White Blood Cells and Haemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

Cessation of blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are innate responses?

A

General, non-specific processes against infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What components make up the innate responses?

A

Skin
Phagocytosis of micro-organisms
Destruction by stomach acids/enzymes
Hydrolytic enzymes released by immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an adaptive response?

A

Directed response against specific infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What unique feature is present in adaptive responses?

A

improve on repeated exposure to the same infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many leukocytes are found per litre of blood?

A

4-10 x 10^9 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which leukocytes have roles in phagocytosis?

A

Neutrophils
monocytes
eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do basophils and lymphocytes attack foreign bodies?

A

Release hydrolytic enzymes, histamine and other chemicals from cytoplasmic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Are leukocytes nucleated?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What stain can help differentiate leukocytes under the microscope?

A

Wright’s stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does Wright’s stain differentiate between leukocytes?

A

Nuclear shape and cytoplasmic colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What leukocytes are granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the bone marrow precursor cell of granulocytes?

A

Myelocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What unique feature do granulocytes have?

A

Multi-nucleated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What other cell found in blood is formed from myelocytes?

A

Thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What controls the formation of myelocytes?

A

Cytokine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long do myelocytes stay in bone marrow?

A

6-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long do myelocytes reside in circulation?

A

6-10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long do myelocytes stay in tissues?

A

4-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is the reserve pool of myelocytes?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common circulating WBC in adults?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do neutrophils travel through tissues?

A

Squeeze through pores of capillaries by diapedesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When do numbers off neutrophils increase?

A

During infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are eosinophils phagocytic?

A

Yes but weakly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common way that eosinophils attack bodies?

A

Attach to parasites and secrete hydrolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a unique function of eosinophils?

A

Reverse tissue damage during an allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the least common granulocytes?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do basophils attack bodies?

A

Release hydrolytic enzymes from cytoplasmic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the defining characteristic of basophils?

A

Release chemicals that contribute to allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name the chemicals responsible for allergic reactions.

A

Histamine, seratonin, heparin, bradykinin, lysosomal enzymes, slow-reacting substance of anaphalaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do monocytes develop into?

A

Tissue macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do monocytes phagocytose?

A

Infectious agents
Abnormal and dying cells/cell fragments including RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where do monocytes phagacytose?

A

Only in tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long do macrophages remain in tissues?

A

Months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the reticuloendothelial system?

A

Monocyte-macrophage system
Attach to tissues indefinitely and can be recruited into tissues if required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where are macrophages prominent?

A

Lymph nodes
Lung alveolar walls
Liver sinusoidal capillaries
Red pulp of spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

The recruitment of neutrophils and macrophages to tissue inflammation/infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What causes a chemotactic effect?

A

Bacterial/viral toxins
Degenerative products of inflamed tissues
Complement complex activated in inlfamed tissues
Reaction products of plasma clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the first line of defence against infection?

A

Local macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the 2nd line of defence against infection

A

Neutrophils entering by margination/diapedesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the products of inflammation that act on bone marrow?

A

Rapid neutrophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What do the factors secreted by activated macrophages do?

A

Promote granulocyte and monocyte production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do the factors secreted by activated macrophages do?

A

Promote granulocyte and monocyte production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the first leukocyte which is up-regulated in bone marrow following infection?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Are macrophages or neutrophils superior phagocytic cells?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where are natural killer cells produced from?

A

Lymphoid lineage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What do natural killer cells target?

A

Target tumour cells and virus infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do natural killer cells attack a cell?

A

Induced programmed cell death (Apoptosis) via release of contents of cytoplasmic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How are natural killer cells activated?

A

Interferons or macrophage-derived cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the three main subtypes of lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do b lymphocytes attack?

A

Mature into plasma cells which secrete antibodies

52
Q

What are the two main subgroups of T lymphocytes?

A

Helper T cells
Cytotoxic T cells

53
Q

How do helper T cells attack?

A

Secrete cytokines which activate other leukocytes

54
Q

How do cytotoxic T cells attack?

A

Secrete factors that kill virus-infected cells and tumour cells

55
Q

Where are lymphocytes produced from and stored?

A

Lymphoid tissue

56
Q

How are lymphocytes positioned?

A

Positioned to intercept invading organisms or toxins

57
Q

What kind of cytokine up-regulates lymphocyte production?

A

Interleukins

58
Q

Where do pro-T cells migrate to and are processed?

A

Thymus

59
Q

Where are pro-B cells processed?

A

Liver and bone marrow

60
Q

What generates a very high diversity of antigen specificity?

A

Genetic recombination

61
Q

What part of individual cells develop specificity of different antigens?

A

Surface receptors

62
Q

What part of individual cells develop specificity of different antigens?

A

Surface receptors

63
Q

What cells target proteins in the host organism?

A

Self reacting cells

64
Q

Are self-reacting cells entered into the circulatory system?

A

No, they are eliminated, and remaining cells migrate to and are stored in lymphoid tissues

65
Q

What differentiates B cells and T cells when activated?

A

T cells will bind themselves to the cell (Cell-mediated immunity)
B-cells will secrete antigen-specific antibodies (humoral-mediated immunity)

66
Q

What differentiates each T cell and B cell?

A

Specific surface antigens

67
Q

What will macrophages do while breaking down a pathogen?

A

Present fragments of that pathogen on the cell surface to T cells and B cells

68
Q

What cell does the same job as macrophages?

A

Dendritic cells

69
Q

What percentage of T cells are Helper T cells?

A

75%

70
Q

What do Helper T cells do?

A

Secrete Lymphokines

71
Q

What do lymphokines do?

A

Promote growth of activated B cells
Stimulate cytotoxic and suppressor T cells
Activate macrophages
Feedback stimulation of helper cells

72
Q

What virus inactivates or destroys helper T cells?

A

HIV

73
Q

What cells target macro-organisms that are protein-tagged?

A

Cytotoxic t cells

74
Q

What are suppressor t cells?

A

They dampen cytotoxic t cell acitvity

75
Q

What is the role of suppressor t cells?

A

Dampen the cytotoxic t cell activity

76
Q

What could the failure of suppressor t cells lead to?

A

Autoimmune diseases

77
Q

What do Activated B cells differentiate into?

A

Immunoglobulin secreting plasma cells

78
Q

Are the antigen-binding sites specific?

A

Yes, they bind to the same receptor that propagated them

79
Q

What is different between antibodies?

A

Variable portion

80
Q

What are the five classes of antibodies?

A

IgM
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE

81
Q

What is complement?

A

A collection of proteins that lie dormant in plasma until it is activated by one another

82
Q

What will the antigen-antibody complex activate?

A

C, protein involved in the complement system

83
Q

What is opsonisation?

A

Tagging of pathogen for phagocytosis

84
Q

How is complement involved with the immune response?

A

They recruit WBCs to respond

85
Q

What do memory cells do?

A

Plasma B cells or functional T cells that circulate in blood and lymphoid tissue as dormant cells
Subsequent exposure to the same antigen causes a more rapid and potent response

86
Q

What are memory B cells converted to in subsequent exposure?

A

Plasma cells

87
Q

What are memory T cells converted to in subsequent exposures?

A

Helper, cytotoxic, and suppressor T cells

88
Q

What are memory cells the basis of?

A

Immunisation

89
Q

What are the steps of haemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm
Platelet plug formation
Blood coagulation

90
Q

What is vascular spasm?

A

Constriction of damaged blood vessels

91
Q

What happens during platelet plug formation?

A

Platelets adhere to damaged endothelium to form platelet plug

92
Q

What is blood coagulation?

A

Formation of solid blood clot at site of platelet plug

93
Q

When does vascular constriction occur?

A

Trauma to blood vessels causing contraction of vascular smooth muscle

94
Q

What is a local myogenic contraction?

A

Local contraction of smooth muscle

95
Q

What is a local axon reflex?

A

The releasing of factors locally following pain or sensory receptors singaling near damaged vessel

96
Q

What platelet cell type is also a vasoconstrictor?

A

Thromboxane A

97
Q

Where are platelets produced from?

A

Megakaryocytes - platelets are cell fragments

98
Q

Are nuclei present in platelets?

A

No but residual cell orgaenlles are

99
Q

What is the lifespan of thrombocytes?

A

3-4 weeks

100
Q

What eliminates thrombocytes from the circulatory system?

A

Macrophages

101
Q

What is the role of platelets?

A

Adhere to exposed collagen fibres of damaged vessel walls and form a platelet plug

102
Q

What plasma protein factor in thrombocytes triggers aggregation and adherence?

A

von Willebrand factor

103
Q

What secondary factors trigger further aggregation/adherence of platelets?

A

The release of ADP and thromboxane A2 from the structural changes of other thrombocytes

104
Q

What kind of reaction forms a stable fibrin clot?

A

Cascade reaction

105
Q

What activates the cascade reaction of thrombocytes?

A

Inactive coagulation factors

106
Q

What are the two pathways for the formation of a blood clot?

A

Extrinsic pathway and intrinsic pathway

107
Q

What activates the extrinsic pathway?

A

Vessel/tissue trauma

108
Q

What initiates the intrinsic pathway?

A

Blood factors

109
Q

What is the result of the cascade reaction of thrombocytes?

A

Stable fibrin clot

110
Q

What is the final step in clot formation?

A

The proteolytic conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin

111
Q

What does thrombin do?

A

Activates factor XIII which makes fibrin more rigid

112
Q

What vitamin is involved in the coagulation cascade?

A

Vitamin K

113
Q

What does the vitamin involved in the coagulation cascade do?

A

Vitamin K synthesises some clotting factors including prothrombin

114
Q

What synthesises vitamin K in the intestinal tract?

A

Bacteria

115
Q

What causes a vitamin K defiency?

A

Obstruction of bile ducts and/or liver disease

116
Q

When is vitamin K usually administered to a patient?

A

Newborn as they have only half the adult clotting factors

117
Q

What prevents contact activation of the intrinsic pathway?

A

Layer of glycocalyx
Thrombomodulin removes thrombin from plasma

118
Q

What can the incorrect or over-activation of the intrinsic pathway lead to?

A

Clot formation occurring within blood in absence of damage
Can lead to myocardial infraction or stroke

119
Q

What absorbs the majority of the thrombin?

A

The clot itself (fibrin)

120
Q

What removes the remaining thrombin?

A

Antithrombin III

121
Q

What is heparin’s function?

A

Endogenous protein that acts as an agonist of antithrombin II activity

122
Q

What is heparin’s clinical usage?

A

Pharmacological anti-clotting factor

123
Q

What is a better way to describe “blood-thinners”?

A

Anti-platelet drugs

124
Q

Name 3 blood thinners

A

Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)
Prostacyclin
Dipyridamole

125
Q

How does Acetylsalicylic acid work?

A

Blocks the production of thromboxane by inhibiting cyclooxygenase, inhibiting platelet aggregation in low doses over a long period of time

126
Q

How does prostacyclin work?

A

Binds prostacyclin receptor on platelets, increases cAMP concentration, blocks the increase in calcium concentration caused by thromboxane receptor, blocking platelet aggregation

127
Q

How does dipyridamole work?

A

Inhibits thromboxane synthase and phosphodiesterase which degrades cAMP, blocking platelet adherence