

Muller showed that radiowaves caused mutations and chromosomal rearrangements, T or F

A

F – he showed that X-rays caused mutations

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101
Q

Outline Nusslein-Volhard and Wischuas contribution to Drosophila research

A

Carried out a saturation mutagenesis to identify genes in Drosophila involved in development and patterning. This was an absolutely massive screen and lead to the identification of 139 complementation groups

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102
Q

Describe the general arrangement of the Drosophila genome

A

4 chromosomes consisting of 3 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome. Roughly 17,000-18,000 genes, 14,000 of which code for proteins

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103
Q

What was seen as a result of alignment of homologous sequences of genes between Drosophila and other organisms

A

The protein encoding exons were almost perfectly conserved. The non-coding introns were seen to only be randomly conserved and showed differences between organisms most likely due to not being under any selection pressures. Regulatory sequences in the genes also showed high levels of conservation between species

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104
Q

Drosophila can produce 200 progeny in less than 2 weeks, T or F

A

T

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105
Q

Put these Drosophila courtship processes in order, orientation, licking, attempted copulation, tapping, wing vibration

A

Orientation, tapping, wing vibration, licking, attempted copulation

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106
Q

Female Drosophila mate several times in their life cycle while males mate only once, T or F

A

F – vice versa

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107
Q

The strongest Drosophila reproducible behaviour is genetically encoded, T or F

A

T

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108
Q

Outline spermatogenesis in Drosophila

A

The testes located within the abdomen on the male contain hub cells. These cells secrete factors such as unpaired which maintains stem cell fates in the cells adjacent to the hub. Unpaired is a JAK/STAT ligand and its signalling decreases with distance from the hub. Cells further away from the hub differentiate due to decreased levels of unpaired signalling. These cells divide and give rise to 64 sperm cells

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109
Q

What is remarkable about sperm produced by male Drosophila

A

Spermatids are 25x the length of the adult Drosophila body

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110
Q

Explain the interplay between the sexual evolution of male and female Drosophila

A

The sperm produced by male Drosophila is coated in a sex peptide. This binds to receptors in the brain of female Drosophila and prevents them from being able to respond to subsequent courtship dances by other males. This increases the likelihood of the males passing on their genetic information. However, females evolved the ability to repress the effects of the sex peptide. This caused the males to evolve and produce larger and larger sperm coated in more and more sex peptide to try and increase the females inability to respond to other courtship dances.

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111
Q

Outline the process of oogenesis in Drosophila

A

Stem cells are maintained at one end of the bundled linear structures that make up the ovaries. Cells in the ovaries undergo 4 incomplete cytoblast mitotic divisions. Most cells become nurse cells which undergo endoreduplication making multiple copies of the genome and expressing a huge amount mRNA that supplies the oocyte with the genetic information to synthesise proteins etc. The cells that go on to form oocytes do so by undergoing meiosis to produce cells containing mostly cytoplasm.

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112
Q

What is meant by cytoplasmic dumping and how does this occur

A

The nurse cells that supply the developing oocyte contain massive amounts of genetic information and are transcribing a vast amount of mRNA. This mRNA is then deposited through ring canals into the cytoplasm of the oocyte so that it can synthesise useful products.

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113
Q

Explain how polytene chromosomes are produced and what they represent

A

Polytene chromosomes are chromosomes stained for polymerase activity. Bands represent regions of the genome where there is little activity. Interband regions contain puffs which represent extremely active and transcribed genes.

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114
Q

Explain how some polarity is established in the oocyte even before fertilisation

A

Some of the factors deposited by the nurse cells through cytoplasmic dumping become localised (i.e. through gravity and other mechanisms). This localisation of factors accounts for the inherent polarity of Drosophila oocytes

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115
Q

Describe some of the features of the Drosophila egg

A

Chorion acts as the eggshell surrounding the embryo. The vitelline membrane lies beneath the chorion and provides waterproofing. The micropyle located at one end of the egg is the opening through which sperm enter.

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116
Q

Describe what is meant by a syncytial blastoderm and how this is achieved in the Drosophila embryo

A

Syncytium is a multinucleate cell. This is achieved in Drosophila through nuclei duplication in the centre and then migration to the periphery. After 14 rounds of nuclei duplication and after they have relocated to the edges of the embryo the cell membrane moves in and encapsulated the nuclei creating a cellular blastoderm.

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117
Q

What happens to the cells that are retained in the centre of the embryo before cellularisation

A

These become pole cells and give rise to the gametes and gonads of the adult organisms

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118
Q

What are the names given to the two regions of the embryo lower order animals (not humans) that give rise to the three germ layers and extraembryonic structures

A

Epiblast – gives rise to the germ layers, hypoblast – forms vegetal pole/hemisphere

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119
Q

In which regions of the morula would you find the structures that give rise to the embryo and to the extraembryonic structures

A

Top of the morula gives rise to the epiblast, bottoms gives rise to the hypoblast

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120
Q

What changes govern the formation of these two layers in the morula

A

Governed by morphogens and transcription factors that lead to changes in gene transcription

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121
Q

What causes the hollowing of the morula during development alongside squashing

A

Changes in osmolarity

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122
Q

Which region of the morula ultimately ends up undergoing apoptosis

A

Hypoblast

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123
Q

At which stage does the primitive streak in chick embryos form at the posterior of the embryo

A

Stage 3

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124
Q

At stage 4 of chick development, the primitive streak has elongated and Hensen’s node has formed anteriorly, what does this structure then begin to express

A

Expresses and secretes BMP antagonists such as chordin, noggin and follastatin

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125
Q

At what stage in chick development does the notochord begin to form

A

Stage 5-6

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126
Q

What structure then extends forward from the node and is involved in anterior-posterior axis formation

A

The notochord

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127
Q

Why are the events from morulation to gastrulation less studied in mammalian embryos and why is this

A

Mammalian embryos have been less extensively studied because they are difficult to maintain in culture after the blastula stage due to this being the stage at which they normally implant into the uterus

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128
Q

At five days post-fertilisation what structure forms in the mammalian embryo that is similar to the hypoblast

A

Trophoblast

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129
Q

What day corresponds to chick development stage 2 and corresponds to the embryo implantation into the uterus lining

A

12 days post-fertilisation

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130
Q

At what stage in mammalian embryonic development is the embryo referred to as a blastula

A

12 day stage

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131
Q

The processes occurring in chick embryos from stage 2-6 occur in 2-4 week old human embryos, T or F

A

T

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132
Q

At which region of the developing embryo does gastrulation and germ layer formation begin at

A

Posterior of the embryo

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133
Q

What is the first structure to become visible in the initial stages of gastrulation

A

Formation of the primitive streak due to cells moving into the midline forming a line that elongates anteriorly

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134
Q

What forms at the most anterior point of the primitive streak

A

(Hensen’s – in chicks) node

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135
Q

Which regions of the embryo does the primitive streak denote

A

Posterior/caudal regions

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136
Q

The epiblast gives rise to mesoderm, endoderm and ectoderm, T or F

A

T

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137
Q

Explain how signals from the hypoblast layer of the developing embryo accounts for the formation of three germ layers by the overlying epiblast

A

Signals from the hypoblast (trophoblast) induce some epiblast cells to become mesoderm and definitive endoderm. These cells involute and ingress along the anterior-posterior axis by losing contact with one another and migrating into the embryo. Superficial migrated cells become the mesoderm and the first cells to have ingressed, those now lying deeper within the epiblast will become endoderm.

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138
Q

How does the migration of cells into the embryo at the primitive streak account for the formation of both mesoderm and endoderm

A

Cells that migrated first from the epiblast layer will lie deeper within the embryo and will become the endoderm. Those that migrated later will be lying for superficially and will become mesoderm.

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139
Q

Once primitive streak reaches maximum extension and forms Hensen’s node, a similar event takes place whereby cells ingress but begin to move directly anteriorly/rostrally, T or F

A

T

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140
Q

What is different about the gastrulation of Xenopus embryos compared with mammal/human early embryonic development

A

The Xenopus embryo doesn’t compact to form a blastodisc as mammalian embryos do. It remains morula-like with an animal cap and a vegetal hemisphere

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141
Q

What structures in the Xenopus embryo correspond to the epiblast and hypoblast seen in mammalian embryos

A

Animal cap – epiblast, vegetal hemisphere – hypo/trophoblast

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142
Q

Explain how oocytes are already polarised before fertilisation

A

Particular determinants inside the egg have become localised in the vegetal hemisphere of the cell. This is due to gravity in Xenopus and an interaction with the placenta in mammals

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143
Q

What is the result of the inherent polarisation of the egg prior to fertilisation

A

Different cytoplasmic determinants have sunk to one part of the egg. This leads to the cells that come from this region being different and having specific factors localised/activated

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144
Q

In an early cleavage event, the vegetal and animal hemispheres of the now fertilised egg are separated, what is the effect of this on cytoplasmic determinant localisation

A

Cytoplasmic factors restricted to the vegetal part of the oocyte are now restricted to vegetal hemisphere cells

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145
Q

What is the effect of the factors that become localised to the vegetal hemisphere cells of the embryo as a result of early cleavages in the embryo that separate the animal and vegetal cells

A

These factors localised in the vegetal part of the embryo bind to promoters for particular transcription factors and upregulation. In-turn, these particular transcription factors become solely expressed in vegetal hemisphere cells

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146
Q

What is the name of the transcription factor that is specifically expressed and localised to vegetal hemisphere cells

A

VgT

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147
Q

Describe what happens as a result of the localisation of a specific transcription factor in the nuclei of cells in the vegetal hemisphere of the early embryo

A

Localised VgT in the nuclei of cells in the vegetal hemisphere leads to its binding to the promoter of a gene called Nodal and upregulate its expression. The Nodal morphogen then leaves the cells of the vegetal hemisphere and binds to receptors on cells in the animal hemisphere

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148
Q

What is the name of the morphogen expressed in the vegetal hemisphere cells that is upregulated as a result of VgT binding to its promoter

A

Nodal

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149
Q

What is the effect of the morphogen produced by cells of the vegetal hemisphere

A

Nodal binds to receptor on cells in the animal hemisphere and dictates the mesoderm and endoderm formation via cell proliferation, migration and differentiation.

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150
Q

What happens to cells at the top of the animal hemisphere as a result of VgT activity on its promoter

A

The Nodal morphogen produced as a result of this leaves the cells and binds to receptors in the animal hemisphere. It forms a concentration gradient throughout the animal hemisphere. Cells at the top of the animal hemisphere don’t receive nodal signalling and so remain as ectoderm. This is thought to be due to either not expressing the nodal receptors or by not receiving a threshold concentration of the nodal ligand

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151
Q

Nodal is expressed throughout the vegetal hemisphere/hypoblast in the developing embryo. What aspects/axes of early embryonic development does this signalling mechanism not account for

A

Can’t account for anterior-posterior axis formation and the appearance of the primitive streak at the distal region of the embryo

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152
Q

Which signalling pathway is therefore responsible for anterior-posterior patterning and formation of the primitive streak

A

Wnt signalling

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153
Q

Wnt signalling mediates a secondary symmetry breaking event but unlike nodal, it is activated on one side of the embryo. Explain how this is achieved and where wnt activity is seen in the early embryo

A

The Wnt signalling pathway is activated on one side of the embryo, opposite to the point of sperm entry. This region is referred to as the dorsal embryo but also represents the site where gastrulation movements will begin, i.e. the posterior embryo.

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154
Q

Nodal is activated throughout the animal cap of the embryo, T or F

A

F – it is activated throughout the vegetal hemisphere

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155
Q

Which gene product accumulates in the nuclei of cells in the posterior/dorsal embryo as a result of increase Wtn signalling and promotes the expression of Wnt target genes

A

?-catenin

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156
Q

What is the Nieuwkoop centre

A

The region of the embryo where ?-catenin has accumulated in the nuclei and there is activation of Nodal signalling

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157
Q

How does ?-catenin and nodal interact

A

?-catenin and nodal interact directly and result in enhanced activation of Wnt signalling in regions of the embryo where ?-catenin is also expressed. The causes the conversion of what was a uniform gradient of nodal in stage 8 to a clear concentration gradient from anterior to posterior in stage 9 embryos.

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158
Q

Where is the highest nodal activity seen as a result of its interaction with ?-catenin

A

Highest nodal in the dorsal/posterior embryo

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159
Q

What is the role of the Nieuwkoop centre

A

Region of high nodal and ?-catenin signalling that induces the formation of the organiser

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160
Q

What happens to regions with low nodal activity

A

Induction of ventral mesoderm

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161
Q

What are the two crucially different types of mesoderm induced in the early embryo

A

Organiser mesoderm, ventral/lateral mesoderm

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162
Q

The mechanism of ?-catenin and nodal interactions is poorly understood, T or F

A

T

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163
Q

What two factors are required for goosecoid expression

A

Nodal downstream effector known as Smad2/4 binding to its distal region of the promoter and a Wnt/?-catenin downstream effector called Xtwn binding to the proximal element of the promoter.

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164
Q

Brachyury is induced in response to high levels of Nodal in the dorsal/posterior embryo, T or F

A

F – brachyury expression is induced in response to low Nodal signalling in the ventral/anterior embryo

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165
Q

What levels of nodal signalling are required for expression of T, another transcription factor involved in anterior-posterior patterning

A

T is expressed at low Nodal signalling levels

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166
Q

Chordin, Xnot and Xlim1 are other genes expressed alongside goosecoid that act as inducers of various mesodermal fates, what is required for their induction

A

High levels of nodal signalling and wnt signalling activation and subsequent ?-catenin presence in the nucleus

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167
Q

Different types of mesoderm have different abilities in terms of proliferation, migration and differentiation etc, T or F

A

T

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168
Q

The combinatorial expression of T, Gsc, Chordin and Tbx6 accounts for the differences seen in the mesodermal tissue, T or F

A

T

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169
Q

What rod-like structure does the organiser/node differentiate into

A

Axial mesoderm

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170
Q

Explain how goosecoid and siamois act in a cell-autonomous way to direct the differentiation of the node/organiser

A

Siamois and goosecoid expressed in the organiser/node in turn act on the cells that express them in a cell-autonomous, or intrinsic manner to alter their fate. They begin induce the cells of the node/organiser to differentiate into axial mesoderm

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171
Q

What is one key property of axial mesoderm and accounts for rolling up of the neural plate into the neural tube during neurulation

A

Axial mesoderm is able to undergo convergent extension

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172
Q

Siamois and goosecoid are expressed at uniform levels but only transiently in different cells. This accounts for the formation of the 3 different types of mesoderm derived from the axial mesoderm, T or F

A

F – whilst gsc and siamois expression is only transient, they are also expressed at marginally different levels in the cells too

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173
Q

What are the three different types of mesoderm derived from the axial mesoderm induced by the transient expression of goosecoid and siamois

A

Prechordal mesendoderm, prechordal endoderm and notochord

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174
Q

Which of the three mesodermal tissues derived from the axial mesoderm are most anterior and most posterior

A

Prechordal mesendoderm are most anterior and the notochord lies posteriorly

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175
Q

Explain the two hypotheses by which Hensen’s node is thought to express chordin and goosecoid

A

Either cells in Hensen’s node co-express both gsc and chordin or there are individual cells that express each transcription factor

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176
Q

Explain how the expression of Gsc and chordin differs between notochord and prechordal mesoderm

A

Gsc is only expressed in the prechordal mesoderm (and not in the notochord) whereas chordin is only expressed in the more posterior, notochord and not at all in prechordal mesoderm in the anterior embryo

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177
Q

Explain how anterior-posterior axis extension is mediated and refined in the posterior embryo

A

Signals that were initially close together become spatially separated through the anterior-posterior axis. High FGF signalling and the presence of RA in the posterior embryo keep cells in a proliferative state and confers them to a posterior identity. The proliferation of posterior cells causes the addition to the axis as it elongates posteriorly

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178
Q

What happens in the anterior embryo

A

BMP and Wnt antagonises maintain the anterior identities

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179
Q

Anterior-posterior identity is through to be realised through the Hox code, T or F

A

T

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180
Q

Neurulation of ectoderm and ventralisation of the mesoderm are both mediated by BMP antagonists, T or F

A

F – neurulation of ectoderm and dorsalisation are mediated by BMP antagonists

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181
Q

BMP antagonists are secreted by which structure

A

The organiser/node

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182
Q

Other than chordin, name four other BMP antagonists

A

Follistatin, frizbee, cerberus and noggin

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183
Q

Where do the BMP antagonists end up and prevent the BMP signal in

A

Top layer of epiblast

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184
Q

How do BMP antagonists act

A

Block the interaction of BMPs with their receptors

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185
Q

What happens to the cells where the BMP signal is inhibited

A

They will become neural plate

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186
Q

Explain how BMP antagonists lead to the refinement of cell fates in the mesoderm

A

Initially, low levels of Nodal give ventral mesodermal fate. Subsequent inhibition of BMPs in the adjacent mesoderm to the neural tube induces the dorsalisation of what was ventral mesoderm initially. By this process the most proximal mesoderm to the organiser become the somites

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187
Q

What feature of the mesodermal tissue leads to the rolling up of the neural plate during neurulation and how does this occur

A

Convergent extension of the axial mesoderm creates a force in the anterior-posterior direction that is translated to one which drives curling up of the neural plate with somites residing either side.

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188
Q

Where does wnt derive its name from

A

Amalgam of wingless Drosophila gene and Int vertebrate proto-oncogene

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189
Q

Int-1 is a proto-oncogene, what causes its activation

A

Integration of the mouse mammary gland tumour virus

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190
Q

Wingless (wg) mutants initially discovered produced wingless but viable flies, T or F

A

T

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191
Q

Explain how wg and hh maintain each other’s expression in an auto-regulatory loop

A

Wg maintains hh by controlling the expression of engrailed (en), a transcription factor that regulates hh expression. Hh then in-turn maintains and directly upregulates wg

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192
Q

What is significant about hh and wg knockout mutants

A

They exhibit the same phenotype – larvae with a lawn of denticles

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193
Q

Unlike similar developmental signalling pathways, wnt expression is highly conserved throughout Kingdom Animalia, T or F

A

T – even found in sponges

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194
Q

Why is it that vertebrates have more wnt genes

A

Due to genome duplication throughout evolution

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195
Q

The wnt protein is produce by a cleavage event that separates its signalling sequence from the initially translated protein, T or F

A

T

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196
Q

What is the role of porcupine in the early modification of wnt

A

Porcupine is an acyl transferase that adds palmitoleic acid modifications to a serine residue at point 209 in the wnt3a structure

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197
Q

What is the hypothesised role of wntless in wnt signalling and what is its basic structure

A

Wntless is a 7 transmembrane domain protein potentially required for the transport of wnt to the plasma membrane and its subsequent release/presentation to target cells

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198
Q

What is the effect of palmitoylation and palmitoleic acid modification of the wnt protein

A

Addition of these hydrophobic groups makes wnt insoluble in water

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199
Q

What components of the extracellular matrix are involved in mediating the diffusion of wnts away from the sending cell

A

Heparan sulphate proteoglycans (HSPGs)

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200
Q

What is significant about the fact that most of the effects of Wnt signalling can be elicited by a membrane bound form of the protein in Drosophila

A

It suggests that wnts act as juxtacrine signalling molecules or that they don’t diffuse far and act on adjacent cells in Drosophila

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201
Q

Recall the two main receptors involved in reception and transmission of wnt signalling in Drosophila

A

Frizzled and Arrow

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202
Q

What is the name of the nuclear factor in Drosophila that is induced as a result of wnt signalling and its corresponding vertebrate homologue

A

Armadillo (vertebrate homolog – ?-catenin)

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203
Q

What are the names of the arrow receptor homologues found in humans

A

LRP5 and 6

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204
Q

Both the frizzled genes and arrow/LRP5&6 act in combination as receptors for wnt signalling molecules, T or F

A

T

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205
Q

Describe the structure of the frizzled receptor and how it interacts with wnts

A

7 transmembrane domain protein. Wnt binds to the cysteine-rich domain (CRD) in the N-terminus of the Fz protein

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206
Q

Describe the structure of the LRP5&6/Arrow receptor for wnt

A

Single pass transmembrane protein

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207
Q

What happens when wnt binds to LRP5/6/Arrow and the Fz receptors

A

These two receptors come together to form an active wnt signalling complex

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208
Q

Which important extracellular wnt inhibitor is overexpressed in order to downregulate wnt signalling in experiments

A

Dickkopf1 (Dkk)

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209
Q

How does Dkk act to downregulate wnt signalling

A

Dkk is coupled to Kremen. Activation of Dkk by wnt binding promotes the internalisation of the LRP receptors

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210
Q

Describe the composition of the degradation complex involved in wnt signalling

A

Consists of the scaffold protein axin bound to APC, GSK3?, CK1? and slimb

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211
Q

Describe what happens in the absence of wnt signalling

A

Also bound to the degradation complex via an interaction with APC is ?-catenin. In the absence of wnt signalling ?-catenin is phosphorylated by CK1? and then by GSK3?. This poly-phosphorylated ?-catenin is then recognised by the slimb protein which ubiquitinates the ?-catenin marking it for degradation by the proteasome system. With low levels/absence of ?-catenin T cell factor (TCF) transcription factors are bound to the promoter regions of wnt target genes. Also bound to these TCFs is a transcriptional repressor known as groucho. Groucho inhibits the transcription of wnt target genes

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212
Q

Describe what happens in the presence of wnt signalling

A

Wnt binds to its Fz and arrow/LRP 5&6 receptors in the membrane. These receptors come together and form an active complex which recruits the dishevelled protein to the complex. Dishevelled is then phosphorylated and as a result may bind to axin in the intracellular destruction complex. Arrow/LRP is then also phosphorylated this time by GSK3? and the receptor recruits axin also. Binding of the destruction complex to the receptor complex displaces the slimb protein. With slimb lost the destruction complex is inactivated. ?-catenin then accumulates inside the cell due to it not being ubiquitinated and marked for degradation by slimb. It then translocates to the nucleus of the receiving cell and displaces groucho from the TCF DNA binding proteins. In combination with additional downstream transcriptional activators this leads to the transcription and expression of wnt target genes.

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213
Q

Explain how ?-catenin degradation is achieved by the destruction complex

A

?-catenin is phosphorylated by CK1? first, which primes it phosphorylation by GSK3?. Phosphorylation by both kinases is required for ?-catenin recognition by an E3 Ubiquitin ligase complex (which contains b-TrCP/Slimb) and subsequent degradation by the proteasome. The serine/threonine phosphates and surrounding amino acid sequence in ?-catenin as a result of phosphorylation forms an optimal binding site for b-TrCP/Slimb. ?-TrCP/Slimb binds only after GSK3 phosphorylates the 3rd and 4th phosphorylation sites

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214
Q

Where does CK1? phosphorylation occur within the ?-catenin/armadillo structure

A

Sites within the N-terminal tail

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215
Q

The S/TXXXS/T(P) is the ideal site for GSK?, what does this mean

A

A serine or threonine residue followed by 3 residues of any identity and then another serine or threonine that has been phosphorylated by CK1?

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216
Q

What is the name of the vertebrate homologue of slimb

A

?-TrCP

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217
Q

Describe the structure of the SCF E3 ubiquitin ligase complex involved in ?-catenin/armadillo degradation

A

The Skp1-Cullin-F-box E3 ubiquitin ligase complex consists of the ring finger protein Roc1 which binds to an E2 ligase, the scaffold protein cul1 and skp1

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218
Q

Explain the role of SCF in ?-catenin/armadillo degradation

A

The F-box protein interacts with Skp1 via its F-box. The F-box of also interacts with the substrate via the WD40 domain that interacts specifically with phosphorylated targets

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219
Q

How does the absence of Wnt signalling lead to no expression of wnt target genes

A

Without ?-catenin binding to TCF, groucho remains bound. The transcriptional repression by groucho is mediate by its recruitment of histone deacetylases thought to make DNA refractive to transcriptional activation

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220
Q

How therefore does wnt signalling lead to expression of downstream target genes

A

In the nucleus increases levels of ?-catenin displace groucho from the TCF complex. Displacement of groucho leads to the recruitment of histone acetylase CBP/p300 and another transcriptional activator called BRG-1. These lead to transcription of wnt target genes

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221
Q

Explain how interactions between TCF/?-catenin and chromatin could also be mediated by legless (Bcl9) and pygopus genes

A

Mutations in these genes result in wingless-like phenotypes in Drosophila. Both genes also promote wnt signalling in mammalian cell cultures.

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222
Q

Wnt signalling components are also involved in directing planar cell polarity and convergent extension, T or F

A

T

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223
Q

Explain the negative feedback mechanism of wnt signalling

A

Dickkopf1 (Dkk) activation by wnt binding promotes the internalisation of the LRP receptors. This decreases further wnt signalling activation and has important homeostatic roles.

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224
Q

Give examples of planar cell polarity events caused by wnt signalling

A

Wnt signalling aligns all the hairs in the skin in a certain direction

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225
Q

Explain how defective wnt signalling can cause cancer, particularly in the gut

A

Patients who are heterozygotes for APC loss of function mutations suffer from familial adenomatous polyposis. This is where sporadic loss of the other functional wild type APC allele in the gut results in activation of the wnt signalling in such cells. This causes hyperproliferation and culminates in the formation of polyps which may accumulate further mutations and cause colon cancer.

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226
Q

The APC gene is a proto-oncogene, T or F

A

F – it’s a tumour suppressor gene (loss of function results in tumorigenesis)

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227
Q

Give an example of another disease phenotype caused by mutation(s) in wnt signalling

A

Tetra-amelia is a disease where the infant is born without limbs. This is caused by a mutation in wnt3

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228
Q

What are the two main problems faced during segmentation

A

Organism needs to increase from one cells to many cells and makes these cells different from each other

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229
Q

Segmentation is highly conserved in all organisms, T or F

A

T

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230
Q

Where is segmentation easily visible in the Drosophila embryo

A

IN the anterior abdomen

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231
Q

When does segmentation occur in Drosophila embryos

A

Around 24 hours after fertilisation

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232
Q

The Drosophila embryo must set up all of the body axes in order to undergo segmentation, T or F

A

F – the anterior-posterior and dorsoventral axes have already been partially established in the oocyte by the adult fly. The embryo just needs to define and redefine this pattern

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233
Q

What was the contribution of Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and Eric Wischaus to the study of Drosophila

A

They undertook a saturation genetic screen to identify all the genes involved in development and patterning of the larval cuticle. This lead to the identification of 4332 embryonic lethal mutations and 139 complementation groups involved in patterning

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234
Q

Most genes in development require both alleles to be functional to be expressed properly and provide normal function (haploinsufficient), T or F

A

F – most genes involved in development are haplosufficient

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235
Q

Describe how complementation testing can be implemented to determine if mutations lie in the same gene or different ones

A

If you cross two parent individuals that both have the same mutant phenotype you can determine if these mutations lie in the same gene or different genes. If the progeny produced by breeding these two heterozygotes do not show the mutant phenotype, then the mutations are said to complement each other. If 25% of the progeny do show the mutant phenotype, then the mutations of the parents must lie in the same gene and thus fail to complement each other

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236
Q

Recall the hierarchy of genes that dictate patterning in the Drosophila embryo

A

Maternal genes–> Gap genes–> Paired-rule genes–> Segment polarity genes

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237
Q

What type of gene is gooseberry

A

Segment polarity gene

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238
Q

What type of gene is bicoid

A

Maternal gene

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239
Q

What type of gene are knirps, giant, Krupel and tailess

A

Gap genes

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240
Q

Paired and fushi tarazu are hox genes, T or F

A

F – they are paired-rule genes

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241
Q

Where is paired expressed in the Drosophila embryo

A

In alternating parasegments

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242
Q

Gooseberry is expressed in alternating parasegments, T or F

A

F – it is expressed in all parasegments

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243
Q

Genes higher up the patterning hierarchy have a greater influence over segmentation, T or F

A

T

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244
Q

Give an example of another maternal gene, other than bicoid and explain where its expressed and its role in development

A

Nanos is another maternal gene. It is expressed in posterior embryo and is responsible for patterning the posterior larvae

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245
Q

What is seen in bicoid mutants and why is this

A

Bicoid mutants develop without head structures. This is because bicoid is at its highest concentration at the anterior end and dictates formation of the head structures

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246
Q

What is unique about bicoid and its role in development

A

Bicoid is a morphogen but is also in itself a transcription factor, unlike other maternal and patterning genes that are usually just transcription factors.

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247
Q

What is the role of bicoid in establishing the anterior-posterior axis prior to fertilisation

A

Bicoid mRNA is deposited in the anterior oocyte by the adult female fly in a process called maternal loading. This leads to the localisation of bicoid protein at the anterior region of the embryo

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248
Q

Describe the bicoid gradient in the early Drosophila embryo

A

Bicoid has its highest concentration at the anterior region of the embryo and drops away towards the middle

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249
Q

What unique feature of the Drosophila embryo allows the bicoid gradient to be established easily and accounts for the simple early patterning

A

At this stage in development the Drosophila embryo is a syncytial blastoderm whereby many nuclei are contained in the same cytoplasm. This allows the bicoid protein to diffuse easily through the embryo and establish a gradient easily

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250
Q

Explain the transplantation experiments carried out on the Drosophila embryo and what they showed

A

Transplantation of wild type Drosophila embryo cytoplasm into a bicoid mutant was sufficient to rescue some of the head structures. Transplantation of wild type cytoplasm to an ectopic site in the middle of the embryo lead to a duplication of the embryo with head structures developing in the middle flanked by thoracic segments either side. This shows that bicoid is both necessary and sufficient to dictate head structure formation

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251
Q

What happens if both copies of the bicoid gene are mutated, why is this

A

If both copies of bicoid are mutated then the embryo will try to pattern normally using other maternal genes that are functional such as nanos. However the resultant patterning would still be abnormal

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252
Q

What is the effects of forced overexpression of bicoid

A

Shunting of the segments towards the posterior end

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253
Q

With morphogens, the ligand doesn’t act as the signal to dictate differentiation as such but it is in fact the gradient of the morphogen that encodes information on cell fate, T or F

A

T

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254
Q

How can bicoid expression be visualise in situ

A

Fusing reporter genes for chaperones such as Hsp70 or genes easily stained for such as LacZ to the promoter sequence for bicoid allows easy visualisation. Wherever bicoid is expressed the reporter gene will be to as its under the control of the same promoter sequence. These reporter genes can then be easily visualised

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255
Q

What attribute of morphogens accounts for there ability to be used to carry out multiple different functions

A

The there are different affinity sites for transcription factor morphogens such as bicoid. Some sites in the DNA have low affinity for the transcription factor ligand and so will only elicit binding at really high concentrations. However, other sites will have high affinity and will always elicit binding of the morphogen regardless of concentration

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256
Q

What is the role of gap genes

A

Subdivide the embryo into different parts once the basic pattern is established

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257
Q

What is significant about gap gene interactions

A

The gap genes actually also interact and repress each other as well as their targets

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258
Q

Hunchback is a gap gene that regulates points in the embryo where other gap genes are switched on, what is significant about its expression with regards to other maternal gene(s)

A

Hunchback expression directly mirrors bicoid

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259
Q

How are the paired-rule genes expressed in the Drosophila embryo

A

Expressed in alternating parasegments whereby their expression is controlled stripe by stripe

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260
Q

What is paired-rule gene expression dependant on

A

Interactions of positively and negatively acting transcriptional regulators, many of which are gap genes

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261
Q

Even-skipped is a paired-rule gene only expressed in parasegments 3. What conditions are required for even-skipped expression

A

Very low concentrations of giant and kruppel, high concentrations of hunchback and a little bit of bicoid

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262
Q

Describe the expression pattern of segment polarity genes

A

Segment polarity genes are expressed in all 14 parasegments

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263
Q

What has happened in the Drosophila embryo by the time that the segment polarity genes are expressed, and what are the implications of this

A

Cellularisation has occurred meaning that signalling pathways dictating patterning and development now need to get more complicated. Factors used for signalling now need to be secreted

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264
Q

Engrailed is a segment polarity gene that is always expressed in the very anterior part of the segment, T or F

A

F – this was initially thought to be the case but in fact, engrailed is aways expressed most posteriorly in the segment

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265
Q

What common phenotype is seen in wingless and hedgehog mutants in Drosophila and why is this

A

Both mutants are said to have a lawn of denticles in the larvae. This is because both genes maintain each other, hh maintains wg which supresses denticle development

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266
Q

What is the function of wingless and hedgehog together

A

They work together to inhibit the formation of the denticles

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267
Q

The segment polarity gene engrailed is switched on by wingless, what is the role of engrailed

A

Engrailed then switches on hedgehog

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268
Q

Explain how wingless and hedgehog interact

A

Hedgehog signals in a paracrine manner to the adjacent cell to switch on wingless expression. Wingless then acts on its own receptors in an autocrine manner to upregulate is expression but also acts via engrailed to upregulate hedgehog too

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269
Q

Hh and wg feedback onto each other to maintain their expression and refine segment borders, T or F

A

T

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270
Q

The hedgehog-wingless signalling loop is present in in the posterior parts of the segments, T or F

A

T

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271
Q

Wg is expressed uniformly throughout the Drosophila embryo, T or F

A

F – its expressed as a gradient

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272
Q

What is the role of the Hox genes (homeobox domain containing genes)

A

Hox genes provide identity once the segments have already formed

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273
Q

Hox genes are transcription factors, T or F

A

T

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274
Q

From which genes do the hox genes receive input from

A

Pair rule and gap genes

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275
Q

What is unique about the expression of the hox genes

A

They are expressed along the anterior-posterior axis in the same order in which they lie in the genome

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276
Q

What happens due to a of loss of function in a hox gene

A

The segment will adopt a different identity, this is known as a homeotic transformation

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277
Q

What is meant when Drosophila are referred to as long germ band organisms

A

All 14 segments are defined at once. All tissues are present they just need defining during development. This process is relatively quick (24hours in Drosophila)

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278
Q

How do short germ band organisms develop differently to long germ bands

A

Similar process to short band organisms in the anterior head and thoracic segments. However, the abdominal segments are added sequentially by a region known as the posterior proliferative disc budding off segments as it gets smaller

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279
Q

Short germ band segmentation is more complex and slower than that of long band organisms, T or F

A

T

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280
Q

What signalling pathway mediates the segmentation of short band organisms

A

Delta-Notch

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281
Q

Explain how the segmentation clock of delta, notch and Hes1 accounts for segmentation in short germ band organisms

A

Notch and delta signal to each other in a juxtacrine manner. Activation of the Notch receptor leads to the expression of Her/Hes1 which inhibits delta expression in the nucleus of that cell. At high concentrations Her also inhibits itself. This mechanisms acts as a molecular oscillator or clock whereby notch activity rises and then triggers the expression of Her. Her then switches off delta and then itself. This causes notch to rise again and the process repeats. This pattern the segments at exactly the right time as the organism grows based on the time taken to produce Her mRNA and then translate it and switch delta off and then itself

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282
Q

How is the segmentation clock relevant to vertebrates

A

Humans are short band organisms. The primitive streak in vertebrates also use the notch pathway and its oscillations to produce and pattern body segments

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283
Q

Which axis is the first to be laid down during embryonic development

A

Anterior-posterior axis

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284
Q

Which germ layer forms at the primitive streak during gastrulation

A

Mesoderm

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285
Q

What experimental method lead to the identification of the origin of mesodermal tissue development

A

Lineage tracing

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286
Q

What determines the adoption of different mesodermal fates in the developing embryo

A

Where the cells ingress along the anterior-posterior axis into the primitive streak

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287
Q

Put these different mesodermal tissue types in order from most anterior to most posterior. Intermediate mesoderm, axial mesoderm, lateral mesoderm, paraxial mesoderm

A

Axial mesoderm, paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral mesoderm

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288
Q

The axial mesoderm is one of the mesodermal tissues formed by the ingression of cell into the primitive streak, what two subtypes of mesoderm does it give rise to and where

A

Prechordal mesoderm (anteriorly) and the notochord (posteriorly)

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289
Q

Which mesodermal tissue gives rise to the somites

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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290
Q

Cells that ingress posteriorly to the paraxial mesoderm give rise to which tissue

A

Intermediate mesoderm

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291
Q

The more posterior a cell ingresses into the primitive streak, the more posterior the mesoderm it will give rise to will be, T or F

A

F – more posterior ingress, the more lateral the mesoderm

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292
Q

Alike the axial mesoderm, the posterior paraxial mesoderm is also subdivided, what are these subdivisions

A

Unsegmented posterior paraxial mesoderm and the segmented posterior paraxial mesoderm that give rise to somites

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293
Q

What structures do the intermediate mesoderm give rise to

A

Kidneys and gonads

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294
Q

How many components is the lateral mesoderm divided into and what do these divisions give rise to

A

The lateral mesoderm divides into 3 components, two of which give rise to the circulatory system and the other which contributes to extraembryonic structures and limb bones

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295
Q

List the structures that the paraxial mesoderm give rise to

A

Axial skeleton, heart, somites, cartilage and tendons

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296
Q

The formation of somites occurs in a sequential manner on both sides with the size of somites being preserved throughout, T or F

A

T

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297
Q

The pre-somitic mesoderm is unsegmented, T or F

A

T

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298
Q

Describe the rough structure of the somites viewed as a horizontal cross section

A

The somites show a clear metameric structure with a clear repeating pattern and defined anterior and posterior boundaries

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299
Q

Somites are the earliest evidence of segmentation in vertebrates, T or F

A

T

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300
Q

How do the number of somites relate to segmentation in vertebrates such as humans

A

Somite number dictates the number of vertebrae

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301
Q

How many somites are present in humans and how does this relate to their segmentation

A

The human embryo has between 38 and 44 somites, this correlates to the 33 vertebrae which we are born with

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302
Q

The number of somites is fixed for any given species and the timing of somite formation remains constant, T or F

A

F – whilst the number of somites does differ between species, so too does the timing of somite generation

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303
Q

What five factors must cells in the paraxial mesoderm be able to respond to

A

Positional information, mechanisms that coordinate left and right, anterior and posterior boundary formation and the formation of the cleft

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304
Q

What structure separates the left and right somites

A

Spinal cord

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305
Q

What model describes the periodicity of somite formation and how is this achieved

A

Clock and wavefront model. The clock explains the temporal component whilst the wavefront provides spatial information to drive somite formation. Where cells hit the travelling wavefront an abrupt change of property leads to the decision to form somites

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306
Q

Explain how a molecular oscillator drives mesodermal segmentation in chick embryos

A

In the embryo levels of the helix-loop-helix transcription factor C-hairy was found to fluctuate at different embryonic stages. Later genes were discovered that regulate the timing of this clock oscillation and are members of the notch, wnt or FGF signalling pathways

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307
Q

What is meant by the determination front

A

Wavefront that travels from the anterior part of the presomitic mesoderm towards the posterior embryo

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308
Q

How does the determination front dictate somitigenesis

A

When the cells of the paraxial mesoderm encounter oscillations from the molecular clock an abrupt change determines their formation of the next somite pair

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309
Q

What aspect of the paraxial mesoderm determines somite boundary formation

A

Position of the somite minus II (S-II)

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310
Q

Explain the results of ectopic grafting of boundary cells

A

Somite boundary cells isolated from one embryo transplanted into another embryo is sufficient to induce the formation of a new boundary. Where you’d expect to see one somite you would now get two. This shows that boundary cells instruct cells that are anterior to it to form a boundary

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311
Q

What family of genes were discovered to be expressed at the somite boundaries

A

Notch family genes. They are selectively expressed in the anterior or posterior part of the somite

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312
Q

Explain the results of forced lunatic fringe expression in the paraxial mesoderm and the significance of this

A

Lunatic fringe is a gene that blocks notch activity and thus forced expression results in an inhibition of notch signalling. This results in the formation of a new boundary and hence an additional somite

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313
Q

Give an example of a human disease that proves a role of notch signalling in mesodermal segmentation

A

Jarcho Lewin syndrome causes spondylocostal dysplasia due to problems with the segmentation of the axial skeleton. This occurs due to a mutation in the delta 3 ligand that alters notch signalling and problems with somite segmentation

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314
Q

Explain how the determination front is positioned

A

The determination front is determined at the interface of two opposing gradients. Retinoid acid which is high anteriorly and fibroblast growth factor 8 which is high posteriorly. When these gradients are equal the determination front forms.

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315
Q

Where is retinoic acid produced to dictate determination front positioning

A

Somites

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316
Q

RA and FGF8 agonise eachother, T or F

A

F – they antagonise each other

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317
Q

Explain how RA and FGF8 interact to dictate determination front positioning

A

High levels of FGF8 result in high levels of Cyp26 which inhibits RA synthesis. High levels of FGF8 also inhibit the production of the Rhald2 enzyme that is normally required for RA synthesis

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318
Q

What transcription factor do RA and FGF8 regulate the expression of

A

Mesp2

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319
Q

How do RA and FGF8 interact to regulate expression of transcription factor(s) involved in somite boundary formation

A

RA activates Mesp2 expression whilst FGF8 inhibits it. Mesp2 expression in turn blocks local Notch signalling. Lower Notch signalling on one side of the border results in high notch signalling in adjacent cells on the other side of the boundary.

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320
Q

What are the downstream effects of opposing notch signalling in cells either side of the boundary

A

High notch acitivity in one side and low activity in the cells opposite leads to formation of the somite boundary. The boundary itself forms from physical formation of cleft within the mesenchymal tissue. Downstream extensive changes in cell morphology and adhesion leads to creation of this cleft and is mediated by ephs and ephrins

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321
Q

Whose saturation mutagenesis experiments lead to the discovery of the hedgehog signalling pathway

A

Nusslein-Volhard and Wieschaus

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322
Q

What was seen in hh mutant Drosophila embryos

A

Defects in segmentation. The segments contained a lawn of denticles and no naked cuticles

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323
Q

What type of gene is hedgehog

A

Segment polarity gene

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324
Q

Explain how hh and wg interact

A

Hh directly upregulates wg. Wg then controls the expression of the transcription factor, engrailed (en) which in turn then regulates hh expression

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325
Q

Hh and wg are said to be dependent on each other, what does this mean

A

These genes require each other to be expressed. Loss of either gene will lead to the loss of the others expression. Thus mutations in either gene will give rise to similar phenotypes

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326
Q

Discuss the genetic conservation of the hh signalling pathway

A

Hh signalling is relatively conserved amongst metazoans and kingdom Animalia however not to the extent that wnt signalling is. For example C.elegans lacks hh signalling mechanisms

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327
Q

Recall some of the vertebrate homologues of hedgehog

A

Sonic hedgehog, Indian hedgehog and desert hedgehog

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328
Q

What accounts for the increase in hedgehog genes seen in vertebrates compared to invertebrates

A

Vertebrates contain more homologues of the hedgehog family genes due to genome duplication throughout evolution to account for the importance of the pathway in patterning

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329
Q

What is the significance of the N-terminal signal sequence of the hedgehog ligand when first synthesised

A

It targets the protein to the secretory pathway

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330
Q

What happens to the hedgehog ligand once it reaches the membrane

A

The N-terminal signal sequence is cleaved off by an autoproteolytic cleavage catalysed by the C-terminus of the protein

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331
Q

What enzyme carries out the autoproteolytic cleavage of the N-terminus of the hedgehog protein

A

Hedgehog acetyltransferase in vertebrates and skinny hedgehog in Drosophila

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332
Q

Cleavage of the N-terminal part of the hedgehog protein is coupled to a cholesterol molecule addition. This occurs as well as palmitoylation. What are the combined effects of these modifications and the effects on the signalling pathway

A

Addition of these groups makes the hedgehog protein very hydrophobic. This renders the molecule insoluble in water and acts to target its localisation to the membrane. In addition, it makes hedgehog unable to leave the membrane and hence restricts it to signalling only to neighbouring cells

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333
Q

What proteins are required for hedgehog release from the signalling cell and its long-range diffusion

A

Dispatched, Scube and other HSPGs

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334
Q

Recall some of the hedgehog receptors in vertebrates

A

Patched 1 and 2, Hedgehog interacting protein, Smoothened, CDO, Brother of CDO (BOC)

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335
Q

How many transmembrane domains does patched have

A

12

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336
Q

What is the normal action of ptc in the absence of signalling

A

Patched constitutively inhibits smoothened in the absence of the hedgehog ligand

337
Q

What happens when hedgehog binds to its ptc receptor

A

Leads to an inhibition of the inhibitory action of the ptc receptor

338
Q

A single ptc receptor inhibits a single smo receptor, T or F

A

F – a single patched molecule can inhibit the activity of several smo receptors

339
Q

Explain the effects of ptc on smo both when the hedgehog ligand is absent and present

A

Patched regulates the subcellular localisation and stability of smoothened. In the absence of HH, Ptc keeps Smo from getting to the cell surface by causing its trafficking to a compartment where its degraded. When Ptc binds to HH, they both get internalized and degraded. This allows and Smo trafficking to the cell surface

340
Q

Explain how cilia are involved in mammalian hedgehog signalling

A

In the absence of the hedgehog ligand, ptc1 is localised to the primary cilium of the cell and smo is excluded from this region. Hedgehog binding to ptc causes its removal from the cilium which allows smo to accumulate there and initiate signalling

341
Q

How have mutations in cilia identified their role in hedgehog signalling

A

Mutations that disrupt cilia formation were found to impair hedgehog signalling too

342
Q

By explaining its homology to other similar proteins, describe to evidence for ptc action as a pump

A

Ptc has homology to RND permeases which pump out toxins and are involved in multi-drug resistance. Ptc also has homology with NPC1 which can transport some molecules across membranes as well as move cholesterol containing vesicles.

343
Q

What is Niemann-Pick Disease and how is this related to ptc

A

NP disease is caused by a mutation in the niemann pick protein C1 and is a lipid storage disorder that leads to the accumulation of harmful quantities of lipids in the visceral organs and brain. Ptc contains regions homologous to the structure of NPC indicating its potentially similar roles

344
Q

Explain the hypothesised action of Ptc on small molecules in order to exerts its inhibitory effect on Smo

A

Ptc either pumps a small inhibitory molecule into cells or a small excitatory molecule out. Or Ptc may pump a small molecule into or out of the cells that effects Smo trafficking or localisation in the membrane

345
Q

Explain the hedgehog signal transduction pathway in the absence of the ligand

A

In the absence of the ligand the activator Ci transcription factor is kept out of the nucleus by the combined action of two complexes. The first complex contains costal2 (Cos2) which is a kinesin like molecule that acts as a scaffold protein, and fused, a serine-threonine kinase. The other complex contains the Ci and the suppressor of fused (SuFu) gene. The Cos2-fused complex binds to the smo receptor and causes three other genes to act on Ci, casein kinase I, protein kinase A and glycogen synthase kinase 3?. This kinase complex processes the Ci transcription factor by phosphorylation and creates binding sites for the slimb protease machinery. Slimb protease binds and partially degrades the Ci transcription factor from its full-length activator form, CiA to its repressor form, CiR. CiR then translocates to the nucleus and represses hedgehog target gene expression

346
Q

What happens in the hedgehog signalling transduction pathway at low concentrations of the ligand

A

At low concentrations of hedgehog, the PKA/GSK3?/CKI complex dissociates from the complex containing Ci, fused and cos2. As a result, active repression by CiR is lost

347
Q

Explain the signal transduction mechanism at high levels of hedgehog ligand

A

Hedgehog acts through both the CKI/GSK3?/PKA and Cos2/Ci/Fused/SuFu complex by leading to phosphorylation of full-length CiA and/or SuFu. This prevents partial degradation of CiA and allows its translocation to the nucleus in its activator form. Thus, resulting in the promotion of hedgehog target gene transcription.

348
Q

Explain the mechanism by which full-length Ci (CiA) is partially degraded by an intracellular protease in the absence of hedgehog signalling

A

PKA initially phosphorylates CiA which primes it for subsequent phosphorylation by GSK3? and CKI. These multiple phosphorylations create a binding site for Slimb protease binding. Slimb binds and partially degrades CiA by removing the activator domain.

349
Q

What is the result of mutations in sites within the Ci transcription factor that are usually phosphorylated by the CKI/PKA/GSK3?

A

Reduction in phosphorylation of Ci and processing. This reduces Slimb binding and may lead to increase hedgehog signalling

350
Q

What type of protein is slimb referred to as

A

F box domain containing protein

351
Q

What is the name of the complex to which slimb belongs

A

SCF ubiquitin E3 ligase complex

352
Q

Which family are the vertebrate homologues of the Ci transcription factor

A

Gli family proteins

353
Q

What is significant about the three different vertebrate homologues of Ci

A

Gli1 cannot be cleave by slimb due to missing one phosphorylation site. This means that it isn’t recognised by the degradation machinery and hence is always a transcriptional activator. Gli2 and 3 however can be transcriptional activators or repressors

354
Q

Explain the hedgehog signalling negative feedback loop mediated by ptc/ptc1

A

One of the downstream targets of hedgehog signalling is the ptc protein. This acts to inhibit subsequent hedgehog intracellular signalling and limits the level of activation of the pathway by reducing the range of movement of the hedgehog signal

355
Q

What are the two effects of ptc1 induction by hedgehog

A

Suppression of the intracellular signalling within the cell and restricting further diffusion of the hedgehog ligand by receptor binding. The latter acts to steepen the gradient of hedgehog expression

356
Q

Explain the negative feedback mechanism mediated by hedgehog interacting protein

A

Hedgehog binding signalling leads to hedgehog interacting protein induction. This acts to limit diffusion of the ligand and the level of subsequent signalling by the downregulation of hedgehog signalling stimulators CDO, BOC and GAS1

357
Q

Give an example of a positive feedback mechanism involved in hedgehog signalling

A

Gli1 is a downstream target gene of hedgehog signalling. Gli1 was is a constitutive activator of hedgehog gene expression leading to a feedforward response and subsequent increase in hedgehog signalling

358
Q

Explain the role of non-canonical hedgehog signalling in adipocyte and myocyte cellular metabolism

A

Activation of smo by decrease inhibition by ptc leads to the stimulation of aerobic glycolysis mechanisms in the target cells. This results in a partial metabolism of glucose and leads to the production of lactate which leaves the cells and acidifies the extracellular environment

359
Q

What is the significance of the non-canonical hedgehog signalling in adipocytes/myocytes in tumorigenesis

A

Aerobic glycolysis is a feature of many tumour cells and is known as the Warburg effect

360
Q

What is unusual about antagonists of the canonical hedgehog signalling pathway

A

They were found to be agonists of the non-canonical hedgehog signalling pathway

361
Q

Explain the role of hedgehog signalling in wing patterning

A

Hedgehog signalling is responsible for anterior-posterior patterning in the wing imaginal disc. Hedgehog is secreted from cells in the posterior wing imaginal disc and diffuses anteriorly to induce the expression of decapentaplegic. At the boundary between the presence and absence of hedgehog, a signalling centre forms which patterns the wing.

362
Q

Explain the role of hedgehog signalling in neural development

A

Sonic hedgehog is secreted from the ventral floor plate and notochord and is responsible for patterning of the neural tube. Once released sonic hedgehog diffuses into the neural tube and patterns cells within it. Depending on the concentration and duration of hedgehog exposure by neural progenitors determines their subsequent fate, this is mostly related to their position

363
Q

Describe the role of sonic hedgehog signalling in patterning of the limb

A

Sonic hedgehog is expressed in the zone of polarising activity in the posterior limb bud. It is responsible for patterning posterior regions of the limb

364
Q

What was the result of ectopic sonic hedgehog signalling in the anterior limb bud, either by ZPA cell grafting or implantation of sonic hedgehog soaked beads

A

Mirror image duplication of limb structures

365
Q

Describe a non-tumour related disease associated with abhorrent hedgehog signalling and what causes it

A

Cyclopia and holoprosencephaly are caused by a lack of or inhibition of hedgehog signalling in the brain. Sonic hedgehog is required to pattern the ventral midline of the embryo. This diseased is characterised by a failure of the forebrain to separate into two hemispheres and results in fused features, such as eyes etc.

366
Q

Gain of function mutations in hedgehog cause cancers, T or F

A

T

367
Q

What three cancers are directly caused by ectopic hedgehog signalling

A

Basal cell carcinoma, medullablastoma and rhabdomyosarcoma

368
Q

Inactivation of ptc1 or SuFu can cause cancers, what type of genes are these

A

Tumour suppressor genes

369
Q

Excess activation of smoothened caused by an insensitivity to ptc1 inhibition can cause cancer, thus what type of gene is smo

A

Proto-oncogene

370
Q

Gorlin syndrome or Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma is a disease state caused by problems with hedgehog signalling that leads to massive numbers of BCCs. Explain how this disease is caused and leads to systemic tumour formation

A

Patients with Gorlin syndrome are heterozygous for a loss of function mutation in ptc1. Hence sporadic inactivation of the other, functional, copy of the patched1 gene leads to tumorigenesis

371
Q

Ptc is involved in triggering stem cell differentiation, T or F

A

F – it maintains stem cells in the skin via proliferation

372
Q

Explain how smo inhibitors have been looked at as potential cancer treatments

A

GDC-0449 is an antagonist of the hedgehog signalling pathway that inhibits hedgehog signalling and continuous abhorrent proliferation in tumour cells

373
Q

Currently smo inhibitors fail after long-term use, why is this

A

The tumours pick up additional mutations that render the smo inhibitors ineffective due to tumour resistance

374
Q

Both wnt and hedgehog signalling molecules are modified by addition of hydrophobic moieties, T or F

A

T

375
Q

What similarities are seen in the frizzled and smoothened receptors involved in wnt and hedgehog signalling

A

They are both 7 transmembrane domain proteins where the heteromeric G-proteins don’t play a central role in signalling

376
Q

Both wnt and hh signalling use scaffold proteins, recall the proteins involved in each signalling pathway

A

Wnt signalling – uses axin. Hedgehog signalling – uses costal2

377
Q

Phosphatases are involved in both hedgehog and wnt signalling pathways, T or F

A

F – kinases are involved in both

378
Q

What is the main different in transcription factor degradation reactions that occur in wnt and hh signalling

A

Ci is only partially degraded, whereas ?-catenin is fully degraded

379
Q

Which degradation machinery protein(s) are involved in both wnt and hedgehog signalling

A

Slimb/TCRP-?

380
Q

In absence of the ligands in both wnt and hedgehog signalling there is transcriptional repression. Which transcription factors mediate this in each pathway

A

Transcriptional repression is mediate by groucho/TCF in wnt signalling whereas in hedgehog signalling this is carried out by Ci-75/CiR

381
Q

What are the main roles of skeletal muscle

A

Control of coordinated movement and posture, communication through speech expression and writing, maintenance of temperature by heat release during contraction, and respiration

382
Q

Recall the pathway of muscle development

A

Stem cells –> myoblasts –> myotubes –> myofibres

383
Q

Describe the mature muscle cell

A

The mature muscle cell or myofibre is a multinucleate contractile cell

384
Q

Muscle cells aren’t differentiated until they become myofibres, T or F

A

F – the differentiated muscle cell is called a myotube, the myofibre is a mature muscle cell

385
Q

Myotubes are mononucleate, T or F

A

F – they are multinucleate

386
Q

How do myotube form

A

Fusion of mononucleate myoblasts

387
Q

At what stage in muscle development do the cells become committed to the muscle cell lineage

A

When they become myoblasts

388
Q

What are C3H10T1/2 cells

A

These are a population of fibroblast cells that are already capable of giving rise to myocytes under certain conditions

389
Q

What is the result of exposure of certain types of fibroblasts to 5aza and how does this occur

A

Exposure of the C3H10T1/2 cells to 5aza causes the fibroblasts to commit to a muscle cell fate. This is because 5Aza is a demethylating agent that demethylates histones and CpG nucleotides which results in a change in conformation of the chromatin. This provides a favourable environment for transcription and gene expression

390
Q

What does MyoD stand for

A

Myogenic determinant factor

391
Q

Explain the experimentation that lead to the isolation of MyoD

A

The transcriptomes of fibroblasts cells that have been exposed to 5Aza were compared to a population of the same cells that hadn’t been exposed to it to identify the different expression profiles of the cells that conferred their commitment to the muscle cell lineage. These mRNA transcripts were used to create cDNA which allowed for the isolation of MyoD

392
Q

What is meant by MyoD being a master regulatory gene and how was this discovered

A

MyoD can induce a transition of a fully differentiated cell into a fully differentiated cell. This was carried out by placing the MyoD gene under a constitutively active promoter and introducing the construct into terminally differentiated cells. This results in the cells switching to a fully differentiated muscle cell fate

393
Q

What type of protein is MyoD and how does it interact with DNA

A

MyoD is a basic helix-loop-helix protein that acts as a transcription factor. Its basic amino acid domain is responsible for binding to the DNA whilst the helix is involved in dimerization with E12 and E47 proteins. MyoD binds to E-box regions contained in the promoter and enhancer regions upstream of muscle related genes

394
Q

Other than MyoD what 3 other genes in the same family act to confer muscle cell fate

A

Myf5, myogenin, MRF4

395
Q

What is meant by the term myotome

A

The myotome is the dorsal region of the somite that will give rise to the skeletal muscles of the ventral trunk

396
Q

Initially the somitic mesoderm is pluripotent, T or F

A

F – it is multipotent and can give rise to cartilage, bone and skeletal muscle

397
Q

What is meant by the sclerotome and how is this region formed in the somites

A

The sclerotome is the region in the ventral somite that will give rise to the axial skeleton. It is formed when cells in the ventral somite undergo an EMT and delaminate

398
Q

How is the myotome formed

A

The myotome forms when dorsal epithelial cells in the somites undergo an EMT and drop beneath the somite

399
Q

What structures do the myotome give rise to

A

Skeletal muscle of the trunk (and limbs)

400
Q

Myotome cells become sandwiched between cells that remain epithelial in the dorsal somite called the dermomyotome and the cells of the ventral sclerotome, T or F

A

T

401
Q

What are the two definitive regions of the myotome and which specific structures do these give rise to

A

Cells in the medial myotome give rise to the epaxial muscles of the back. Cells in the lateral myotome will give rise to the hypaxial muscles of the abdomen and limbs

402
Q

MRFs are factors expressed in the myoblasts during embryogenesis with important functions in the formation of skeletal muscle, what region is their expression restricted to

A

The myotome

403
Q

What happens when you knockout Myf5 in mice

A

Mice produced are still viable but do show delayed myotome formation until MyoD is expressed

404
Q

What is seen in MyoD knockouts

A

Mice are born viable with no obvious muscle defects at birth. There is a slight delay in limb muscle development and a deficit in muscle regeneration in adults

405
Q

What is meant by functional redundancy

A

One gene can restore the function of another gene if that gene is knocked out

406
Q

What can be done to determine if Myf5 and MyoD act in functional redundancy

A

Double knockout mice

407
Q

What is seen in the MyoD and Myf5 -/- mice

A

Complete absence of skeletal muscle and no presence of myoblast cells

408
Q

What can be determined about how Myf5 and MyoD interact and dictate muscle generation

A

Myf5 and MyoD act in functional redundancy and are required to generate myoblast cells

409
Q

What is seen in myogenin knockout mice

A

The offspring die shortly after birth from a diaphragm defect. They also have reduced density of myofibres. The mice are capable of producing myoblasts but not myotubes

410
Q

What can be inferred about myogenin from its knockout in mice

A

Myogenin is required downstream of MyoD and Myf5 to confer muscle differentiation from myoblasts to myotubes

411
Q

Which genes are expressed during each stage of muscle cell development

A

MyoD, Myf5 and MRF4 expressed during specification of stem cells to a muscle lineage. Myogenin expressed during differentation. MRF4 expressed again during maturation

412
Q

Which region of the myotome gives rise to the muscles of the back

A

Epaxial myotome

413
Q

Which region of the myotome gives rise the muscles of the abdominal wall

A

Hypaxial myotome

414
Q

Which cell signalling events are required for formation of the epaxial myotome

A

Sonic hedgehog signalling from the notochord and floor plate and wnt signalling from the dorsal neural tube

415
Q

Which cell signalling events are required for formation of the hypaxial myotome

A

Wnt signalling from the ectoderm and BMP4 from the lateral mesoderm

416
Q

Which region contains cells that will give rise to the muscles of the limbs

A

Lateral myotome

417
Q

MyoD and Myf5 expression if delayed in the cells that become the muscles of the limb, explain the events that lead up to this delay

A

Cells in the lateral myotome undergo and EMT to initiate their migration. It is only once they have reached the dorsal and ventral positions in the limb bud where they begin to differentiate

418
Q

Describe the splotch mouse phenotype

A

Splotch mice have a loss of function of the Pax3 transcription factor and have neural tube and brain defects. Importantly for muscle development however, they have muscles of the trunk that develop normally but have a complete lack of skeletal muscles in the limbs

419
Q

What can be inferred about the action of Pax3 from splotch mice data

A

Pax3 acts upstream of MyoD in the cells of the somite that are to migrate and give rise to muscles of the limb

420
Q

How does Pax3 act

A

Pax3 is a transcription factor that is expressing in somitic cells and drives the expression of the c-Met receptor. c-Met binds to its ligand hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) which is synthesised by the mesenchymal cells of the limb. This acts as a chemoattractive signal to direct these cells to migrate to the limb bud

421
Q

Depletion of Pax3 results in a failure of limb skeletal muscle cell progenitors to migrate to the limb bud, T or F

A

T

422
Q

What is the name given to muscle stem cells that are retained in adult muscles and dictate muscle regeneration

A

Satellite cells

423
Q

What is significant about the number of muscle stem cells during development and what role does this indicate

A

Satellite cells make up 32% of muscle nuclei at birth but this decreases to only 5% by adulthood. This indicates the role of these cells in directing postnatal muscle growth

424
Q

What stimuli can trigger the induction of muscle stem cells in adults

A

Injury, exercise, denervation and stretching. They can also become more active in muscle wasting disease such as Duchene muscular dystrophy

425
Q

What is significant about the gene expression by muscle specific stem cells in muscle regeneration

A

They express the same sequence of genes as is seen in development and embryogenesis firstly expressing Pax7(duplicate of Pax3) then Myf5, MyoD and Myogenin

426
Q

What signalling pathway is responsible for induces MyoD expression and causing muscle differentiation

A

Sonic hedgehog

427
Q

What does TGF-? stand for

A

Transforming growth factor-?

428
Q

What are the four main branches of TGF-? signalling

A

BMPs/GDFs, TGF-?, Activin and Nodal signalling

429
Q

Give an overview of the TGF-? signalling pathway

A

The TGF-? ligand binds to the extracellular domain of the Type II TGF-? receptor and promotes its further binding to the Type I TGF-? receptor via the ligand also. The activated TGF-? receptor dimer undergoes transphosphorylation of the Type I receptor by the action of the intracellular serine-threonine kinase domain of the Type II receptor. This transphosphorylation causes the binding of a cytosolic Smad proteins which then get phosphorylated, dimerise with other Smads and translocate to the nucleus where they regulate gene transcription.

430
Q

What are the four ligand subfamilies of TGF-? signalling

A

Activin, Nodal, BMPs/GDFs and TGF-?

431
Q

Which TGF-? ligand family have an important role in left/right patterning and splitting of bilateral symmetry

A

Nodal

432
Q

Which TGF-? ligand family have an important role in proliferation and differentiation of cells

A

TGF-?

433
Q

Which TGF-? ligand family have an important role in hormonal regulation

A

Activins

434
Q

What is meant by the ligand and receptors involved in TGF-? signalling being referred to as promiscuous

A

There are multiple ligands and receptors that can interact in different combinations

435
Q

The TGF-? precursor is cleaved into two parts by the action of a protease, what are these two regions and what is their role

A

The C-terminal region is responsible for the formation of the active ligand by dimerisation with other TGF-?s. The N-terminal part binds to TGF-? and is called Latency Associated Protein (LAP)

436
Q

What kind of bonding hols the LAP and TGF-? dimers together in a complex

A

Disulphide bridges between adjacent cysteine residues

437
Q

What is the role of Latent TGF-? binding protein (LTBP)

A

LTBP tethers the LAP part of the complex to components of the extracellular matrix to increase the effective concentration of the ligand by restricting its diffusion

438
Q

Explain the processes that lead to the release of the active ligand from the complex

A

Release of the TGF-?/LAP/LTBP complex from the extracellular matrix involves cleaves by the proteases plasmin and calpain that releases the complex from the extracellular matrix. Subsequent binding of thrombospondin to LAP releases the active TGF-? ligand

439
Q

An in situ hybridisation experiment revealed the expression of TGF-? in a developing chick embryo, it was later determined however that these cells weren’t signalling. Explain how this could be

A

Expression of a ligand by a cell doesn’t necessarily mean that the cell can signal. If a cell fails to make the proteases for example, then it will fail to release the active ligand

440
Q

The BMP family of TGF-? ligands are negatively inhibited by several different proteins that act as extracellular antagonists. List 5 of these such BMP antagonists

A

Noggin, Chordin, Follistatin, Cerberus, Gremlin

441
Q

How many classes are there of general TGF-? antagonists and what is the purpose of these different families

A

There are five different families of TGF-? negative regulators these allow for distinct expression profiles allowing for greater refinement of the signal by binding of different subsets with different affinities.

442
Q

What are the two ways in which TGF-? signalling antagonists can act

A

They can either compete for binding at one site on the ligand (I.e. gremlin, noggin, cerberus and DAN on BMP2) or, antagonists can bind to independent sites allowing for multiple inhibitor binding

443
Q

The extracellular TGF-? antagonists all have the same rate of diffusion, T or F

A

F – they all have different diffusion rates, for example chordin is the slowest as it’s the largest protein (120kDa)

444
Q

Some extracellular TGF-? signalling antagonists can bind to multiple ligands whilst others can only bind to one, T or F

A

T

445
Q

Describe the activation of the TGF-? receptor following ligand binding

A

Activation of the receptors comes from the formation of a dimer receptor complex. The Type II TGF-? receptor binds to the TGF-? ligand homodimer and then recruits and phosphorylates the Type I receptor. This leads to the phosphorylation of Smads and further downstream signal transduction

446
Q

Structurally, Type I and Type II TGF-? receptors are very similar. What action do they both have

A

They are both serine-threonine kinases but have different functions in the pathway

447
Q

Lefty and antivin are TGF-? antagonists that inhibit Nodal signalling, explain how these pseudo-ligands act

A

These antagonists bind to the Type II receptors but lack an ?-helix loop regions that allows for dimerisation and the cysteine resides responsible for disulphide bridge formation. This ultimately results in the inability of the Type II receptor to bind to the Type I receptor

448
Q

Decoy receptors can also inhibit TGF-? signalling, give an example of this

A

The BAMBI pseudo-receptor resembles the Type I receptor but lacks the intracellular kinase domain. It forms an inactive complex with the ligand and the Type II receptor and inactivates BMP, activins and TGF-? signalling

449
Q

Explain the TGF-? signal transduction pathway following ligand binding

A

The activated Type I receptor phosphorylates Smad proteins. The type of TGF-? ligand that binds to the receptor determines the specific smads phosphorylated by the activated receptor. BMP ligand binding leads to phosphorylation of Smad1,5 and 8 whilst TGF-? binding results in Smad2 and 3 phosphorylation. Smads1,2,3,5 and 8 are collectively known as receptor-regulated or R-Smads. R-Smads are maintained near the plasma membrane close the kinase domains of the receptors. When the pathway is inactive the R-Smads are anchored at the cells membrane by Smad anchor for receptor activation proteins (SARA). Once R-Smads have been phosphorylated by the activated Type I receptor they oligomerise with Smad4 to form heterodimers. This Smad complex then migrates to the nucleus where its binds to the DNA to regulate gene expression

450
Q

What is significant about Smad4

A

Smad4 is constitituvely expressed and unlike the other Smads, it is common to all TGF-? signalling pathways. It is therefore referred to as the common-mediator or Co-Smad

451
Q

What are the results of mutations in Smad4

A

Disruption of all TGF-? signalling pathways

452
Q

Smads are transcription factors, T or F

A

T – they can be transcriptional activators or transcriptional repressors

453
Q

How do Smads lead to an increase in gene transcription

A

Smads can recruit and bind to histone acetylases one the DNA. These histone acetylases add acetyl groups to the histones which loosens the structure of the chromatin and increasing gene transcription

454
Q

How can Smads lead to a decrease in gene transcription

A

Smads can also bind to co-repressors and recruit histone deacetylases (HDACs) which remove acetyl groups from the histones and decrease gene transcription by tightening the chromatin structure.

455
Q

Explain the role of Smad6 and Smad7 in the Smad pathway

A

Whilst smad2 and smad3 are positive regulators of the TGF-? signalling pathway, Smad6 and 7 are negative regulators. These are also known as inhibitory I-Smads and antagonise TGF-? signalling by binding to the activated Type I receptor and activated R-Smads, blocking their activity.

456
Q

Explain the two attributes of I-Smads and how this influences TGF-? signalling

A

I-Smads still bind to type I receptors but are not substrates so aren’t release. They also still bind to R-Smads but do not work as transcription factors

457
Q

What are the three key domains of an R-Smad and what is their function

A

The MH1 domain in the amino terminus is responsible for binding to the DNA. There is an MH2 interaction domain that controls protein-protein interactions and regulates the homo/heterodimerisation of Smads. Finally, R-Smads also contain a domain in the carboxyl terminus that acts as a recognition site for phosphorylation by the activated Type I receptor

458
Q

How does the structure of an I-Smad differ from that of an R-Smad

A

Whilst I-Smads have retained the MH2 interaction domain they lack the functional MH1 DNA binding domain as well as the phosphorylation domain

459
Q

TGF-? is expressed prior to apoptosis and acts as a pre-requisite to indicate the programmed cell death. Give an example of a role of TGF-? signalling in apoptosis

A

Mouse mammary glands upregulation TGF-?3 within 9 hours of inactivity after weening. This results in death of the milk-secreting cells. After 3 days these cells will begin to express genes characteristic of apoptotic cells

460
Q

What type of mutations related to TGF-? signalling are often found in patients with certain cancers

A

Hypomorphic (partial loss of function) mutations

461
Q

If mutations in TGF-? signalling lead to some cancers, what can we infer about the role of this pathway in tumour formation

A

It is likely that TGF-? signalling supresses tumour formation

462
Q

What is often seen in the cancer causing TGF-? signalling mutations

A

Often involve microsatellite instabilities characterised by increases or decreases in the length of microsatellite repeat sequences in the DNA. Unstable microsatellites near to or in genes is thought to affect their transcription and may cause problems during DNA replication. This may indicate that the DNA repair machinery is malfunctioning

463
Q

It was later found that mutations that abolish TGF-? signalling (amorphic mutations) are less dangerous than hypomorphic mutations, why is this

A

Later in cancer progression TGF-? signalling promotes tumorigenesis

464
Q

Explain the dual role of TGF-? signalling in cancer progression

A

TGF-? signalling inhibits the over proliferation of mutated cells to form benign legions in early stages of cancer. However, later in the progression of the cancer TGF-? signalling promotes the EMT and angiogenesis ultimately resulting in metastasis

465
Q

Explain how both hypomorphic and amorphic TGF-? signalling mutations impact cancer and tumorigenesis

A

Null/apomorphic mutations cause benign lesions which cannot go through EMT. Hypomorphic mutations increases rate of benign lesions, by decreasing inhibition of clonal expansion, with enough signalling still conserved to trigger later stage EMT and metastasis.

466
Q

The neural plate cells are a neuronal population of cells, T or F

A

F – they are a glial population

467
Q

Which structure begin to express sonic hedgehog in the axial mesoderm as is extends forwards

A

Prechordal mesoderm, notochord

468
Q

At what chick embryonic stage is sonic hedgehog first expressed at and what does the correspond to

A

Sonic hedgehog is first expressed in the axial mesoderm at stage 4 where the primitive streak has reached its maximum extension

469
Q

In vertebrates sonic hedgehog is expressed in the axial mesoderm and the floor plate simultaneously, T or F

A

F – sonic hedgehog is first expressed in the notochord and prechordal mesoderm and then induces its own expression in the floor plate of the ventral neural tube

470
Q

Cells of the axial mesoderm and floor plate are responsible for ventralising the neural tube, T or F

A

T

471
Q

Explain the differences between experiments visualising sonic hedgehog mRNA

A

In situ hybridisation experiments aimed to visualise where sonic hedgehog mRNA is transcribed shows a clear define pattern. Initially this shows a clearly defined, round expression pattern indicating its expression in the notochord/prechordal mesoderm. Later experiments would indicate another clearly defined triangular region of expression lying dorsally to the notochord and in the ventral neural tube. This identifies the newly induced sonic hedgehog expression by the floor plate.

472
Q

How do experiments looking at the expression of sonic hedgehog protein differ from those visualising mRNA

A

Immunohistochemistry experiments using antibodies to identify where sonic hedgehog is localised does show these round and triangular regions representing the axial mesoderm and floor plate. However, the expression is punctuate and more diffuse indicating a morphogen gradient. Sonic hedgehog is highest at the axial mesoderm and floor plate and decreases dorsally throughout the neural tube

473
Q

How does experimental evidence indicate sonic hedgehog is a morphogen

A

Immunohistochemistry to visualise where sonic hedgehog expressed reveals an expression pattern that indicates a morphogen gradient

474
Q

What molecules are attached to antibodies to enable you to visualise proteins in a cell/tissue

A

Fluorochromes

475
Q

Genes encoding different transcription factors begin to be transcribed and translated in different cells along the D-V axis in a precise spatial manner, T or F

A

T

476
Q

Which gene is expressed most dorsally in the neural tube having initially been expressed throughout the axis prior to sonic hedgehog expression

A

Pax6

477
Q

What happens later in development as cells of the neural tube begin to differentiate

A

As progenitor cells differentiate into neurons that differentiating progeny move laterally so that mature neurons are present in the mantle zone. The other daughters remain as progenitors near the lumen of the neural tube

478
Q

Sonic hedgehog patterns the ventral portion of the developing neural tube, T or F

A

T

479
Q

Below are a list of regions contained in the ventral neural tube that are formed as a result of sonic hedgehog signalling, put them in order of dorsal to ventral. A - floor plate, B - Motor neuron progenitor, C - ventral progenitor 1, D - ventral progenitor 0, E - ventral progenitor 3, F - ventral progenitor 2

A

d, c, f, b, e, a

480
Q

What transcription factors are characteristic of motor neuron fates

A

Olig2 and Nkx6.1

481
Q

FoxA2 is a transcription factor characteristic of the floor plate, T or F

A

T

482
Q

Dbx 1 and dbx2 are expressed in which regions of the ventral neural tube

A

Ventral progenitors 0, 1 and 2

483
Q

Sonic hedgehog acts as a morphogen to regulate transcription factor expression by directly inducing their expression, T or F

A

F – sonic hedgehog activates transcription factor expression through de-repression

484
Q

Explain how sonic hedgehog signalling leads to transcription factor expression in the ventral neural tube

A

Genes in the neural tube are initially expressed throughout the structure due to Wnt and BMP signalling. Shh then suppresses their expression and confines them to the dorsal part of the spinal cord. These genes are differentially sensitive to Shh (Pax7, Dbx1, Dbx2, Irx3) and are referred to as class 1 genes, transcription factors which act to repress other genes. As class 1 genes are transcriptionally repressed by Shh class 2 genes are turned on because they are de-repressed (Nkx6.1, Nkx2.2, Olig2)

485
Q

Give examples of class 1 genes transcriptionally repressed by sonic hedgehog

A

Pax7, Dbx1, Dbx2, Irx3

486
Q

Give examples of class 2 genes switched on by sonic hedgehog signalling

A

Nkx6.1, Nkx2.2, Olig2

487
Q

GliA is an example of a gene that is switched on by sonic hedgehog. What is the role of GliA in patterning the neural tube and how is the mechanism of its activation different to most other genes switched on by sonic hedgehog

A

GliA is a transcription factor that defines the floor plate and turns on the expression of other characteristic floor plate genes. It, along with a few other genes, is directly activated by very high concentrations of sonic hedgehog

488
Q

BMP signalling is responsible for patterning the dorsal neural tube. How is a BMP gradient established dorsally in the neural tube

A

BMPs from the surface ectoderm induce their own expression in a dorsal group of cells called the roof place cells. BMPs then establish a dorsal morphogen gradient

489
Q

What other key signalling pathway is active in the dorsal neural tube and is thought to maintain proliferation

A

Wnt signalling

490
Q

What is the name of the border that forms at the neural-ectoderm boundary

A

Neural plate border

491
Q

What causes the formation of this border at the neural-ectoderm boundary

A

Cells have received an intermediate level of BMP and have begun to go down but not fully towards a neural fate

492
Q

What structures does the neural plate border give rise to

A

Peripheral nervous system, roof plate cells

493
Q

The early border begins to express msx which acts with Wnt and FGF to turn on transcription factors Pax3, Zic1 and Pax7, T or F

A

T

494
Q

What transcription factors upregulated by NBP and Wnt cause proliferation and multipotency and characterise neural crest cells

A

C-Myc, Id and Snail

495
Q

What cell types do the neural plate border cells form

A

Neural crest cells

496
Q

All of the neural plate border cells form neural crest cells, T or F

A

F – some neural plate border cells are retained and form roof plate cells

497
Q

What is the roles of roof plate cells

A

Important in the final step of neurulation and dorsal neural tube patterning

498
Q

BMPs and Wnts released by the roof plate cells diffuse into dorsal neural tube and induce expression of which set of transcription factors

A

Pax6, 7, 3 and Lim1

499
Q

What is the role of Pax3, 6, 7 and Lim1

A

Cause neural tube progenitors to acquire dorsal identities

500
Q

What factors help determine which cell types neural progenitors differentiate into

A

Position or origin of neural crest cells, time of generation and migratory pathway

501
Q

How many different progenitor domains are established along the DV axis that give rise to different neuronal populations

A

10-12

502
Q

What neuronal fates with the most ventral cells in the neural tube adopt and which transcription factors are involved in this

A

The most ventral neurons will become motor neurons of the spinal cord reflex arcs and will begin to express Olig2 and Nkx6.1

503
Q

What will the most dorsal neurons in the neural tube give rise to

A

These neurons will become the commissural sensory relay neurons that relay information from the spinal cord to the brain

504
Q

What do the middle neurons between the most dorsal and ventral progenitors become

A

These will become interneurons that mediate interactions between the other neurons

505
Q

Below is a list of the embryonic origins and aspects of the skeleton that they give rise to. Match up the embryonic origin with the bone structure. A - cranial neural crest cells, B - lateral mesoderm, C - somites. i - limb skeleton, ii - axial skeleton, iii - craniofacial skeleton

A

a – iii, b – ii, c – I

506
Q

Each different embryonic precursor gives rise to a different bone structure using completely different mechanisms, T or F

A

F – the process of forming the bones is very similar in all regions, with the extracellular matrix playing a big role

507
Q

What structure gives rise to the somites that go on to give rise to the vertebral column and ribs

A

Paraxial mesoderm

508
Q

What embryonic precursor structure gives rise to the appendicular skeleton

A

Lateral mesoderm

509
Q

Hox gene expression provides the positional information responsible for the adoption of different cell fates along the anterior-posterior axis. What is the effect of this on formation of bones

A

The morphological structure of the axial skeleton throughout the anterior-posterior axis (i.e. ribs and vertebrae)

510
Q

What is meant by the collinearity of hox gene expression

A

Hox genes are expressed along the anterior-posterior axis in the same sequence that they occur in the genome. 5’ genes are expressed most posteriorly and 3’ are expressed anteriorly

511
Q

What do the boundaries between the expression of different hox genes/hox profiles indicate in the axial skeleton

A

Boundaries between different hox expression correlates with a transition in the type of vertebrae

512
Q

What are the three stages of axial skeleton formation

A

Sclerotome induction, cartilage formation and ossification

513
Q

What is meant by chondrogenesis and osteogenesis

A

Chondrogenesis is the generation of cartilage and osteogenesis is the formation of bone

514
Q

Below is a list of cells in the chondrogenesis pathway and the corresponding processes they undergo. Put the cells in chronological order in which they appear and determine which process each undergoes to produce the next cell. A - Chondroblasts, B - Stem cells, C - Specification, D - Hypertrophic chondrocytes, E - Differentiation, F - Sclerotomal cells, H - Maturation, I - Chondrocytes, J - Determination

A

b(c), f(i), a(e), h(g), d

515
Q

Which two paired-box genes with homology to the Pax3/7 genes involved in myogenesis play a key role in chondrogenesis

A

Pax1/9

516
Q

Which regions of the somite are the specific pax genes involved in axial skeleton development localised in

A

Ventral somite – Pax1 tends to be medial whereas Pax9 is lateral

517
Q

What is seen in mice knockouts for the Pax genes involved in chondrogenesis

A

Pax1 knockout produces viable mice that do show abnormalilites in vertebral column, sternum and scapula. Pax9 knockout produces mice that die shortly after birth due to abnormal craniofacial, visceral and limb skeletogenesis

518
Q

What is the result of knocking out both pax genes involved in skeletogenesis in mice and what does this show

A

The mice completely lack derivatives of the medial sclerotome including the vertebral bodies, interverbal discs and proximal rib regions. The distal and sternal rib portions are maintained however. This shows that Pax1 or Pax9 are required for medial sclerotome development

519
Q

Explain the role of sonic hedgehog signalling in the control of sclerotome formation

A

Sonic hedgehog secreted from the ventral floor plate and notochord activates Pax1/9. Shh (-/-) fail to activate Pax1/9 and don’t development axial skeletons

520
Q

Explain how BMP4 signalling acts to control Pax gene expression in the ventral somite

A

BMP4 from the lateral mesoderm prevents Pax1 expression from expanding into the Pax9 expression domain.

521
Q

What four processes to sclerotomal cells undergo as they give rise to chondroblasts

A

Migration of cells around the notochord, downregulation of Pax1 and Pax9, the condensation of the cells and expression of extracellular matrix proteins

522
Q

As chondroblasts differentiate into chondrocytes, proliferation is induced by expression of BMP2, BMP4 and BMP5 and a cartilaginous matrix is produced. What gene expression is required for this process

A

SOX9 HMG-box transcription factor

523
Q

What method of ossification is seen in the bones of the skull

A

Intramembranous ossification – this doesn’t involve chondrocytes or chondroblasts and instead includes nodules (mesenchymal cells –> nodules –> bone)

524
Q

Endochondral ossification is the other main type of ossification, when is this kind used and how does it work

A

Used for ossification of most bones other than those of the skull. It involves the development of bones by the replacement of a cartilage model

525
Q

What is the first stage of endochondral ossification

A

Chondrogenesis the formation of a cartilaginous model of the bone

526
Q

What happens when chondrocytes mature and stop dividing

A

They become hypertrophic and increase their cell volume

527
Q

As a result of a change in area at the periphery of the future bone, the region becomes known as the perichondrium. What is the significance of this region

A

The perichondrium is the precursor of osteoblasts

528
Q

Following the maturation of chondrocytes, they then undergo apoptosis. What fills the space left behind by this cell death

A

Blood vessels and osteoblasts from the perichondrium enter the space left by chondrocyte death and begin to secrete the bone matrix. This region will become the bone marrow.

529
Q

What is meant by the term epiphyses

A

The ends of the bones

530
Q

Explain how primary and secondary ossification centres form

A

Osteoblasts begin to replace the disappearing cartilage and form a primary ossification centre where the centre of the bone is devoid of hypertrophic chondrocytes and full of a bone matrix. Blood vessels enter at the epiphyses which have remained cartilaginous during bone development. These epiphyses form the secondary ossification centres and leaves a cartilage growth plate between the epiphysis and diaphysis

531
Q

What is significant about the need to ensure that chondrocytes of the secondary ossification centre don’t differentiate into osteoblasts too early

A

This is vital to ensure normal growth of the bone which would be prevented if the chondrocytes differentiated prematurely

532
Q

A balance between which two genes allows the bones of the axial skeleton to grow but not maturate and differentiation too early

A

SOX9 and Runx2

533
Q

How has the study of the disease campomelic dysplasia implicated the role of a gene in regulation cartilage and bone production

A

Campomelic dysplasia (CD) is a disease that causes deformations of the long bones and axial skeleton. It is a dominant disease also characterised by defective airway cartilage and a smaller rib cage with fewer ribs. These defects are like those caused by mutations in the cartilage collagens II and XI. It was identified that CD is causes by a loss of function mutation in the SOX9 gene which is important for the formation of cartilage.

534
Q

What can be seen in conditional SOX9 mouse knockouts

A

Early inactivation of SOX9 lead to a failure of the embryo to form chondrocytes. Later SOX9 inactivation lead to a defected ability of the already formed chondrocytes to go hypertrophic

535
Q

What are the role of SOX9 in skeletal development implicated by conditional mice knockouts

A

Early inactivation of SOX9 reveals its role as a transcription factor that controls the expression of cartilage extracellular matrix proteins such as collagen II and XI. Later SOX9 knockouts indicated a second role for SOX9 in balancing the proliferative and hypertrophic chondrocyte levels.

536
Q

Explain how studying cleidocranial dysplasia revealed another key gene involved in skeletal development

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia is a dominant disease caused by a mutation in Runx2. More than one mutation in the Runx2 gene is embryo lethal however patients with one mutation will show defective bone formation.

537
Q

What is seen in mouse models of Cleidocranial dysplasia

A

Runx2 knockout mice show cartilage formation but this cartilage fails to form bone and never ossifies

538
Q

What is the role of Runx2 in skeletal development

A

Runx2 is a transcription factor that is required to drive expression of the osterix gene that is required for bone development and ossification.

539
Q

What is the growth plate of long bones

A

The growth plate is a region of long bones that never ossifies and is located between the primary and secondary ossification centres. It is a stratified structure containing cells in all stages of bone development; pluripotent cells, chondroblasts, chondrocytes, pre-hypertrophic chondrocytes and hypertrophic chondrocytes

540
Q

What is the significance of the growth plate

A

Disruption of this area leads to dwarfism

541
Q

Explain the negative feedback loop between Indian hedgehog and parathyroid-related hormone that controls chondrocyte differentiation and maturation

A

As bone grows the chondrocytes become hypertrophic and release Ihh which signals in the same way as Shh. Cells in the perichondrium will respond to Ihh binding to their receptors and release PTHrP. The PTHrP receptor is only expressed in the chondroblasts and the pre-hypertrophic chondrocytes and hence these cells are the only ones that can respond to PTHrP. PTHrP signalling then results in the promotion of proliferation and inhibition of progression of the cells towards differentiation. As the cells differentiate they secrete a signal that will promote the proliferation of progenitors. This negative feedback loop ensures that as differentiation continues a pool of proliferative progenitors are maintained to cater for future growth

542
Q

Recall the signalling pathway that regulates bone formation

A

FGFR3 –| Ihh –> PTHrP

543
Q

Explain how Ihh or PTHrP knockout results in dwarfism

A

This leads to a loss of promotion of proliferation chondroblasts and pre-hypertrophic chondrocytes and the progenitor cells are exhausted quickly hence resulting in smaller bone growth

544
Q

What class of receptors are the receptor tyrosine kinases

A

Enzyme-linked receptors

545
Q

What sorts of cell behaviours are RTKs involved in regulating

A

Proliferation, differentiation and migration

546
Q

There are 20 different families of RTKs, how many human RTK genes have been identified

A

58

547
Q

Each ligand receptor pair involves one specific ligand and one unique receptor, T or F

A

F – whilst some ligands are specific for one receptor and vice-versa, some ligands and receptors can be promiscuous and bind to various other components

548
Q

What is the overall function of RTKs

A

Receptor tyrosine kinases phosphorylate tyrosine residues in target proteins

549
Q

Give some examples of RTK ligands

A

Ephrins, Nerve Growth Factor, Fibroblast Growth Factor, Epidermal Growth Factor

550
Q

The ligands for RTKs all tend to be extracellular, T or F

A

T

551
Q

What sort of concentration levels do RTK ligands act at

A

Very low concentrations in the nM or pM range

552
Q

Most RTKs are monomers with one major exception, which receptor is this

A

The insulin receptor is an RTK which is present as a dimer

553
Q

What can be said about the extracellular domains of RTKs throughout the family

A

The EEC domains vary greatly along with the ligands. They do however share features such as Ig-like and fibronectin-like domains

554
Q

Describe the structure of the intracellular domain of RTKs

A

The intracellular domains possess the kinase activity. These are present as a single domain or split into two

555
Q

What can be said about the transmembrane domain in RTKs

A

The transmembrane domain is short and string like, consisting of between 25 and 38 amino acid residues

556
Q

Outline canonical RTK activation

A

Following ligand binding, either as a dimer or monomer, the monomeric RTK receptor will dimerise by recruitment of the other receptor monomer. Activation of the RTK causes a change in conformation of the receptor dimer. This starts with the extracellular and transmembrane domains and is then translated to the intracellular kinase domain. This change in conformation of the intracellular domain unmasks the tyrosine kinase domain and exposes important residues for this process. The activated receptor then undergoes auto and crossphosphorylation. This increases the activity of the kinase domains, stabilises the active state of the receptor and causes the kinase domain to phosphorylate other tyrosines in the receptor to create docking sites. These kinase domains are now able to phosphorylate target proteins that bind to the docking site to transduce the signal.

557
Q

What are the effects of auto and cross-phosphorylation of the active RTK

A

Increased kinase domain activity, stabilisation of the receptor active state (ligand independent) and the creation of docking sites for target proteins

558
Q

Explain the role of dimerisation in RTK activation

A

The RTK ligand can bind as a ligand leading to recruitment of the other receptor monomer. However, this dimerisation of the receptor monomers is the essential stage in RTK activation

559
Q

Explain the gain of function approach that can be used to investigate RTK signalling

A

Genetically engineer DNA to generate a gene encoding an RTK whose extracellular ligand binding domain has been replaced with a homodimerization domain. Expression of this gene in an organism by incorporation of a transgene will results in the production of an RTK capable of dimerising in the absence of ligand binding. This receptor tyrosine kinase will be activated independently of the ligand and known as constitutively active

560
Q

Explain the loss of function approach that can be used to investigate RTK signalling

A

Genetically engineer DNA to generate a gene encoding an RTK whose intracellular kinase domain is mutated. This will lead to a loss of kinase activity and thus no auto and crossphosphorylation. Hence the RTK will be unable to activate in response to ligand binding. This DNA can then be expressed at high levels to result in a dominant negative or antimorphic mutation whereby the mutant RTK will poison the endogenous receptor

561
Q

Proteins containing what type of domain can bind to the phosphorylated tyrosine residues in activated RTKs

A

SH2 domain containing proteins

562
Q

Proteins that bind to phosphotyrosines in RTKs by particular domains also recognise adjacent residues. What is the recognition sequence which they recognise

A

Phosphotyrosine-Glutamate-Glutamate-Isoleucine

563
Q

Give some examples or proteins that bind to RTKs

A

GTPase-activating proteins (GAPs), phospholipase C-? and PI-3 kinases

564
Q

What change in the intracellular environment is a common theme in signal transduction

A

Changes in the subcellular localisation of components leads to activation of the pathway

565
Q

Below is a list of several proteins involved in signal transduction and RTK activation, determine if they are a GTPases, GEFs, Kinases, GAPs or adapter proteins. Sos, Gbr2, Ras, MAP-KKK, PI-3, Erk, Mek and Raf

A

Sos - GEF, Gbr2 - Adapter Protein, Ras - GTPase and MAP-KKK, PI-3, Erk, Mek and Raf - kinases

566
Q

Explain how activation of RTKs leads to signal transduction by the Ras pathway

A

Ras is a smallGTPase that is present in the membrane of the cell. The activated RTK contains phosphorylated tyrosine residues in its intracellular kinase domain that have occurred because of autophosphorylation. These phosphotyrosines are recognised by proteins that contain an SH2 domain. In the Ras pathway, this protein is Gbr2 which binds to the activated receptor by its SH2 domain. Gbr2 then recruits another protein to the complex called sos by its SH3 protein-protein interaction domain. Sos is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that is bound to the Ras GTPase. Binding of Gbr2 to sos couples the activated RTK to the inactive Ras. Sos also promotes dissociation of GDP from Ras which is displaced by GTP. Now that it’s bound to GTP Ras dissociates from sos and phosphorylates MAP-KKK to transduce the signal further.

567
Q

How does the MAP kinase pathway rely the signal transduction further from activation of the Ras GTPase

A

Activated Ras phosphorylates MAP-KKK which then binds to and activates MAP-KK by phosphorylation. Activated MAP-KK then goes onto phosphorylate and activate MAP-K. Activated MAP-Kinase can then phosphorylate transcription factors and other proteins leading to the regulation of gene transcription

568
Q

What are the mammalian homologues of MAP-KKK, MAK-KK and MAP-K

A

MAP-KKK –> Raf, MAP-KK –> Mek and MAP-K –> Erk

569
Q

What is the effect of having multiple stages in the MAP Kinase pathway

A

One activated MAP-KKK can phosphorylate and activate several MAP-KK proteins which in turn can phosphorylate and activated multiple MAP-K proteins. This acts as an amplification step in signal transduction

570
Q

Cyclins are an example of downstream targets of MAP-Kinases, T or F

A

T

571
Q

MAP-K is regulated by its phosphorylation by MAP-KK, describe how MAP-K is activated

A

In order to be activated MAP-K must have both of its phosphorylation sites on threonine and tyrosine residues phosphorylated by MAP-KK. These amino acids are interspaced by only one residue and lie in close proximity.

572
Q

How long after RTK activation is gene transcription influence

A

Within minutes

573
Q

One member of the superfamily of RTKs is the FGF receptor family. What are the three different subgroups of FGF ligands

A

Paracrine, Endocrine and Intracrine

574
Q

Which subgroup of FGF receptor ligands are the largest

A

Paracrine FGFs

575
Q

Give example of roles that FGF signalling plays in development

A

FGF8 is involved in formation of the limbs. It is also expressed in the somites particularly, in the myotome. FGF8 also plays a part in midbrain-hindbrain patterning

576
Q

There are only 4 different genes for all of the FGF receptors. How is it then that these genes can account for 48 different receptors

A

The four FGF receptor genes have different splice variants that creates the 48 different isoforms of FGF receptors.

577
Q

Which domains are the ligand binding domains of the FGF receptor

A

D2 and D3 domains

578
Q

What is the role of the acid box domain of the FGF receptor

A

The acid box domain is involved in negative regulation of the receptor by preventing its activation in the absence of ligand binding

579
Q

What component of the extracellular matrix does the FGF receptor-ligand often form complexes with

A

Heparan sulphate proteoglycans (HSPGs)

580
Q

The FGF receptor-ligand complex can become activated in the absence of binding to components of the extracellular matrix, T or F

A

F – the receptor can only become activated when in a complex with HSPGs

581
Q

What species attached to the proteoglycan backbones can be sulphated to trigger ligand binding to the FGF receptor

A

Glycosaminoglycans

582
Q

HSPGs are important extracellular modifiers of cell-cell signalling, what is their role in the extracellular environment

A

They are important in organising the extracellular matrix into basal lamina

583
Q

Give some examples of HSPGs

A

Glypican, Syndecan and Perlecan

584
Q

Describe the structure of HSPGs

A

Consist of a proteoglycan core with glycosaminoglycan side chains

585
Q

The protein core of HSPGs tethers them to the membrane, T or F

A

F – whilst the protein core is the unit responsible for membrane tethering, this doesn’t occur always. Some protein cores are transmembrane domains or can direct the HSPG for secretion

586
Q

Other than Heparan Sulphate, give some examples of sugar side chains present on proteoglycans

A

Aggrecan, Betaglycan, Decorin and Perlecan

587
Q

Modification by sulphation of GAGs can provide a code which creates binding sites for specific proteins and sequences that carry information, T or F

A

T

588
Q

Describe the effects of HSPGs on the gradients of secreted molecules

A

HSPGs control the steepness of a secreted molecule gradient and how far a growth factor can diffuse through the extracellular space

589
Q

Give an example of a disease caused by mutations in FGF signalling and describe how this accounts for the symptoms

A

Achondroplasia is a dwarfism disease caused by an activation mutation in the transmembrane domain of the FGF receptor. This means that the receptor is constitutively active independent of ligand binding. FGF signalling then leads to a repression of Ihh which in turn leads to a loss of expression of PTHrP. PTHrP is required to stimulate proliferation and chondrogenesis and hence increased FGF signalling leads to the decreased bone growth characteristic of dwarfism.

590
Q

What is the results of ectopic hedgehog signalling in the Drosophila appendage structures

A

Ectopic hedgehog signalling creates a mirror image duplication of limb structures

591
Q

What are the Drosophila imaginal discs

A

Columnar epithelial cells of the ectoderm that give rise to adult structures

592
Q

Other than limbs/appendages, what others adult structures are the imaginal discs for in the Drosophila embryo

A

Mouthparts, eyes/antennae, genitals

593
Q

Imaginal discs are set up early in embryogenesis, T or F

A

T

594
Q

Which segment of the Drosophila embryo contains the haltere imaginal disc

A

(Thoracic) T3

595
Q

Which segment of the Drosophila embryo contains the leg imaginal disc

A

(Thoracic) T3

596
Q

Which segment of the Drosophila embryo contains the wing imaginal disc

A

(Thoracic) T2

597
Q

What is meant by a haltere

A

The haltere is a paired structure of the adult fly that is essentially its second pair of wings. However, over time, this structure has evolved a new role as a balance organ that counteracts the movement of the wings

598
Q

The wing imaginal disc grows massively throughout development, increasing from 20/30 cells to 50,000+ cells. What is surprising about the structure during this period

A

The structure remains surprisingly similar throughout

599
Q

There are three regions of the wing imaginal disc, what three adult structures do these regions give rise to

A

Notum, proximal wing and hinge, and the wing blade

600
Q

What is mean by the wing imaginal disc developing akin to how an extendable aerial extends

A

The three concentric regions of the wing imaginal disc extend outwards forming the proximal-distal axis. The dorso-ventral axis is defined by a line the passes horizontally through the disc

601
Q

The muscles that move the adult fly wing are found in the hinge, T or F

A

F – the wings themselves are stiff with all movements controlled by the muscles of the notum. The twisting motion of these muscles is translated by the hinge into the up and down action of the wing blade

602
Q

How many cells thick is the adult fruit fly wing

A

2 cells thick

603
Q

Bands of expression of which genes dictate the anterior-posterior and dorso-ventral axes

A

Dorso-ventral is defined by a band of wingless expression whilst anterior-posterior boundary is indicated by a band of ptc expression

604
Q

Which axis forms the edge of the wing

A

Dorso-ventral

605
Q

What three key genes are involved in dividing the anterior-posterior wing imaginal disc

A

Engrailed, hedgehog and decapentaplegic

606
Q

What type of gene is engrailed

A

Engrailed is a segment polarity gene encoding a transcription factor

607
Q

What is the effect on gene expression of engrailed

A

Engrailed switches on hedgehog which in turn induces wingless expression

608
Q

Wingless and hedgehog work together to inhibit the formation of denticles, T or F

A

T

609
Q

In early embryogenesis engrailed in involved in polarising segments, which region of the segment is indicated by engrailed expression

A

Engrailed defines the posterior compartment of each segment

610
Q

What is similar about engrailed expression in the body segments and wing imaginal discs

A

Like the body segments, the wing imaginal discs also express engrailed only in the posterior. The presumptive imaginal discs inherit their anterior-posterior identity from the segmentation machinery.

611
Q

Engrailed expression in the posterior segments pre-dates the regions where the imaginal discs form, T or F

A

T

612
Q

Engrailed expression in the posterior wing, thoracic and abdominal segments is switch off in the adult fly, T or F

A

F - Engrailed expression remains on in the adult fly and it remains expressed in the posterior wing, thoracic and abdominal segments

613
Q

What experimental evidence is there that engrailed is expressed in the posterior thoracic and abdominal segments as well as posterior wing

A

Creating a reporter construct encoding a engrailed-LacZ fusion protein drives expression of ?-galactosidase under the control of the engrailed promoter. Introducing the LacZ substrate X-galactose results in the production of a blue precipitate in the posterior segments etc.

614
Q

What phenomena accounts for the distinct boundaries between engrailed expressing cells and those not expressing it

A

Cells expressing engrailed only having affinity for other cells expressing engrailed and vice versa. This is due to differences in intercellular adhesion

615
Q

What is the result in hedgehog signalling in mutants with loss-of-function mutation in smo

A

Smo mutants lack hedgehog target gene repression and thus increased expression of target genes even in the absence of a hedgehog ligand

616
Q

What is the effect of engrailed on Ci

A

Engrailed suppression Ci expression

617
Q

What is the effect of engrailed on hedgehog expression

A

Engrailed induces hedgehog expression

618
Q

What is the effect of engrailed on wingless

A

Engrailed upregulates expression of wingless. However, this isn’t direct and in fact, acts through hedgehog which upregulates wingless

619
Q

Is Ci is only expressed in the absence on engrailed, where in the wing imaginal disc is it expressed

A

In the anterior compartment

620
Q

As well as being the hedgehog receptor, Ptc is also a hedgehog signalling pathway gene upregulated by ligand binding, T or F

A

T

621
Q

What can be said about the ptc expression pattern in the wing imaginal disc

A

Ptc is expressed in a band along the dorso-ventral axis

622
Q

If ptc is a target gene of the hedgehog signalling pathway, then which cells is its expression confined to

A

Ptc can only be expressed in cells where hedgehog is present and Ci is not being repressed by engrailed

623
Q

As hedgehog is only expressed in response to engrailed, its transcription is confined to the posterior wing imaginal disc, T or F

A

T

624
Q

Explain using what you know about hedgehog why an expression band of ptc only occurs in the midline and initial anterior cells of the wing imaginal disc

A

As hedgehog is a morphogen it is made in the cells of the posterior wing imaginal disc and then is secreted. Hedgehog ligands then diffuse anteriorly to regions of cells that don’t express engrailed and thus haven’t had their Ci expression switched off. This means that the only cells capable of responding to the hedgehog induced in the posterior wing disc are those lying anterior of the midline where Ci is still being expressed. These cells will thus express ptc as a result of hedgehog target gene expression.

625
Q

Decapentaplegic is another gene product involved in patterning the Drosophila wing. What causes dpp expression

A

Dpp is a hedgehog pathway target gene expressed as a result of hedgehog ligand binding

626
Q

What type of patterning molecule is dpp

A

Dpp is a morphogen

627
Q

Dpp is an invertebrate gene, what is its vertebrate homologue

A

TGF-?

628
Q

Dpp is expressed exclusively in the midline of the wing imaginal disc, explain how this occurs

A

As dpp is a transcriptional target of hedgehog expression it can only be expressed in cells receiving hedgehog from the posterior wing disc cells where engrailed is being expressed. However these cells themselves need to not be expressing engrailed so that Ci expression isn’t inhibited. These cells occurs at the midline and slightly anteriorly and begin to express dpp. However, as dpp is a morphogen it diffuses both anteriorly and posteriorly creating a uniform decreasing gradient either side of the midline

629
Q

Remembering that dpp is a morphogen and a homologue of the vertebrate TGF-?, what are the specific Type I and Type II receptors which it binds to

A

Tkv and Pnt

630
Q

What invertebrate homologues of Smad proteins are activated as a results of dpp binding to type I and II receptors

A

Mad proteins

631
Q

Brinker, omb and sal are target genes of dpp signalling, what are the specific effect of decapentaplegic on these genes

A

Dpp inhibits brinker expression and upregulates omb and sal genes

632
Q

How can dpp’s action as a morphogen be visualised experimentally

A

Raising an antibody specific for phosphorylated mad proteins

633
Q

Why can dpp protein be detected at a distance, using immunohistochemistry, in cells where in situ hybridisation experiments revealed no mRNA for that gene

A

Dpp is a morphogen

634
Q

Experimental evidence for dpp’s effects on sal and omb expression revealed a much wider band of omb throughout the imaginal disc whereas sal expression was refined to a thinner band closer to the midline. Explain these experimental results

A

Sal requires a much higher concentration of dpp to be expressed by the cells. Hence sal isn’t expressed more distant from the midline because the concentration of dpp isn’t sufficient. In contrast there is sufficient dpp to induce omb expression throughout

635
Q

What is meant by a morphotrap

A

A morphotrap is a membrane-tethered anti-GFP antibody that is a single chain antibody made by cammelids

636
Q

In wild type embryo wing imaginal discs, where are the highest levels of brinker (brk) expression seen and why

A

The highest brk expression is seen at the periphery where ddp expression is at its lowest levels – dpp negatively regulates brk

637
Q

What would be the effect of creating a morphotrap for GFP if you expressed it in cells under the control of the dpp promoter that also have a GFP motif knocked into the GFP gene

A

As morphotraps are membrane-tethered they will restrict the expressed dpp-GFP fusion protein to the cell surface effectively making it paracrine.

638
Q

What would be seen experimentally if you restricted the diffusion of dpp away from the midline

A

A more refined band on dpp expression in the midline and brk expression projecting much more medially and forming a clear boundary rather than a gradient

639
Q

Explain what would happen as a result of cloning cells in the posterior wing imaginal disc that have engrailed knocked out

A

These cells will express ptc due to a loss of repression of hedgehog target genes. The cells will be produce Ci because it isn’t being repressed by engrailed which has been knocked out. Hedgehog produced by neighbouring cells will bind to ptc receptors leading to expression of hedgehog target genes. These cloned cells will therefore express dpp because hedgehog is present and Ci is expressed

640
Q

Explain what would happen as a result of cloning cells in the anterior wing imaginal disc that have forced engrailed expression

A

This will result in a border of dpp expression around the cells with forced engrailed expression. This is because Ci expression in those cells will be repressed by engrailed. Also engrailed expression causes hedgehog expression in those cells. This hedgehog will diffuse out of the cells where engrailed is expressed to the surrounding cells of the anterior wing imaginal disc. These anterior cells are wild type and do not express engrailed and thus are expressing Ci and can respond to hedgehog signalling. This will result in the activation of hedgehog signalling and expression of dpp

641
Q

Explain what would happen as a result of cloning cells in the anterior wing imaginal disc that have patched knocked out

A

This will have the same effect as ectopic hedgehog signalling and will lead to dpp expression in those cells with ptc -/-. This is because ptc -/- will have decrease inhibition of smo. This means smo will be constitutively active even with the ligand absent. As Ci is also present because there is no engrailed anteriorly, dpp is expressed as well as other hedgehog target genes

642
Q

What would be the result of a Ptc and Ci double knockout experiment in a region of cells in the midline, where dpp is normally expressed

A

Ptc and Ci double knockout in the midline will result in a further hedgehog diffusion anteriorly from those cells in the posterior where it is expressed. This is because hedgehog is not binding to any ptc receptors in the midline and so more is available to diffuse further.

643
Q

What type of signalling protein is wingless

A

A morphogen

644
Q

Wingless expression drives expression of pathway target genes in a concentration dependent manner and defines the dorsal ventral boundary in the same way that engrailed does the anterior-posterior axis, T or F

A

T

645
Q

Below is a list of limb bone structures and their embryonic precursors regions. Match up the corresponding bones and embryonic structures. A - humerus, B - Metacarpals, C - Radius, D - Carpals, E - Phalanges, F - Ulna. i - Stylopod, ii - Autopod, iii - Zuegopod

A

A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - ii, E - ii, F - iii

646
Q

What are the names given to the structures that initially form and demarcate where the limb buds will form

A

Limb fields

647
Q

What set of genes dictate where the early limb regions are positioned

A

Hox genes

648
Q

The anterior border of Hox6 expression was found to correlate with limb bud formation. As Hox 6 is a transcription factor, what type of experiment would be used to prove that at the anterior border of its expression, the limb fields would form

A

In situ hybridisation – identify the cells where the Hox6 mRNA transcript is produced

649
Q

Tbx4 and tbx5 were wound to be the downstream genes activated that specify the limb fields. What type of genes are tbx genes

A

Tbx genes are T-box containing transcription factors

650
Q

Which tbx gene is responsible for specifying the anterior or forelimb bud

A

Tbx5

651
Q

Which tbx gene is responsible for specifying the posterior or hindlimb bud

A

Tbx4

652
Q

What is the result of forced tbx4 expression in the forelimb field at the anterior limb bud in chicks

A

This will lead to the development of a leg (or hindlimb) instead of a wing (or forelimb)

653
Q

Explain the interaction between tbx4 and 5 that act to restrict the limb fields

A

There is a negative regulation mechanism between the tbx 4 and 5 genes. Tbx5 can block the expansion of tbx4 expression which prevents the hindlimb field from progression anteriorly into the forelimb field

654
Q

Hox genes directly induce the expression of tbx transcription factors in the process of determining the limb field regions, T or F

A

F – Hox proteins lead to the expression of retinoic acid which in turn upregulates tbx transcription factors

655
Q

In vertebrate limb development, hox genes are expressed in the lateral and paraxial mesoderm, which ultimately leads to the expression of tbx4 and 5, T or F

A

T

656
Q

FGF was considered to have a role in formation of the limb bud. Describe an experiment that could be carried out in chicks to determine if indeed, FGFs are involved in limb formation

A

Implantation of FGF-soaked beads into the flank of chick embryos and observe if ectopic limbs develop

657
Q

It was later found that ectopic FGF did in fact lead to the development of an ectopic limb in the chick embryo. What is the significance of the proximity of this ectopic signalling to either of the normal developing limb fields

A

Depending of the proximity of the FGF signalling (due to bead implantation) to either the hind or forelimb fields determined the ultimate identity of the ectopic limb. If it was closer to hindlimb field an ectopic leg would develop, similarly, if it was closer to forelimb field an ectopic wing would develop

658
Q

The key genes involved in specification of the limbs were determined to be, FGF8 and 10, Retinoic acid, Hox genes and tbx transcription factors. Put these genes in the sequence in which they act to dictate limb field development

A

Hox genes –> retinoic acid –> tbx4/5 –> FGF10 –> FGF8

659
Q

From medial to lateral, recall the mesodermal tissues in the developing chick embryo

A

Axial mesoderm, Paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm and lateral mesoderm

660
Q

Which region of mesoderm gives rise to the urogenital structures such as the kidneys

A

Intermediate mesoderm

661
Q

Which mesodermal region produces FGF10

A

Lateral mesoderm

662
Q

Describe how FGF10 expression in the lateral mesoderm at the level of the limb is induced by the intermediate mesoderm

A

The intermediate mesoderm produces large amounts of FGF8 which induces the FGF10 expression by the lateral mesoderm

663
Q

What signalling acts to restrict expression of FGF10 in specification of the limb fields

A

Wnt signalling

664
Q

Explain how FGF10 signalling results in the induction of the AER

A

FGF10 from the lateral mesoderm acts to induce wnt3a expression in the overlying ectoderm which changes its identity to become thickened, producing the apical ectodermal ridge

665
Q

After induction of the AER by FGF signalling from the lateral mesoderm and wnt3a expression, another set of FGF ligands are expressed at high levels. Which FGFs are these

A

FGF4 and 8

666
Q

What the name of the structure that forms in the posterior limb bud that expresses the sonic hedgehog morphogen and plays a key role in patterning of the limb

A

Zone of Polarising Activity (ZPA)

667
Q

What is meant by the progress zone and what is its role

A

The progress zone is a region of mesoderm where cells proliferate and that will ultimately give rise to cells of the limb

668
Q

Outline the role of the AER in limb patterning

A

The AER is required and necessary for the growth and maintenance of the progress zone

669
Q

As the limb grows outwards during development, the more proximal skeletal and muscle regions are specified, T or F

A

F – the more distal skeletal elements are specified as the limb grows outwards

670
Q

As the limb grows its specifies the skeletal element that the cells adopt depending on how long they spend proliferating in the progress zone, T or F

A

T

671
Q

Explain the temporal patterning of the proximal-distal axis of the vertebrate limb

A

There is a clock present in the progress zone of the limb bud that measures the number of cell divisions. Cells that have undergone a small number of cell cycles will form proximal skeletal elements, whereas those that have undergone more cycles will form distal skeletal elements

672
Q

The temporal model for patterning the vertebrate limb was determined to be incorrect, T or F

A

T

673
Q

Outline the two-signal model of proximal-distal limb patterning

A

The AER is only important in establishing the distal area of the limb. Another signal acts to establish the proximal regions. Its the interactions between proximal and distal elements that determines the intermediate regions

674
Q

In the two-signal model of proximal-distal limb patterning, what are the signals involved

A

The distal signal from the AER are FGFs, whereas the proximal signal is retinoic acid

675
Q

The molecules that act to specify proximal and distal regions of the vertebrate limb are secreted products that act as morphogens, T or F

A

T

676
Q

Hox11, Hox 13 and Meis1/2 are all downstream genes upregulated in the limb bud that act to pattern the vertebrate limb. What type of genes are these

A

Transcription factors

677
Q

Explain how interactions between the two secreted signals in vertebrate limb patterning act to form the stylopod

A

The stylopod is the most proximal region of the limb. This is the regions that’s is exposed to the highest levels of RA. Retinoic acid acts to induce the expression of Meis1 and 2

678
Q

Explain how interactions between the two secreted signals in vertebrate limb patterning act to form the autopod

A

The autopod is the most distal region of the limb. This is the region that’s is exposed to the highest levels of FGF signalling. FGFs act to induce the expression of Hox13

679
Q

Explain how interactions between the two secreted signals in vertebrate limb patterning act to form the zeugopod

A

The zeugopod is the intermediate region of the limb. This is the region that’s is exposed to intermediate levels of both RA and FGF signalling. A combination of this signalling acts to induce expression of Hox11

680
Q

Distal-less (Dlx) is a gene found in Drosophila identified as playing a role in development of appendages, in particular, the leg. What is the significance of dlx in vertebrate limb development

A

Dlx is the Drosophila homologue of Hox13

681
Q

Homothorax is the Drosophila homologue of Meis1/2. What is the importance of this gene in fruit fly development

A

Homothorax is important in controlling the patterning of the proximal wing

682
Q

What is the ZPA and its role in limb development

A

The Zone of Polarising Activity (ZPA) is an area of mesenchyme in posterior limb bud that controls anterior-posterior limb patterning

683
Q

Describe an experiment that could be carried out in chicks that would provide the evidence that the ZPA controls anterior-posterior patterning in the limb. What would you expect to see

A

Surgical removal of the ZPA from a donor chick embryo and implantation into the anterior limb bud of a donor embryo. This grafting would cause a mirror image duplication of distal limb structures

684
Q

It was later found that ectopic grafting of the ZPA resulted in a mirror image duplication of autopod structures. What was seen in a similar experiment where grafting occurred earlier in limb development

A

There was also a duplication of the ulna

685
Q

What molecule is secreted by the ZPA to control anterior-posterior patterning of the limb

A

Sonic hedgehog

686
Q

Describe a similar experiment to ZPA grafting the proves its role in anterior-posterior patterning of the distal limb based on the knowledge of the molecules that it secretes

A

Implantation of sonic hedgehog-soaked beads into the anterior limb bud. This should also create a mirror image duplication of distal structures

687
Q

Chick wings have three digits, describe the nomenclature of these digits

A

The chick wing has three digits named digit 2,3 and 4. There is no digit 1

688
Q

How does the chick forelimb differ to its hindlimb

A

The chick wing only has three digits whereas the hindlimb or leg has 4. The leg has digits 1,2,3 and 4

689
Q

How does sonic hedgehog dictate digit formation in the chick wing

A

Each threshold of sonic hedgehog correlates with the formation of a specific digit. At the lowest sonic hedgehog concentration digit 2 forms. Intermediate sonic hedgehog concentrations correspond to digit 3 with the highest sonic hedgehog concentration dictating digit 4

690
Q

What experimentation methods could be employed to determine if sonic hedgehog is acting as a morphogen in anterior-posterior patterning of the distal limb

A

Carry out in situ hybridisation to look at where the sonic hedgehog mRNA is being transcribed in the limb bud. This would show a localisation of the mRNA in the cells of the ZPA. This could then be compared to immunohistochemistry experimentation which would stain for the sonic hedgehog protein using tagged antibodies. This would show a decreasing gradient of the protein from posterior to anterior throughout the limb bud and not localised to cells of the ZPA. This indicates that the sonic hedgehog protein is leaving the cells in which it is produced

691
Q

Describe the phenotype of a sonic hedgehog mutant with regards to the effects on limb development

A

Sonic hedgehog knockout mice exhibit a complete loss of the distal most skeletal elements as well as a loss of identity of the zeugopods

692
Q

Why does digit 1 often develop to some extent in the limbs of sonic hedgehog knockout mice

A

The anteriormost limb, or digit 1 forms independently of sonic hedgehog signalling. Ihh expression is seen in the most anterior region of the limb bud and acts independently of sonic hedgehog to dictate some autopod development. Ihh maintains the expression of sonic hedgehog target genes in the anterior region of the limb bud in the absence of sonic hedgehog hence leading to the digit development seen in sonic hedgehog -/- mice. Similarly Ihh -/- mice did not show development of the anteriormost digit

693
Q

Which genes are mainily involved in proximo-distal patterning of the limb

A

RA and FGF

694
Q

Which genes are mainly involved in anterior-posterior patterning of the limb

A

Sonic hedgehog (and Ihh)

695
Q

Explain the coordination between the developing anterior-posterior and proximo-distal axis development

A

The AER releases FGF8 which plays an important role in maintaining sonic hedgehog expression by the ZPA. Sonic hedgehog then in turn plays an important role in maintaining FGF expression in the AER. This positive feedback loop allows for a mutual maintenance of both sonic hedgehog and FGF expression

696
Q

What are the three genes involved in dorso-ventral axis formation in the developing limb

A

Wnt7a, engrailed1 and lmxb1

697
Q

Which two genes show an exquisite complimentary expression pattern with one being uniquely expressed in the dorsal ectoderm whilst the other in the ventral ectoderm

A

Engrailed1 is only expressed in the dorsal ectoderm whilst wnt7a is expressed in the ventral ectoderm

698
Q

Explain how the complimentary genes involved in d-v pattering of the vertebrate limb interact

A

Engrailed1 prevents the expression of wnt7a.

699
Q

What is the effect of en1 knockout on vertebrate limb development

A

Engrailed knockout results in a dorsalisation of the limb as wnt7a expression isn’t inhibited. This is because wnt7a expression is driven throughout entire d-v axis ectoderm. En1 acts to prevent wnt7a expression from expanding ventrally

700
Q

Where is lmx1b expression only seen in the vertebrate limb

A

In the dorsal mesenchyme

701
Q

Explain the role of lmx1b in patterning of the vertebrate limb

A

Lmx1b acts to pattern the dorsal region of the developing vertebrate limb

702
Q

What is the result of lmx1b knockout

A

Lmx1b knockout results in a ventralised limb with no dorsal mesenchymal development

703
Q

Apterous is the invertebrate homologue of lmx1b. What is the significance of this in appendage development

A

Apterous is present in the Drosophila wing disc and controls dorsal fate by inducing wingless expression in Drosophila

704
Q

Recall the pathway of interaction between the genes involved in the d-v patterning of the vertebrate limb

A

BMP –> En1 –| Wnt7a –> Lmx1b

705
Q

How does the pathway of wing development in Drosophila differ from that of it vertebrate counterparts, particularly, in the way in which the Lmx1b homologue acts

A

Apterous acts upstream of the wnt7a homologue in Drosophila. Apterous acts to upregulate the expression of wingless leading to the adoption of a dorsal cell fate

706
Q

The timing of heart development across the species is relatively conserved, when does this tend to occur

A

Immediately after gastrulation

707
Q

Drosophila can be used to study the earlier development of the heart, however what prevents these models from being used to study the later stages of cardiogenesis

A

Drosophila have a linear circulatory system and don’t possess a multi-chambered heart

708
Q

The first stage of cardiogenesis involves the formation of a structure from a mesodermal precursor. What is the name given to this early heart structure

A

Cardiac crescent

709
Q

What is the name of the linear structures that form from the cardiac crescent and then fuse to form the looping heart

A

Heart tubes

710
Q

What process takes place during heart remodelling

A

Duplication of chambers

711
Q

Cardiac cells originate from a structure of the ventral lateral mesoderm, what is the name given to this region

A

Splachnopleura

712
Q

What are the two different tissues contained within the region of the ventral lateral mesoderm that the cardiac cells originate from

A

Splachnic mesoderm and foregut endoderm

713
Q

Heart precursor cells have two origins, the first and second heart fields, what structures are derived from the first heart field

A

Cardiac crescent, left and right ventricles, AV canal and the atria

714
Q

What is the role of the second heart field and where is it located

A

The second heart field is located immediately behind the first heart field. It give rise to part of the right ventricles, inflow and outflow tracts as well as plating an important role in the growth of the heart

715
Q

Lecture 22 Question 11 - See image

A

A – axial mesoderm, B – paraxial mesoderm, C – intermediate mesoderm, D – lateral mesoderm (splachnopleura)

716
Q

Lecture 22 Question 12 - See image

A

A – notochord and prechordal mesoderm, B – somites, C – urogenital structure such as the kidneys, D – cardiac and circulatory system

717
Q

Tinman was a gene determined to be involved in the development of the heart. What type of gene is tinman

A

Homeobox domain containing transcription factor

718
Q

What is the precise role of tinman in heart development

A

Tinman is required to specify cells to a cardiac lineage

719
Q

What signalling mechanism is responsible for the regulation of tinman expression in Drosophila. Also list the vertebrate homologue

A

Decapentaplegic (BMP in vertebrates)

720
Q

Tinman expression is initially induced very broadly in the tract mesoderm, however what is the name of the structure that its expression becomes restricted to later in the development of the fruit fly heart

A

Dorsal vessel

721
Q

Explain a loss of function approach used in Drosophila to investigate the role of tinman in cardiogenesis

A

Introduce deletions into the tinman gene and stain cells for a marker of cardiac cells

722
Q

What marker can be used to indicate cells that have adopted a cardiac fate

A

Myosin heavy chain

723
Q

What approach can be used to stain cells for the marker of a cardiac cell fate

A

Immunohistochemistry

724
Q

Explain the results of tinman loss of function analyses on cardiac development and what this tells us about its function

A

Deletions inserted into Drosophila genome in the tinman gene results in mutations that show a loss of myosin heavy chain expression. This indicates that tinman is required for the formation of cardiac cells

725
Q

What is the name of the family of tinman homologues found in vertebrates

A

NK-2 homeobox transcription factors

726
Q

Which specific tinman vertebrate homologue is specifically expressed in the cardiac crescent

A

Nkx2.5

727
Q

What is the result of knockout of this tinman vertebrate homologue specifically expressed in the cardiac crescent

A

Nkx2.5 mouse mutants do form hearts but show cardiac defects at the heart looping stage.

728
Q

Why does knockout of Nkx2.5 not cause a failure of the heart to develop

A

Other members of the family carry some of the function and allow heart development to continue (heart ultimately fails to develop normally)

729
Q

Which specific BMPs is decapentaplegic a invertebrate homologue of

A

BMP2 and BMP4

730
Q

Explain a gain of function approach that can be used in mice to investigate the role of the dpp homologue on cardiogenesis

A

Implantation of a BMP2 soaked bead anterior to the primitive streak in early development.

731
Q

What is the result of gain of function experimentation with BMPs involved in cardiogenesis

A

Bead soaked in BMP2 induces the expression of Nkx2.5 in cells that wouldn’t normally express it. This indicates that BMP2 is sufficient to induce expression of Nkx2.5 in cells that wouldn’t normally

732
Q

What would be used as a control in a gain or loss of function experiment that involves bead implantation into chick/mouse embryos

A

Implant another bead that is soaked in PBS

733
Q

A gain of function experiment was carried out to investigate the role of BMP2 by implantation of a BMP2 soaked bead into the posterior of the embryo. No Nkx2.5 expression was seen. Explain these results and what this indicates about BMP2 role in cardiogenesis

A

BMP2 needs to be acting in an environment that is favourable for its activity. Posterior implantation of BMP2 soaked beads wouldn’t result in a cardiac specification due to high concentration of BMP antagonists (Noggin, Chordin, Follistatin) released by the notochord. There needs to be a permissive environment to control cardiac specification by BMP2 signalling

734
Q

Once the cells have been specified to a cardiac lineage, what happens in the stages leading to the formation of the heart tube

A

These cells migrate ventrally under the influence of signals coming from the foregut endoderm and fuse in the midline to form the heart tube

735
Q

Once the heart tube has formed it contains two main tissues, the endocardium and the (epi)myocardium. What are the derivatives of these two tissues

A

Endocardium contains precursors of endothelial lining of heart and cushion cells that form valves. Myocardium contains myocytes of atria and ventricles, and Purkinje fibres

736
Q

Endocardial tube in the inner part of the heart tube eventually contributes to the endothelial lining of the heart, T or F

A

T

737
Q

What is the cardiac jelly

A

A structure that lies between the endocardial tube and the cushion cells that is rich in extracellular matrix proteins secreted by the myocardium

738
Q

Dmef2 is present is all differentiated cardiac muscle cells, T or F

A

F – is it present in all differentiation muscle cells (skeletal and smooth muscle too)

739
Q

What type of gene is Dmef2

A

Transcription factor

740
Q

How is Dmef2 expression induced

A

By the expression of tinman

741
Q

What are the results of mutations in Dmef2 in Drosophila

A

Mutations in Dmef2 result in no formation of the dorsal vessel in Drosophila

742
Q

Like tinman, Dmef2 is also required to form the Drosophila heart, T or F

A

T

743
Q

Dmef2 mutants still show expression of tinman. What can be inferred by this observation

A

Tinman acts upstream of Dmef2

744
Q

What is the effects of Dmef2 mutations on cardiogenesis

A

In the absence of Dmef2 you can still form the precursors of cardiac myocytes. However, these cardiac myocytes are unable to differentiate to form cardiac myocytes

745
Q

Dmef2 is also required to specify cells to a cardiac lineage, T or F

A

F – Dmef2 is required to differentiate cells into cardiac myocytes

746
Q

What would be the effects of tinman mutations on Dmef2 expression

A

Tinman mutants would not show Dmef2 expression

747
Q

What are the three homologues of Dmef2 in vertebrates

A

Mef2A, Mef2B and Mef2C

748
Q

Which is the gene that is expressed earliest in the vertebrate heart

A

Mef2C

749
Q

What is the result of a mutation in the earliest gene expressed in the vertebrate heart

A

No formation of the heart and no looping of the ventricles. Interestingly, upregulation of Mef2B is seen indicating a compensatory mechanism in vertebrates

750
Q

What is the role of the GATA transcription factor family of gene in cardiogenesis

A

The GATA genes drives the fusion of the primordium into the early heart tube

751
Q

What domain indicative of some transcription factors do the GATA proteins contain

A

Zinc finger domains

752
Q

Which specific members of the GATA family are involved in cardiogenesis

A

GATA 4-6

753
Q

What is the result of knockout for the GATA genes involved in cardiogenesis

A

Knockout of GATA4 in mice results in a failure of the heart tube primordia to migrate and fuse to form the heart tube. This is known as cardiac bifida

754
Q

What cell adhesion molecule is controlled by GATA expression

A

N-cadherin

755
Q

Following the formation of the heart tube, Drosophila cardiogenesis is complete as they possess a linear heart. What other embryo also has a neoheart tube with a single atrium and ventricle

A

Zebrafish embryo

756
Q

What two processes take place in higher order animals after formation of the heart tube

A

Looping, chamber subdivision

757
Q

What are the three hypothesised mechanisms of heart looping

A

Asymmetric cell division, asymmetric cell death or changes in cell shape triggered by asymmetric distribution of microtubules, actin bundles and cell adhesion molecules

758
Q

A key factor in the looping of the mammalian heart is the breakage of left-right symmetry which occurs very early in embryogenesis immediately after gastrulation, T or F

A

T

759
Q

Explain how left-right symmetry is broken in the chick embryo

A

In chicks, this symmetry is broken at the level of the (Hensen’s) node due to the asymmetric expression of sonic hedgehog in the left and right. Sonic hedgehog is inhibited by activin receptors on the right of the embryo leading to higher expression on the left of the embryo with low sonic hedgehog levels on the right

760
Q

What two diffusible molecules of the TGF-? family are specifically expressed on the left side of the embryo

A

Lefty and Nodal

761
Q

Which side does normal heart looping occur

A

To the right

762
Q

Outline the role of the iv and inv genes in heart looping

A

Iv and inv involved in the development of motile cilia

763
Q

What is the role of the iv gene

A

Inversus viscerum encodes a dynein protein involved in the movement of the cilia

764
Q

What is the role of the inv gene

A

Inversion of embryonic turning encodes for Inversin, a protein containing ankyrin repeats found in cilia

765
Q

What is the result of mutation in iv

A

Iv mutant mice have cilia that are immotile

766
Q

How do inv and iv act to mediate heart looping despite being genes involved in cilia development

A

Inv and Iv are required for cilia movement, specifically their rotation. Cilia rotation establishes a preferential flow of Nodal and Lefty molecules on the lefts side of the embryo. This rotation prevents the lefty and nodal molecules from diffusing onto the right side of the embryo and allows looping to occur there

767
Q

Formation of the septa in heart chamber formation involves the activity of the endocardia, T or F

A

T

768
Q

The bHLH transcription factors dHand and Ehand are involved in the formation of the heart chambers. Outline their localisation

A

ehand and dHand show specific expression in right and left ventricules. Their restricted expression is complimentary with eHand restricted to the left ventricle and dHand restricted to the right ventricle

769
Q

Whilst dHand knockout mice die at E10.5 with ventricule hypoplasia, eHand knockout mice die at E8.5 with placental defects. Why is this

A

The embryos don’t survive long enough to look at effects on heart development. dHand must be acting earlier in development in another vital process

770
Q

When a gene has multiple vital functions as is common in development, how can we create mice models that specifically look at the later role of these genes if the embryos can’t survive until that stage without it

A

Create a conditional knockout where the gene can be knocked out at a specific stage in development

771
Q

What is seen in the eHand conditional knockout

A

Only knockout eHand in the cardiac myocytes. The mice show left ventricule defects, but survive until birth

772
Q

Lecture 22 Question 27 - See image

A

A – BMPs, B – Nkx2.5, C – Mef2C, D – GATA4, E – inv and iv, F – eHand and dHand

773
Q

Lecture 24 Question 1 - See table

A

c, a, b, d

774
Q

Branching morphogenesis of the ureteric bud underlies the future nephrons, T or F

A

F – it underlies the prospective calyces

775
Q

A remnant of the initial ureteric bud will from what structure in the adult

A

The ureter

776
Q

What is seen at the level of the renal pelvis

A

Where the ureter ends and the where the branches of the major calyces begin

777
Q

Kidney development is protracted, proceeding throughout prenatal and even into postnatal life, T or F

A

T

778
Q

Stem cells of the ureteric bud and metanephric mesenchyme are retained into postnatal life, T or F

A

T

779
Q

Older nephrons are found in the inner regions of the kidney and the newer ones are found at the periphery, T or F

A

T

780
Q

The transcription factor Six2 can be used to identify stem cells of the nephron, what experimental evidence is there for this

A

Genetic lineage tracing has been used to determine that six2 positive cells give rise to cells of the nephron. These have involved the creation of transgenes with GFP fused to the six2 coding region and under the control of its promoter.

781
Q

What is the result of a conditional knockout/loss of six2 expression

A

Depletion of the nephron stem cell pool

782
Q

What is the results of overexpression of the six2 transcription factor

A

Prevention of differentiation

783
Q

As well as six2 acting as a marker for the identification of nephron stem cells, what other role does it play

A

Six2 acts to maintain the nephron stem/progenitor cells by keeping them self-renewing

784
Q

Six2 positive cells are nephron precursor cells that will undergo what type of change in cell behaviour

A

MET cell transition

785
Q

As too much six2 expression prevents differentiation and too little leads to a depletion of the stem cell pool it is essential that only an intermediate level of its expression occurs to induce the creation of the two daughter cells required in nephrogenesis, T or F

A

T

786
Q

What gene first expressed in the intermediate mesoderm prior to kidney development was initially discovered in a paediatric kidney cancer where kidney elements are incompletely differentiated and proliferate to form tumours

A

Wilms tumour 1 (Wt1)

787
Q

Body attempts to build a kidney earlier in development at the cervical regions and then at the level of the developing lungs, T or F

A

T

788
Q

The embryo attempts to form the adult kidney three times during development, producing the pronephros, metanephros and mesonephros. Put these in order in which they form

A

Pronephros, mesonephros and then metanephros

789
Q

What structures in the adult does the mammalian pronephros give rise to

A

Although the pronephros gives rise to the pronephric duct and pronephric cord, the later degenerates with the anterior pronephric duct

790
Q

What structures in the adult does the mammalian mesonephros give rise to

A

The mesonephros along with the most caudal pronephric duct (from the pronephros) give rise to the Wolffian duct

791
Q

What structures in the adult does the metanephros give rise to

A

The metanephros gives rise to the kidney proper

792
Q

From what two structures does the kidney develop from and which mesodermal tissue are these structures derived from

A

Nephrogenic cord and nephrogenic duct – derived from the intermediate mesoderm

793
Q

Ultimately the kidney develops from the metanephric mesenchyme, from which structure is this tissue formed from

A

Nephrogenic cord

794
Q

What type of cells are contained in the intermediate mesoderm

A

Mesenchymal cells

795
Q

As the nephrogenic duct extends caudally, what structures does it induce the formation of in the nephrogenic cord

A

Nephric tubules

796
Q

In mammals, the posterior nephric tubules degenerate and undergo apoptosis, T or F

A

F – In mammals, anterior structures degenerate, leaving only metanephric regions

797
Q

The ureteric bud forms from the most causal region of the nephric duct, T or F

A

T

798
Q

Which paired box transcription factor is expressed by the nephric duct

A

Pax2

799
Q

Which structure expresses wt1 involved in kidney development

A

Nephric cord

800
Q

Describe the anatomical relations of the nephric duct and nephric cord

A

Nephric duct lies dorsally to the nephric cord and elongates in a rostral caudal direction

801
Q

Which three transcription factors are absolutely required for the formation of the nephric duct

A

Lim1, Pax8 and Pax2

802
Q

Which cell adhesion molecules are identifiable markers of the nephric duct and can be observed to compare the effects of Pax2 and Pax8 knockout

A

Laminin and E-cadherin

803
Q

What structure does the pronephric duct join with as it extends caudally

A

Cloaca

804
Q

Outline the development of the mesonephros

A

As the pronephric tubules degenerate, the middle portion of the nephric duct induces a new set of kidney tubules in the mesenchyme. These new kidney tubules constitute the mesonephros or mesonephric kidney. Each mesonephric tubule attracts a blood supply from a branch of the nearby aorta which end in a capillary tuft – analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. Mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around this tuft, allowing for blood filtration

805
Q

Discuss the ultimate fate of the mesonephros

A

The mesonephros largely generates, However, in males, some tubules retained and form vas deferens. But by now, the metanephric (definitive) kidney has been induced

806
Q

Most likely different Hox code or signals from the cloaca mediate the formation of the kidney proper/metanephros, T or F

A

T

807
Q

What is meant when we refer to early cells of the embryo as totipotent

A

They can give rise to any of the germ layers and subsequently any cell of the body

808
Q

Most of the early derivatives of the totipotent cells will remain as adult or tissue specific stem cells, T or F

A

F – most will differentiate to form the somatic cells of the body

809
Q

What is the name given to the set of cells set aside in an undifferentiated state that contribute to an individual during its lifetime

A

Tissue specific or adult stem cells

810
Q

Tissue specific stem cells are maintained throughout life due to their ability to self-renew, T or F

A

F – they are gradually depleted over time

811
Q

What are gonadal stem cells

A

Another type of specialised cells distinct from tissue specific stem cells that are set aside in an undifferentiated state for the next generation

812
Q

In some animals as well as all plants, somatic cells can readily form new organisms, T or F

A

T – whereas in many animals there is an early division between somatic and germ cells

813
Q

Generation of the germ cells is said to be a two-step process, what are the main stages in this process

A

The primordial germ cells (PGCs) are determined in a specific location just on the edge or outside of the developing embryo. Then PGCs migrate to the gonad and become the progenitor populations for eggs and sperm

814
Q

A germ cell is a plastic/totipotent cell type capable of undergoing mitosis, T or F

A

F – they are capable of undergoing meiosis

815
Q

C. elegans has given us a conceptual understanding of germ cell determination. What process of early cell division accounts for the differences in germ and somatic cells and is a process used to produce different daughters

A

Asymmetric cell division

816
Q

What cell lineage in C. elegans is responsible for giving rise to the germ cells, discuss this lineage

A

The P-cell lineage in C.elegans gives rise to the germ line. The fertilisied egg goes onto to divide to give the AB cells and the P1 cell. The P1 cell then divides to give an EMS cell and the P2 cell. P2 divides asymmetrically to give the P3 and C cell fates

817
Q

What causes the process used to create 2 different daughter cells during cell division

A

Asymmetric cell division is caused by the asymmetric localisation of cytoplasmic determinants within a cell

818
Q

Describe how localisation of cytoplasmic determinants can both subsequently lead to both symmetrical and asymmetrical cell divisions

A

Once cytoplasmic determinants are localised within the mother cell, division along a meridian that intersects this localisation would result in the production of two identical daughters after division. However, cell division along the equator adjacent to the determinant localisation would generate two different daughter cells

819
Q

What are the two daughters produced by asymmetric division in the formation of the germ line

A

One daughter cell will be maintained as a stem cell while the other will differentiation

820
Q

Give an example of P-granule determinant that becomes localised during the generation of the P-cell lineage during C.elegans development

A

PIE1 – a transcription blocker that also subsequently prevents differentiation

821
Q

Other than blocking transcription, what can other cytoplasmic determinants mediate in the P-cells

A

Translation blockers, promoters of stem fates, cause cells to undergo meiosis

822
Q

P-granules become restricted to one cell, this cells will be the germ cell, T or F

A

T

823
Q

What is the name of the region in the Drosophila embryo that is responsible for mediating germ line development

A

Germ plasm

824
Q

Germ line determination occurs during what process in the Drosophila embryo

A

Cellularisation

825
Q

Give an example of a specific gene product localised posteriorly in the Drosophila embryo

A

Germ cell-less

826
Q

What is the result of loss of function mutations in some of the gene products involved in determining the germ line in Drosophila and the vertebrate homologues

A

Sterility

827
Q

What transcriptional blocker homologue of gcl is found in Xenopus laevis and is expressed at the most vegetal pole of the bottom hemisphere of the frog embryo

A

Nanos

828
Q

The frog cells that inherit the gcl homologue will become the primordial germ cells, T or F

A

T

829
Q

What is different about the location where the PGCs are determined in mammalian embryos

A

In mammals, the primordial germ cells are determined outside of the main developing body axes at the junction of the epiblast/hypoblast

830
Q

What sort of signals must the PCGs in mammalian embryos be prevented from receiving in order to maintain their stem capability

A

Signals that govern formation of the body axes such as wnts, FGFs, BMPs, Hedgehog and RA

831
Q

In mammals, differentiation of PGCs is repressed by repressing gene expression until the rapid differentiation of the early embryo begins to decrease. What happens at this stage

A

The PCGs go inside the embryo and enter the hindgut at the posterior region. The germ cells then migrate to the specialised protective niche of the gonads.

832
Q

What is meant when referring to the gonads as a protective niche

A

The gonad regions are a specialised protective microenvironment that prevent the PGCs from differentiating

833
Q

Describe pole cell migration in the Drosophila embryo

A

Pole cells attach to the endoderm and move through the foregut. A combination of chemoattractive and repulsive cues drive the PGCs and gonad precursor cells together and to a specific destination (the gonad). The PGCs divide through the larval stage and differentiate at metamorphosis. In the ovaries, the cells attach to stromal cap whereas in the testes, the cells attach to hub cells

834
Q

Describe how germ cells migrate in Xenopus embryos

A

Once convergent extension has happened, the primitive gut is formed from the archenteron. PGCs then migrate into the posterior part of the developing gut, before leaving the gut to migrate to the gonads. Roughly 30 PGCs reach gonads governed by a fibronectin pathway and a crucial contribution by the Sdf-1 chemoattractant

835
Q

In mammals, the primordial germ cells stay out of the embryo (in the extraembryonic territory) while the major inductive events occur, T or F

A

T

836
Q

Once they have migrated anteriorly through the foregut what happens to the PGCs

A

They leave the gut and move to the protective niche of the gonads via the dorsal mesentery, entering the genital ridges

837
Q

What is the role of support cells in PGC migration in mammalian embryos

A

Support cells travel with the PGCs to maintain the undifferentiated stem cell phenotype by secreting stem cell factor (SCF)

838
Q

Teratomas are tumours seen in some foetuses, what are these and how do they form

A

Teratomas are an embryonic cancer that contains over-proliferative cells derived from all three germ layers. They are caused by a failure of the PGCs to migrate to the protective niche/failure or to make SCF. This in turn causes the germ cells to differentiate without any organisation.