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PE > Whiddett > Flashcards

Whiddett Flashcards

1
Q

newtons 1st law (inertia)

A

A body at rest will remain stationary or at a constant velocity till acted upon by an external force

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2
Q

newtons second law (acceleration)

A

The acceleration of a body is proportional to the size of the force applied and takes place in the direction in which the force acts

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3
Q

newtons third law (reaction)

A

for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

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4
Q

Friction (definition)

A

the force opposing the sliding action of one surface over another

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5
Q

factors affecting friction (4 points)

A
  • roughness of surface one
  • roughness of surface two
  • temperature
  • weight
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6
Q

air resistance (definition)

A

the force acting to oppose the motion of a body through air

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7
Q

factors affecting air resistance (3 points)

A
  • velocity
  • frontal cross-sectional area
  • streamlining and shape
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8
Q

centre of mass (definition)

A

the point at which a body is balanced in all directions

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9
Q

factors affecting centre of mass (2 points)

A
  • shape (uniform and non uniform)
  • density of different parts of the body (male, female)
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10
Q

how to increase stability (4 points)

A
  • low centre of mass
  • line of gravity in the middle of the base of support
  • large base of support
  • large mass
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11
Q

1st class lever example

A

jab in boxing

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12
Q

2nd class lever example

A

calf raise

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13
Q

3rd class lever example

A

bicep curl

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14
Q

limb kinematics definition

A

the study of the movements of limbs in space, and the time taken to carry out the movements

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15
Q

limb kinematics description

A

reflective markers are placed on performers bony landmarks and are filmed using video cameras

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16
Q

advantages of limb kinematics (4 points)

A
  • data immediately available and accurate
  • coaches can use the data to make changes to technique
  • can examine the cause of common injury which can be prevented with changing technique.
  • sees the impact of equipment on technique: helps with choosing appropriate equipment.
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17
Q

disadvantages of Limb Kinematics (3 points)

A
  • equipment is expensive
  • lab conditions make some techniques hard to perform due to lack of space
  • results dont take into account individual differences
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18
Q

force plates definition

A

a platform that measures all of the forces applied when a performer stands, steps across or jumps on it.

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19
Q

force plates description

A

platform measures the ground reaction forces that the performer generates. this can be either vertical or horizontal forces.

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20
Q

advantages of force plates (3 points)

A
  • fast and accurate results
  • analysis of walking and take off/landing technique can be used to identify improvements
  • results useful (with limb kinematics) to design conditioning programme.
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21
Q

disadvantages of force plates (2 points)

A
  • equipment is expensive
  • lab conditions make some techniques harder to perform e.g. high jump
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22
Q

wind tunnels definition

A

a chamber through which air is forced

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23
Q

wind tunnels description

A

the object/performer is placed in the tunnel. a controlled flow of air is forced through the tunnel. airflow around the object is studdied to measure resistance around it.

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24
Q

advantages of wind tunnels

A
  • equipment/technique can be adapted to improve the aerodynamic properties, reduce the effect of air resistance and performance.
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25
Q

disadvantages of wind tunnels (2 points)

A
  • equipment is expensive and usually located in engineering facilities
  • real life conditions may impact unexpectedly, so results are not always reliable
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26
Q

linear motion definition

A

motion in a (straight or curved) line with all body parts moving at the same speed, time and in the same direction.

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27
Q

linear motion is created by

A

a direct force applied through the centre of mass

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28
Q

distance definition and units

A

the length of the path taken by a body moving from one position to another. measured in meters

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29
Q

example of distance

A

100m race = 100m distance

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30
Q

displacement definition and units

A

the shortest straight line from start to finish. measured in meters

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31
Q

example of displacement

A

100m swimming race = 0m displacement

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32
Q

definition of speed and units

A

the movement of a body per unit of time. measured in m/s

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33
Q

equation for speed

A

speed = distance ÷ time

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34
Q

definition of velocity and units

A

the rate of change of displacement/speed in a given direction. measured in m/s

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35
Q

equation for velocity

A

velocity = displacement ÷ time

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36
Q

acceleration/deceleration definition and units

A

the rate of change of velocity. measured in m/s2(squared)

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37
Q

equation for acceleration/deceleration

A

change in velocity ÷ time

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38
Q

Horizontal line (distance/time graph)

A

stationary

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39
Q

straight line with positive gradient (distance/time graph)

A

constant speed

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40
Q

curved line with decreasing gradient (distance/time graph)

A

decelerating over time

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41
Q

curved line with increasing gradient (distance/time graph)

A

accelerating over time

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42
Q

horizontal line (speed/time graph)

A

constant speed, higher line = faster

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43
Q

straight line with positive gradient (speed/time graph)

A

acceleration, steeper gradient = faster acceleration

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44
Q

curved line with decreasing gradient (speed/time graph)

A

accelerating to a constant speed

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45
Q

line with negative gradient (speed/time graph)

A

deceleration

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46
Q

horizontal line (velocity time graph)

A

constant speed e.g. F1 car on a straight

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47
Q

curved line with decreasing gradient (velocity time graph)

A

accelerating to constant speed e.g. F1 car

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48
Q

straight line with positive gradient (velocity time graph)

A

acceleration

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49
Q

line with negative gradient that goes under the x axis (velocity time graph)

A

decelerating to stopped, then going back on yourself e.g. 100m swimmer

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50
Q

horizontal velocity (positive and negative meanings)

A

positive = in initial direction
negative = once change in direction has occurred

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51
Q

vertical velocity

A

positive = upwards
negative = down

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52
Q

angular motion definiton

A

when a body (or part of a body) moves in a circle or part of a circle about an axis of rotation

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53
Q

axis of rotation definition

A

an imaginary line about which a body or body part turns

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54
Q

longitudinal axis (3 points)

A
  • head to toe
  • twisting action
  • transverse plane
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55
Q

frontal axis (3 points)

A
  • front to back
  • cartwheel action
  • frontal plane
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56
Q

transverse axis (3 points)

A
  • left to right
  • forwards roll action
  • sagital plane
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57
Q

how is angular motion created

A

an eccentric force which passes outside the centre of mass or axis

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58
Q

moment of inertia definition

A

reluctance to change its state of angular momentum or rotation

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59
Q

angular momentum definition

A

the amount of angular motion of a rotating body

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60
Q

angular velocity

A

the rate of spin in a particular direction

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61
Q

factors affecting the moment of inertia (2 points)

A
  • Mass
  • distribution of mass about the axis of rotation
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62
Q

angular analogue of newtons first law

A

an object will continue to rotate with constant angular momentum unless acted upon by an external torque

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63
Q

definition of a projectile

A

a body that is moving within a fluid (water or air), not in contact with the ground

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64
Q

factors affecting a projectiles distance (3 points)

A
  • Height of release
  • speed of release
  • angle of release
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65
Q

ergogenic aid definition

A

a technique or substance used to enhance performance or recovery e.g. altitude training & steroids

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66
Q

pharmacological aid definition

A

increase the levels of hormones naturally produced by the body e.g. EPO

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67
Q

physiological aid definition

A

a technique influencing the physiological capacity of a particular body system e.g. blood doping & cooling aids

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68
Q

nutritional aids definition

A

a supplement, food or drink e.g. hydration

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69
Q

isotonic drinks advantages (3 points)

A
  • replaces fluids lost by sweating
  • boosts carbohydrates
  • good for endurance events and team sports
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70
Q

isotonic drinks disadvantage

A

absorbed slower than hypotonic drinks

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71
Q

isotonic drink example

A

Lucozade sport

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72
Q

hypertonic drink advantages (2 points)

A
  • replenishes glycogen stores after exercise
  • good for post performance ultra endurance events
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73
Q

hypertonic drink disadvantages (2 points)

A
  • not suitable during exercise, pulls water into digestive system
  • absorbed very slowly
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74
Q

hypertonic drink example

A

Lucozade energy

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75
Q

hypotonic drink advantages (3 points)

A
  • absorb very quickly
  • good for hydration without carb boost
  • good for dancers
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76
Q

hypotonic drink disadvantages

A

no carbs = not good on its own during long events

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77
Q

hypotonic drink example

A

water

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78
Q

benefits of hydration (4 points)

A
  • regulate body temperature
  • regulate HR
  • maintain blood volume
  • avoid dehydration
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79
Q

risks of dehydration (5 points)

A
  • increased blood viscosity
  • decrease blood flow
  • increase lactic acid production
  • early OBLA
  • increased body temp
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80
Q

diet makeup (e.g.% of fats…)

A

fats = 25-30%
carbohydrates = 55-60%
protein = 15-20%

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81
Q

function of minerals (2 points)

A
  • Iron: Hb (blood production)
  • Calcium: bone growth
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82
Q

function of vitamins (2 points)

A
  • Vit C for immunity (colds)
  • for general health
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83
Q

fibre (2 points)

A
  • digestion
  • regularity of stool
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84
Q

water (2 points)

A
  • maintain hydration
  • blood plasma
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85
Q

OBLA

A

Onset Blood Lactate Accumulation

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86
Q

effects of OBLA (4 points)

A
  • lower blood PH
  • inhibition of enzyme action
  • stimulation of pain receptors
  • muscle fatigue
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87
Q

Describe ATP-PC system (3 points)

A
  • ATP is broken down by AtPase leaving ADP and energy
  • Creatine kinase breaks down P-C leaving phosphate molecule
  • P joins with ADP to form ATP giving off energy
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88
Q

pros of ATP-PC system (2 points)

A
  • last up to 10 seconds
  • PC readily available
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89
Q

cons of the ATP-PC system (3 points)

A
  • Low yield of ATP (2)
  • limited stores of PC
  • Only lasts for up to 10 seconds
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90
Q

Aerobic energy system

A

Aerobic glycolysis:
- Glycogen is broken down by glycogen phosphorylase forming glucose
- glucose is broken down by PFK forming Pyruvic acid + energy +2 ATP
- (Pyruvic acid + energy +2 ATP) + Coenzyme A forms Acetyle CoA

Krebs Cycle:
- Acetyle CoA + Oxaloacetic acid = Citric acid
- Citric acid enters the krebs cycle and releases 2 ATP, H2 and CO2.
- Oxaloacetic acid is regenerated

ETC:
- H + NAD & FAD = NADH & FADH
- H splits in the Cristae of the mitochondria releasing 34ATP andH2O

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91
Q

pros of aerobic energy system (3 points)

A
  • large supplies of glucose, glycogen and fats available so can work for long periods of time
  • high ATP yield (1:38 ratio ATP)
  • No fatiguing by products
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92
Q

cons of aerobic energy system (3 points)

A
  • Aerobic delay for O2 (3 min)
  • Not good for max intensity
  • takes approximately 20 mins for enough O2 to break down fats
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93
Q

Glycolytic energy system (3 points)

A
  • Glycogen is broken down by Glycogen phosphorylase forming glucose
  • glucose is broken down by PFK to form pyruvic acid + 2ATP + energy
  • Pyruvic acid + energy +2 ATP is broken down by LDH to form Lactic acid due to lack of O2.
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94
Q

pros of Glycolytic energy system (4 points)

A
  • large glycogen stores
  • 1:2 glycogen:ATP
  • No O2 delay
  • good for intense work
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95
Q

cons of Glycolytic energy system (4 points)

A
  • slower than ATP-PC
  • Produces lactic acid
  • stimulates pain receptors
  • Causes OBLA
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96
Q

Draw EPOC graphs

A

sadly no photo so look it up

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97
Q

features of Alactacid component (fast) (5 points)

A
  • takes 4L of O2 (extra)
  • Full recovery takes 2-3 mins
  • 50% of PC stores replenished in first 30 seconds
  • replenishment of ATP and PC stores
  • Restoration of myoglobin and haemoglobin with O2
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98
Q

features of Lactacid component (slow) (4 points)

A
  • Takes 5-8 L of O2
  • 1-24 hours for full recovery (depends on intensity)
  • increase in HR, VR, TV, Q… all remain elevated
  • converts lactic acid into: H2O, CO2, Protein and glycogen
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99
Q

the recovery process: CO2 removal (3 points)

A
  • at the end of exercise CO2 levels are high
  • CO2 is carried in blood when it combines with haemoglobin and then dissolves in plasma and water
  • chemoreceptors detect the increase in CO2 and tell the CCC & RCC to keep ventilation and circulation elevated
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100
Q

the recover process: Glycogen replenishment (4 points)

A
  • At the end of exercise glycogen stores have depleted because glycogen has been broken down for ATP resynthesis
  • cori cycle will replenish a bit but a carb rich meal is vital
  • optimum time = carb window
  • alternate to a meal would be a hypertonic drink
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101
Q

techniques to speed up recovery (6 points)

A
  • ice baths
  • active recovery
  • gels, powders, shakes
  • compression wear
  • rehydration
  • sleep
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102
Q

energy intake

A

the total calories consumed in food and drink

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103
Q

energy expenditure

A

total calories used

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104
Q

daily energy expenditure calculation

A

BMR + physical activity + thermic effect

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105
Q

energy balance

A

the relationship between EE & EI

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106
Q

BMR

A

the lowest amount of calories needed to stay alive after 8 hours sleep and 12 hours fasting.

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107
Q

RMR

A

same as BMR but no 8 hours sleep and no 12 hours fasting

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108
Q

daily RMR

A

weight in kg x 22

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109
Q

MET

A

a physiological measure of EE during physical activity

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110
Q

thermic effect

A

calories used in the process of eating/digesting and absorbing food

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111
Q

aerobic capacity definition

A

the ability of the body to inspire, transport and utilise O2 to perform a sustained period of aerobic activity

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112
Q

VO2 max definition

A

the maximum volume of O2 inspired, transported and utilised per minute during exhaustive activity.

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113
Q

factor affecting VO2 max (IPM)

A

Individual physiological makeup
- more efficient cardiovascular and respiratory systems therefore increased VO2 max

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114
Q

factor affecting VO2 max (T)

A

Training
-Aerobic training = increased VO2 max by 10-20%

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115
Q

factor affecting VO2 max (A)

A

Age
- VO2 max peaks at 20 years then declines by 1% a year

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116
Q

factor affecting VO2 max (G)

A

gender
- males = higher VO2 max by 15-30%

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117
Q

direct gas analysis (4 points)

A
  • athlete performs continuous, progressive exercise till exhaustion
  • expired air is captured by a mask with a tube connected to flow meter and gas analyser
  • concentrations of Co2 and O2 inspired and expired are graphed against intensity
  • VO2 max can be calculated after
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118
Q

pros of Direct gas analysis (5 points)

A
  • Direct measurement of VO2 max
  • accurate and reliable
  • can perform on multiple exercises
  • can compare against averages
  • sport specific
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119
Q

cons of Direct gas analysis (3 points)

A
  • maximal test to exhaustion therefore cannot be used by elderly or those with health issues
  • access to specialist equipment is required and is expensive
  • not sport specific to all sports
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120
Q

multistage fitness test (4 points)

A
  • a continuous submaximal test
  • 20m shuttle runs
  • increase in intensity
  • measures aerobic power
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121
Q

pros of multistage fitness test (4 points)

A
  • simple and easy to set up
  • free
  • instant results
  • can compare to national average and future/past results
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122
Q

cons of multistage fitness test (4 points)

A
  • due to continuous nature, may lack specificity to intermittent endurance sports such as football
  • regulating test with large group may be difficult
  • test familiarity may impact scores
  • individuals may step off early depending on effort
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123
Q

12 minute cooper run (4 points)

A
  • continuous running to achieve a max distance within 12 mins
  • usually performed on a 400m running track with cones at intervals
  • at the end of 12 minutes total distance is recorded
  • maximum intensity test that predicts VO2 max
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124
Q

pros of 12 minute cooper run (4 points)

A
  • large groups can perform the test simultaneously
  • a subject can administer their own test
  • cheap and simple
  • can calculate VO2 max
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125
Q

cons of 12 minute cooper run (5 points)

A
  • VO2 max is only a prediction
  • exhaustion is limited by motivation
  • cant be used by elderly and health conditions
  • not spot specific
  • test familiarity may impact results
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126
Q

queens college step test (5 points)

A
  • 3 minutes long
  • step = 41.2 cm high
  • males = 24 steps/min
  • females = 22 steps/min
  • record HR 5 seconds after test finished for 15 seconds
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127
Q

pros of queens college step test (4 points)

A
  • sub max test
  • can be done by anyone
  • simple and cheap
  • HR easy to monitor
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128
Q

cons of queens college step test (4 points)

A
  • VO2 max only a prediction
  • HR recovery will vary depending on prior food and fluid intake
  • not sport specific
  • height may impact performer
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129
Q

target HR for warmup

A

50-60%

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130
Q

target HR for fat burning

A

60-70%

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131
Q

target HR for aerobic benefits

A

70-80%

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132
Q

target HR for anaerobic benefits

A

80-90%

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133
Q

target HR for VO2 max

A

90-100%

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134
Q

why use target HR intensities to guide training? (5 points)

A
  • HR is a good indicator of work intensity
  • different training zones target different benefits
  • if a performer works below their target HR, no adaptations will occur/no training benefit
  • if a performer works above their target HR, anaerobic benefits may occur/may fatigue quickly
  • highly trained performers will work at the upper end of zones
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135
Q

continuous training description (3 points)

A
  • long periods of moderate work without rest
  • 60-80% HR
  • 20-80 minutes
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136
Q

Fartlek training description (2 points)

A
  • A type of continuous training
  • well suited to games players as it mimes changes in intensity by varying pace, terrain, incline…
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137
Q

HIIT description (6 points)

A
  • repeated periods of short duration, high intensity work mixed with periods of recovery
  • work intensity = 90%+ of HR
  • recovery intensity = 45-50% of HR
  • work duration = 15-20 seconds
  • recovery duration = work:rest 1:1 or 2:1
  • 5 to 10 mins
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138
Q

physiological adaptations of HITT: cardiovascular system (2 points)

A
  1. increase in red blood cells
  2. hypertrophy of heart
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139
Q

physiological adaptations of HITT: respiratory (2 points)

A
  1. increase strength of respiratory muscles
  2. increased surface area of alveoli
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140
Q

physiological adaptations of HITT: muscular (2 points)

A
  1. increased size and number of mitochondria
  2. increased fast oxidative muscle fibres & increased aerobic capacity
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141
Q

physiological adaptations of HITT: metabolic (2 points)

A
  1. Increased RMR
  2. increased aerobic enzyme action
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142
Q

factor affecting strength (CSA)

A

Cross sectional area
- the greater the CSA of the muscle = increased strength

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143
Q

factor affecting strength (FT)

A

Fibre type
- the greater the % of fast glycolytic and oxidative = increased strength

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144
Q

factor affecting strength (G)

A

Gender
- Males = higher (average) strength than females

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145
Q

factor affecting strength (A)

A

Age
- men strongest in their 20s
- women strongest at 18

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146
Q

static strength definition

A

the ability to apply force to overcome a resistance without any movement occurring e.g. holding a plank

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147
Q

dynamic strength definition

A

the ability to apply force to overcome a resistance where movement occurs e.g. squat

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148
Q

maximum strength definition

A

the ability to produce a maximum amount of force in a singular muscular contraction e.g. knock out punch

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149
Q

explosive/elastic strength definition

A

the ability to produce a maximal amount of force over a series of rapid muscular contractions e.g. triple jump

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150
Q

strength endurance

A

the ability to sustain repeated muscular contractions over a period of time e.g. rowing

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151
Q

abdominal curl test (4 points)

A
  • knees bent, feet on floor
  • continuous sit ups at progressive intensity to exhaustion
  • each sit up is times to an audio que
  • test is over when two are failed in a row
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152
Q

pros of abdominal curl test (4 points)

A
  • valid and reliable
  • large groups can perform at same time
  • isolate abdominals
  • cheap and simple
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153
Q

cons of abdominal curl test (3 points)

A
  • not sport specific
  • test to exhaustion, not suitable for all
  • good technique essential
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154
Q

the vertical jump test (4 points)

A
  • mark height on wall with arm raised and feet flat
  • mark highest point at top of jump
  • measure difference and compare to standardised table
  • best 3 jumps recorded
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155
Q

pros of vertical jump test (3 points)

A
  • simple + quick to do
  • using a formula, the data can be used to estimate power output
  • test can be administered by the participant
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156
Q

cons of vertical jump test (3 points)

A
  • doesn’t isolate one muscle group
  • only estimates explosive leg strength
  • technique plays a large part
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157
Q

grip dynamometer test (5 points)

A
  • adjust the grip for participants hand size
  • participant zeroes dial and holds above their head
  • arm is brought down as they squeeze the grip maximally
  • attempt 3 times and swap hand
  • compare results with standardised table
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158
Q

pros to grip dynamometer test (4 points)

A
  • low cost
  • very reliable
  • simple
  • can be done anywhere
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159
Q

cons to grip dynamometer test (3 points)

A
  • only testing forearm muscles strength
  • not sport specific
  • specialist equipment needed
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160
Q

one rep max (3 points)

A
  • select a free weight lift
  • increase weight till only 1 rep is achievable
  • 3 minutes rest in between attempts
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161
Q

pros of one rep max (3 points)

A
  • gives a measure of max strength
  • easy procedure on accessible equipment
  • can test most muscle groups
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162
Q

cons of one rep max (3 points)

A
  • difficult to isolate individual muscles
  • trial and error may prompt early fatigue
  • good technique is essential - avoid injury
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163
Q

multigym

A

a piece of equipment with a range of stations and adjustable weight stack

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164
Q

weights (2 points)

A
  • free weights using dumbbells or barbells can be used to work specific muscle groups
  • other muscles can also work as fixators to stabilise the movement
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165
Q

plyometrics (2 points)

A
  • training involving bounding, jumping… this takes advantages of stretch reflex
  • an eccentric contraction occurs first which causes a more forceful concentric contraction to follow
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166
Q

circuit training (3 points)

A
  • periods of work on a series of exercise stations, followed by a relief interval where muscles recover
  • this recovery may occur whilst a different muscle group is being worked
  • can include free weights and body weight exercises, and usually targets strength endurance
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167
Q

strength training: physiological adaptation (MM&CT) (3 points)

A

muscle mass and connective tissues
- muscle hypertrophy
- muscle hyperplasia
- ligament and tendon strength increase

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168
Q

strength training: physiological adaptation (N) (2 points)

A

Neural
- increased recruitment of motor units containing fast glycolytic and fast oxidative muscle fibres
- force of contraction against due to stretch reflex being delayed

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169
Q

strength training: physiological adaptation (M) (3 points)

A

Metabolic
- increased anaerobic fuel stores
- increased anaerobic enzyme activity
- increased buffering capacity of lactic acid

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170
Q

flexibility definition

A

the range of motion around a joint or series of joints

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171
Q

static flexibility definition

A

the range of movement at a joint in a still position

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172
Q

static acute flexibility

A

when a performer themselves moves a joint to the point of resistance

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173
Q

static passive flexibility

A

when the joint is moves to the point of resistance with assistance

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174
Q

dynamic flexibility

A

the range of motion at the joint moving at speed

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175
Q

factor affecting ROM (TOJ)

A

Type of joint
- ball and socket = 3 planes
- hinge = 1

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176
Q

factor affecting ROM (LOSCT)

A

Length of surrounding connective tissue
- longer = greater ROM

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177
Q

factor affecting ROM (A)

A

Age
- flexibility decreases with age

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178
Q

factor affecting ROM (G)

A

gender
- females have more relaxin and oestrogen so more flexible

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179
Q

sit and reach test (static) (4 points)

A
  • no shoes
  • straight legs
  • lean as far forwards as possible
  • hold for two seconds
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180
Q

pros of sit and reach test (3 points)

A
  • cheap
  • easy to do
  • standardised table to compare to
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181
Q

cons of sit and reach test (3 points)

A
  • only measures lower body flexibility
  • performer must warm up and not use as a dynamic stretch
  • other joints cant be measured
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182
Q

Goniometry (3 points)

A
  • a double armed angle ruler
  • measured in degrees
  • from a neutral start position to full ROM at specific joint
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183
Q

pros of Goniometry (2 points)

A
  • can be used at any joint in any place
  • as long as technique is correct, results are accurate and joint specific
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184
Q

cons of Goniometry (2 points)

A
  • can be difficult to locate joint
  • test is invalid and unreliable if done incorrectly
185
Q

active stretching (2 points)

A
  • beginner
  • position is held for 10 seconds without assistance
186
Q

passive stretching (2 points)

A
  • taking a joint past point of resistance with assistance from partner or stretching aid
  • held for 30 seconds
187
Q

isometric stretching (4 points)

A
  • a passive stretch is performed
  • the stretched muscle undergoes an isometric contraction for 10 seconds
  • resistance needed to ensure no movement takes place
  • muscle then relaxed for 20 seconds
188
Q

PNF stretching

A
  • Assisted flexibility training using passive and isometric techniques to inhibit the stretch reflex and allow a greater ROM
    step 1. passive stretch
    step 2. agonist isometrically contracts
    step 3. relax and repeat the passive stretch
189
Q

dynamic stretching

A

using controlled movement, bounce or swinging motion to take a joint to the limit of its ROM

190
Q

advantages of dynamic stretching

A

increased speed of contraction, makes it useful in a warm up for explosive performance

191
Q

ballistic stretching

A

flexibility training method incorporating vigorous swinging or bouncing movements

192
Q

advantages of ballistic stretching (2 points)

A
  • sport specific
  • brings adaptations quickly
193
Q

disadvantages of ballistic stretching (2 points)

A
  • can lead to injury is performer isn’t flexible as it repeatedly activates stretch reflex
  • can lead to muscle tears
194
Q

causes of injury (4 points)

A
  • impact
  • overtraining
  • inaccurate technique
  • lack of preparation
195
Q

how to prevent injury’s (3 points)

A
  • warm up/cool down
  • wear appropriate footwear/clothing
  • physio
196
Q

signs of injury (4 points)

A
  • blood
  • swelling
  • dislocation
  • discolouration
197
Q

symptoms of injury (3 points)

A
  • pain/discomfort
  • nausea
  • inability to move joint
198
Q

acute injury (2 points)

A
  • sudden impact
  • e.g. broken arm
199
Q

chronic injury (3 points)

A
  • over time
  • continuous
  • e.g. tennis elbow
200
Q

concussion (4 points)

A
  • brain injury
  • knock to the head
  • acute
  • soft tissue
    e.g. punch to the head
201
Q

Hard tissue

A

bone

202
Q

soft tissue

A

muscle, ligament, tendon

203
Q

hard tissue injury’s

A

broken bone, dislocation, fracture (acute)

204
Q

soft tissue injury’s

A
  • sprained ankle
  • torn hamstring
    (acute or chronic)
205
Q

what does SALTAPS stand for

A

See what happened
Ask what happened
Look
Touch the area
Active movement
Passive movement
Strength

206
Q

SALTAPS: S (first one) (2 points)

A

See
- therapist may have seen the injury occur
- e.g. player rolling their ankle on a pitch

207
Q

SALTAPS: A (first one) (3 points)

A

Ask
- clarify the cause of the injury
- Ask the athlete questions to get more details on the area of pain
- e.g. “talk me through what happened”

208
Q

SALTAPS: L (4 points)

A

Look
- look at the area of pain and area around it
- check for signs of acute injury
- compare to other side of the body
- e.g. swelling on one side and not the other

209
Q

SALTAPS: t (2 points)

A

Touch
- touch gently all areas around the injured joint
- touch injured area last. if touched first it may create positive pain response to other areas.

210
Q

SALTAPS: A (second one) (2 points)

A

Active movement
- athlete moves the joint
- assess the ROM around the joint

211
Q

SALTAPS: P (3 points)

A

Passive movement
- therapist moves the joint
- assess the ROM around the injured joint
- Compare ROM to other side

212
Q

SALTAPS: S (last one) (3 points)

A

Strength
- assess for strength of injured limb in mid range of movement
- use isometric muscle strength testing
- keep an eye on athletes face for pain response

213
Q

what does PRICE stand for

A

Protection
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation

214
Q

PRICE: P (2 points)

A

Protection
- to prevent further injury
- e.g. sling or boot

215
Q

PRICE: R (3 points)

A

Recovery
- promote recovery
- sometimes gentle movements can speed up recovery
- avoid movements that aggravate the pain

216
Q

PRICE: I

A

Ice
- reduces swelling/pain

217
Q

PRICE: c (2 points)

A

Compression
- apply force/bandage just below injury but not too tight
- decrease swelling

218
Q

PRICE: E (3 points)

A

Elevation
- Above the heart to decrease blood flow to area
- reduce blood pooling
- this controls swelling which helps decrease pain

219
Q

6R’s responding to injury

A

Recognise
Remove
Refer
Rest
Recover
Return

220
Q

6R’s: first one

A

Recognise
- learn the signs and symptoms of a concussion so you understand when an athlete might have a concussion

221
Q

6R’s: second one

A

Remove
- if an athlete has a concussion or even a suspected concussion he or she must be removed from play

222
Q

6R’s: third one

A

Refer
- once removed from play the player should be referred immediately to a qualified healthcare specialist

223
Q

6R’s: fourth one

A

Rest
- players must rest from exercise until symptom free and then start a gradual return to play (GRTP)

224
Q

6R’s: Fifth one

A

Recover
- full recovery from the concussion is required before return
- includes no symptoms

225
Q

6R’s: sixth one

A

Return
- in order for safe return, athlete must be symptom free and cleared in writing from qualified healthcare professional trained in evaluating concussions

226
Q

Exercise induced muscle damage definition

A

Pain experienced after intense exercise due to microscopic tears in the muscle fibres that cause swelling

227
Q

what is another name for DOMS

A

Exercise induced muscle damage

228
Q

what is exercise induced muscle damage caused by

A

Eccentric muscle contractions

229
Q

symptoms of exercise induced muscle damage (2 points)

A
  • soreness
  • stiffness
230
Q

treatment for exercise induced muscle damage

A
  • usually disappears by 5-7 days
  • relatively mild inflammation so doesn’t need anti-inflammatory drugs
231
Q

factors that reduce exercise induced muscle damage (5 points)

A
  • cool down
  • massage
  • active, non weight-bearing exercise
  • hydrotherapy
  • Heat, cold, contrast therapy
232
Q

benefits of stretching for rehabilitation (4 points)

A
  • increases flexibility
  • increases muscle relaxation
  • decreases muscle soreness
  • improves circulation
233
Q

precautions of stretching for rehabilitation (2 points)

A
  • don’t use stretching during the acute inflammatory phase
  • Take care with dynamic stretching due to risk of overstretching
234
Q

recommendations with stretching for rehabilitation (3 points)

A
  • Proceed stretching with an adequate warm up
  • Heat can be applied to the area before stretching but can take care net to overstretch
  • stretching should always be pain free
235
Q

definition of a massage

A

a manual therapy used in the assessment, treatment and management of soft tissue injury and pain.

236
Q

definition of lymphatic drainage

A

the carrying of waste products away from the tissues towards the heart.

237
Q

benefits of massages (7 points)

A
  • realigns deeper layers of connective tissue
  • reduced muscle pain
  • breaks down scar tissue
  • improves circulation and blood supply to area
  • improves lymphatic draining to decrease swelling
  • increases the rate of removal of harmful bi-products
  • increase the range of motion and flexibility.
238
Q

Massage: inflammatory phase (3 points)

A
  • dont apply in first 48 hours due to risk of increased damage
  • can be used once inflammation has subsided
  • can use gentle to moderate pressure
239
Q

Massage: Repair phase (3 points)

A
  • can assist in healing processes
  • can align the new fibres that are forming as scar tissue
  • use moderate pressure and massage along line of the tissue.
240
Q

Massage: remodelling phase (4 points)

A
  • can promote healing
  • can increase blood flow
  • can help align new fibres
  • firm pressure and massage across line of tissue and along it.
241
Q

Rehabilitation: advantages of heat (2 points)

A
  • increase treatment of soft tissue injury’s and provides pain relief
  • vasodilation of blood vessels, increasing blood flow to injured site
242
Q

Rehabilitation: disadvantages of heat (2 points)

A
  • increases bleeding and swelling if applied within 24 hours of injury
  • risk of burns
243
Q

how to use heat in rehabilitation of injury’s

A

apply for 15 minutes then rest for 5

244
Q

Rehabilitation: advantages of cold (2 points)

A
  • provides analgesia and decreases swelling
  • vasoconstriction of blood vessels
245
Q

Rehabilitation: disadvantages of cold

A
  • ice burns and superficial nerve damage
246
Q

how to use cold in rehabilitation of injury’s

A

apply for 10-15 minutes

247
Q

advantages of contrast therapy (3 points)

A
  • decreases swelling and provides pain relief
  • increased blood flow to injured site during heat part
  • good for stress fractures, dislocations, sprains and DOMS
248
Q

disadvantages of contrast therapy (2 points)

A
  • increased risk of bleeding is used within 24 hours of injury
  • risk of burns
249
Q

advantages of Arthroscopic surgery (3 points)

A
  • only small cuts to skin and less pain
  • faster healing tie and less risk of infection
  • can go home the same day as surgery
250
Q

advantages of physiotherapy (4 points)

A
  • helps restore movement post injury and can prevent injury’s
  • forms part of prehab and rehab
  • takes a whole person approach and is individual to athlete
  • provided by specially trained physios
251
Q

Arthroscopic surgery (3 points)

A
  • used to treat joint injury’s
  • surgeon will look at surfaces of bones and surrounding ligaments
  • surgeon can treat torn cartilage by removal and sprained ligaments by repairing or reconstructing
252
Q

what is surgery used for (3 points)

A
  • removal of damaged tissue
  • reconstruction of damaged tissue
  • realignment of damaged tissue
253
Q

treatments available from a physio (6 points)

A
  • PRICE
  • massage
  • hot
  • cold
  • contrast
  • acupuncture
254
Q

open surgery (3 points)

A
  • used to treat bone fractures and joint injury’s
  • surgeon will aim to recreate the pre injury anatomy by repairing damaged tissue
  • surgeon can treat an unstable fracture by placing a metal plate, rod or pins in bone and can treat sprained ligaments
255
Q

benefits of anti inflammatory drugs (4 points)

A
  • buy over counter
  • reduces pain
  • reduces swelling
  • can use for any injury
256
Q

risks of anti inflammatory drugs (3 points)

A
  • can inhibit natural healing
  • could cause further injury’s
  • addictive
257
Q

short term side effects of anti inflammatory drugs (3 points)

A
  • rashes
  • headaches
  • nausea
258
Q

long term side effects of anti inflammatory drugs (2 points)

A
  • increased risk of cardiovascular complications
  • gastrointestinal bleeding
259
Q

definition of a warmup

A

activities performed before an event to prepare the body and mind for strenuous exercise, to minimise the risk of sports injury and to optimise performance

260
Q

how long should a cool down last?

A

30 minutes

261
Q

3 key elements of a warm up

A
  1. pule raising activity
  2. dynamic stretching of major muscle groups
  3. sports specific movement drills
262
Q

2 key elements of a cool down

A
  1. light physical activity to maintain elevated HR
  2. static or PNF stretching
263
Q

Do’s of a warm up (3 points)

A
  • gradually increase intensity
  • use dynamic stretches specific to sport and muscle groups
  • include acceleration, deceleration and change of direction
264
Q

how long should a warm up be

A

30 minutes

265
Q

definition of a cool down

A

activities performed after event to promote recovery from more strenuous exercise and to allow the body to return gradually to its pre exercise state

266
Q

benefits of dynamic stretching: warmup (2 points)

A
  • releases synovial fluid inside joints
  • lengthens connective tissue which increases coordination between antagonistic muscle pairs and improves range of motion.
267
Q

things not to do in a warm up and why

A
  • dont perform static stretching as it decreases contractile strength
268
Q

things not to do in a cool down (1 point)

A
  • expect to alleviate signs of DOMS - this is caused by micro tears in muscles so the damage is already done
269
Q

Do’s of a cool down (3 points)

A
  • cool down effectively and completely
  • decrease the intensity
  • perform the type of exercise that was done in the event
270
Q

benefits of static stretching in a cool down (2 points)

A
  • static or PNF stretching relaxes the muscles fibres
  • decreases tension in the muscle and promotes recovery.
271
Q

Articulating bones: Shoulder

A

scapula and humorous

272
Q

injury prevention: extrinsic risk factors (7 points)

A
  • poor technique
  • playing surface
  • poor training programme
  • other players
  • safety hazards
  • environmental factors
  • incorrect clothing: equipment and footwear
273
Q

Injury prevention : intrinsic risk factors: other individual variables (7)

A
  • leg length difference
  • posture and alignment
  • age
  • injury history
  • training effects
  • nutrition
  • fitness
274
Q

Articulating bones: Elbow

A

Humorous, radius and ulnar

275
Q

Articulating bones: Wrist

A

Radius, ulnar and carpels

276
Q

Articulating bones: Hip

A

Pelvis and femur

277
Q

Articulating bones: Knee

A

Femur and tibia

278
Q

Articulating bones: Ankle

A

Tibia, fibula and talus

279
Q

Type of bone: Femur

A

Long

280
Q

Type of bone: Phalanges

A

short

281
Q

Type of bone: Cranium

A

Flat

282
Q

Type of bone: Vertebrae

A

irregular

283
Q

Type of bone: Patella

A

Sesamoid

284
Q

Ball and socket joints

A

Shoulder and hip

285
Q

Hinge joints

A

elbow, knee, ankle

286
Q

Condyloid joints

A

wrist

287
Q

sagittal plane (3 points)

A
  • divides the body left and right
  • flexion, extension, plantar flexion, dorsi flexion
  • e.g. bicep curl
288
Q

Frontal plane (3 points)

A
  • Divides the body front and back
  • Adduction and abduction
  • e.g. lateral raise
289
Q

transverse plane (3 points)

A
  • divides the body top to bottom
  • horisontal flexion and extension
  • e.g. a spin
290
Q

anterior deltoid causes

A

flexion at the shoulder

291
Q

posterior deltoid causes

A

extension at the shoulder

292
Q

medial deltoid causes

A

abduction at the shoulder

293
Q

latissimus dorsi causes

A

abduction at the shoulder

294
Q

pectoralis major causes

A

horizontal flexion at the shoulder

295
Q

teres minor coauses

A

horizontal extension at the shoulder

296
Q

bicep brachii causes

A

flexion at the elbow

297
Q

tricep brachii causes

A

extension at the elbow

298
Q

wrist flexor causes

A

flexion at the wrist

299
Q

wrist extender causes

A

extension at the wrist

300
Q

iliopsoas causes

A

flexion at the hip

301
Q

gluteus maximus causes

A

extension at the hip

302
Q

Adductor longus causes

A

adduction at the hip

303
Q

gluteus medius causes

A

abduction at the hip

304
Q

bicep femoris causes

A

flexion at the knee

305
Q

rectus femoris causes

A

extension at the knee

306
Q

gastrocnemius causes

A

plantarflexion at the ankle

307
Q

tibilalis anterior

A

dorsiflexion at the ankle

308
Q

structural characteristics of slow oxidative muscle fibres (7 points)

A
  • red
  • small
  • many capillaries
  • high myoglobin concentrate
  • low glycogen stores
  • many mitochondria
  • low PC stores
309
Q

structural characteristics of fast oxidative muscle fibres (7 points)

A
  • pink
  • medium size
  • many capillaries
  • high myoglobin concentrate
  • medium glycogen stores
  • many mitochondria
  • medium PC stores
310
Q

structural characteristics of fast glycolitic muscle fibres (7 points)

A
  • white
  • large
  • very few capillaries
  • low myoglobin concentrate
  • high glycogen stores
  • few mitochondria
  • high PC stores
311
Q

functional characteristics of slow oxidative muscle fibres (6 points)

A
  • low contractile strength
  • slow contractile speed
  • slow rate of fatigue
  • high aerobic capacity
  • low anaerobic capacity
  • best suited to marathon runner
312
Q

functional characteristics of fast oxidative muscle fibres (6 points)

A
  • high contractile strength
  • fast contractile speed
  • medium rate of fatigue
  • medium aerobic capacity
  • medium anaerobic capacity
  • best suited to team sports player
313
Q

functional characteristics of fast glycolytic muscle fibres (6 points)

A
  • high contractile strength
  • fast contractile speed
  • fast rate of fatigue
  • low aerobic capacity
  • high anaerobic capacity
  • best suited to 100m sprinter
314
Q

motor units 5 marker

A
  1. signal gets picked up by dendrites
  2. signal travels down the Axon - Sodium floods the Axon
  3. The signal reaches the neuromuscular junction
  4. Action potential reaches the synapse
  5. The neurotransmitter called Acetylcholine carries the signal across the synapse
  6. this causes a muscular contraction
    (all or none law- if charge below threshold no muscle fibres will contract, if above then they all will)
315
Q

pathway of blood

A

Right atrium
tricuspid valve
right ventricle
pulmonary valve
pulmonary artery
lungs
pulmonary vein
left atrium
bicuspid valve
left ventricle
aortic valve
aorta
rest of body
vena cava

316
Q

conduction system description (5 points)

A
  • impulse initiated by the SA node
  • the impulse travels across both atria
  • the impulse then goes to the AV node
  • it then travels down the bundle of his
  • it then goes up the purkinje fibers
317
Q

how does the conduction system control the cardiac cycle (5 points)

A
  1. during the diastole phase both atria fill with blood
  2. the blood then moves down into the ventricles
  3. this then fires the SA node causing atrial systole
  4. the remainder of the blood moves into the ventricles
  5. the action potential then travels to the AV node, down the bundle of his and up the purkinje fibres causing ventricular systole
318
Q

end diastolic volume

A

the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of relaxing/filling phase

319
Q

end systolic volume

A

the volume of blood remaining in the ventricles at the end of the contraction phase

320
Q

equation for systolic volume

A

EDV-ESV

321
Q

cardiac output definition

A

the volume of blood ejected out of the left ventricle per minute

322
Q

Describe (and draw if you can) a stroke volume graph (3 points)

A
  1. starts at 70ml
    - EDV increases and ESV decreases as heart contracts harder with more force
  2. Heart can only get so big so SV plateaus
  3. cardiovascular drift occurs because heart is beating too fast to fill with blood
323
Q

Describe (and draw if you can) a sub maximal HR graph (5 points)

A
  1. anticipatory rise from 50-60BPM due to adrenaline
  2. HR increase to meet O2 demand
  3. HR plateaus, demand is met
  4. stage 1 of recovery
  5. stage 2 of recovery
324
Q

Describe (and draw if you can) a maximal HR graph (5 points)

A
  1. anticipatory rise from 50-60BPM due to adrenaline
  2. HR increase to meet O2 demand
  3. demand is never met = no plateau
  4. recovery stage 1
  5. recovery stage 2 (longer than sub max)
325
Q

Describe (and draw if you can) a cardiac output (Q) graph

A
  1. Q increases proportionately to intensity (because HR and SV increase)
  2. Q plateaus as intensity continues to rise towards max (cardiovascular drift)
326
Q

Average person: resting HR

A

70 BPM

327
Q

Average person: sub max HR

A

100 BPM

328
Q

Average person: max HR

A

220-age (BPM)

329
Q

Average person: resting SV

A

70ml

330
Q

Average person: sub max SV

A

100ml

331
Q

Average person: max SV

A

100ml but will decrease (cardiovascular drift)

332
Q

Average person: resting Q

A

5 L/min

333
Q

Average person: sub max Q

A

10 L/min

334
Q

Average person: Max Q

A

20 L/min

335
Q

Trained athlete: resting HR

A

50 BPM

336
Q

Trained athlete: Sub max HR

A

120 BPM

337
Q

Trained athlete: Max HR

A

220-age (BPM)

338
Q

Trained athlete: Resting SV

A

100ml

339
Q

Trained athlete: Sub max SV

A

200ml

340
Q

Trained athlete: Max SV

A

200ml (but will decrease)

341
Q

Trained athlete: Resting Q

A

5 L/min

342
Q

Trained athlete: Sub max Q

A

24 L/min

343
Q

Trained athlete: Max Q

A

40 L/min

344
Q

How does neural control increase HR during exercise? (7 points)

A
  • receptors
  • Medulla oblongata
  • CCC
  • Sympathetic nervous system
  • accelerator nerve
  • increased firing of the SA node
  • increased HR
345
Q

How does neural control increase HR during recovery? (7 points)

A
  • receptors
  • medulla oblongata
  • CCC
  • parasympathetic nervous system
  • Vegus nerve
  • decreased firing of SA node
  • decrease HR
346
Q

internal factors affecting HR (2 points)

A
  1. increased temperature
    - causes increased speed of sympathetic nervous system
    - increased firing of SA node
    - increased HR
  2. Increased venous return
    - increased volume of blood returning to the heart
    - causing increased stretching of walls of heart
    - increase HR, SV and Q
347
Q

extrinsic factor affecting HR

A
  1. Hormonal factors
    - Adrenaline is released from the adrenal glands
    - this stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
    - increased HR
    - also increases force of cardiac contractions
    - increased SV and Q
348
Q

vascular shunt definition

A

the redistribution of Q from rest to exercise

349
Q

where is the majority of blood at rest

A

organs

350
Q

where is the majority of blood during exercise

A

muscles

351
Q

explain the redistribution of Q from rest to exercise (5 points)

A
  • at rest majority of Q goes to organs
  • during exercise majority of Q goes to muscles
  • during exercise arterioles and Pre-capillary sphincter vasodilate at muscles
  • however during rest both vasoconstrict at muscles
  • opposite happens at organs
352
Q

blood pressure definition

A

the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels

353
Q

formula for blood pressure

A

systolic ÷ diastolic

354
Q

why does blood pressure increase during exercise

A
  • because blood vessels are blocked by sustained static muscle contractions which restrict blood flow
355
Q

pathway of air (7 points)

A
  • nose and mouth
  • pharynx
  • larynx
  • trachea
  • Bronchi
  • Bronchioles
  • alveoli
356
Q

external respiration description

A

lungs
- high concentration of O2
- High partial pressure of O2
- opposite for CO2
haemoglobin
- Low concentration of O2
- Low partial pressure of O2
- opposite for CO2

357
Q

internal respiration description

A

Muscle
- Low concentration of O2
- Low partial pressure of O2
- opposite for CO2
haemoglobin
- High concentration of O2
- High partial pressure of O2
- opposite for CO2
Causes steep diffusion gradient

358
Q

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve: association

A

when O2 combines with haemoglobin

359
Q

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve: saturation

A

the amount of O2 associated with haemoglobin (%)

360
Q

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve: Disassociation

A

when O2 releases haemoglobin

361
Q

what does the Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve show

A

the relationship between partial pressure of O2 and % saturation of haemoglobin.

362
Q

effect of exercise on gaseous exchange during internal respiration: O2 (2 points)

A
  • muscles using more O2 = decreased pp of O2 in muscles
  • steeper diffusion gradient = more O2 disassociate from haemoglobin
363
Q

effect of exercise on gaseous exchange during internal respiration: CO2 (2 points)

A
  • muscles increase CO2 meaning pp of CO2 inside muscles
  • steeper diffusion gradient = more CO2 diffuses into blood
364
Q

effect of exercise on gaseous exchange during internal respiration: Body temperature

A

increase body temperature making O2 disassociate from haemoglobin more readily

365
Q

effect of exercise on gaseous exchange during internal respiration: acidity

A

increase in acidity making O2 disassociate more readily from haemoglobin

366
Q

Describe the process of internal respiration that allows for more O2 to diffuse into the muscle (8 points)

A
  • High PP and concentration of O2 in haemoglobin and low PP and concentration of O2 in muscles
  • causes steep diffusion gradient
  • low PP and concentration of CO2 in haemoglobin and high PP and concentration of CO2 in muscles
  • creates steep diffusion gradient
  • CO2 disassociates its self with the muscle and diffuses into haemoglobin causing O2 to diffusing into muscle
  • Increase in body temp causes more O2 to disassociate from haemoglobin
  • increase in acidity in haemoglobin causes more O2 to disassociate
  • Bohr shift effect (Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right)
367
Q

Bohr shift effect

A

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right

368
Q

Mechanics of breathing: inspiration at rest (5 points)

A
  • Diaphragm contracts and flattens
  • external intercostal muscles contract pulling ribs and stomach up and out
  • causes thoracic cavity to increase
  • pressure in the lungs decreases
  • air rushes in
369
Q

Mechanics of breathing: expiration at rest

A

passive (the opposite of inspiration)

370
Q

Mechanics of breathing: inspiration during exercise (3 points)

A
  • Diaphragm contracts and flattens with more force
  • external intercostals contract harder with more force
  • additional muscles such as the sternocleidomastoid, scalenes and pectoralis minor all contract pulling ribs up and out.
371
Q

Mechanics of breathing: expiration during exercise (5 points)

A
  • Diaphragm relaxes and raises further
  • External intercostals relax further
  • rectus abdominis and obliques contract forcing diaphragm up faster
  • internal intercostals contract bringing ribs and sternum in harder
  • air rushes out the lungs
372
Q

Breathing frequency definition

A

the number of breaths per minute

373
Q

breathing frequency at rest for an untrained athlete

A

12-15 breaths per minute

374
Q

breathing frequency during max intensity for an untrained athlete

A

40-50 breaths per minute

375
Q

breathing frequency during max intensity for a trained athlete

A

50-60 breaths per minute

376
Q

breathing frequency at rest for an trained athlete

A

11-12 breaths per minute

377
Q

tidal volume definition

A

the volume of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breath

378
Q

tidal volume during max intensity for an untrained athlete

A

2.5-3 Liters

379
Q

tidal volume at rest for a trained athlete

A

500 ml

380
Q

tidal volume during max intensity for a trained athlete

A

3-3.5 Liters

381
Q

tidal volume at rest for an untrained athlete

A

500 ml

382
Q

minute ventilation definition

A

the volume of air inhaled or exhaled over one minute

383
Q

minute ventilation during max intensity exercise for a trained athlete

A

160-210 l/min

383
Q

minute ventilation during maximal intensity exercise for an untrained athlete

A
383
Q

minute ventilation at rest for an untrained athlete

A

6-7.5 l/min

384
Q

minute ventilation at rest for a trained athlete

A

100-150 l/min

385
Q

equation for minute ventilation

A

breathing frequency x tidal volume = minute ventilation

386
Q

method to calculate breathing frequency, tidal volume and minute ventilation

A
  • use a spirometer to measure inspired and expired air
  • calculate minute ventilation from these
387
Q

neural control and mechanics of breathing: rest inhalation (4 points)

A
  • chemo and proprio receptors
  • medulla oblongata
  • phrenic nerve & diaphragm contracts
    or
  • intercostal nerve & external intercostals contract
388
Q

neural control and mechanics of breathing: exercise inhalation (6 points)

A
  • chemo and proprio receptors
  • medulla oblongata
  • phrenic nerve & diaphragm contracts harder
    or
  • intercostal nerve & external intercostals contract harder
  • additional muscles contract (scalenes)
  • increased rate of breathing
389
Q

neural control and mechanics of breathing: exercise expiration (4 points)

A
  • increased depth of breathing triggers baroreceptors
  • activates the expiratory additional muscles (obliques)
  • forces air out lungs
  • increased rate of breathing
390
Q

blood consists of

A

45% cells and 55% plasma

391
Q

what two ways can O2 be carried

A
  1. Haemoglobin (97%)
  2. Blood plasma (3%)
392
Q

what three ways can CO2 be transported

A
  1. dissolved in water and carried as carbonic acid (70%)
  2. Carried with haemoglobin, Carbaminohemoglobin (23%)
  3. dissolved in blood plasma (7%)
393
Q

Responses to exercise: Breathing frequency (look up graph) (2 points)

A
  • breathing frequency increases proportionately to exercise until maximal breathing frequency is achieved around 50-60 breaths per min
  • in sub max it can plateau as it meets O2 supply
394
Q

Responses to exercise: tidal volume (look up graph) (2 points)

A
  • TV initially increases proportionately with exercise intensity at sub max, up to 3 litres
  • Tv plateaus during sub max due to increased breathing rate towards max intensity requiring too much muscular effort
395
Q

Responses to exercise: minute ventilation (look up graph) (3 points)

A
  • VE = F x TV
  • response to exercise is a combination of the two
  • increases proportionally
396
Q

minute ventilation graph (submax) (4 points)

A
  1. initial anticipatory rise in VE
  2. a rapid increase in VE fur to increase in TV and F
  3. steady state of VE as O2 supply meets demand
  4. An initially rapid then more gradual decrease in VE to resting levels
397
Q

minute ventilation graph (max) (3 points)

A
  1. VE doesn’t plateau as it never meets O2 demand
  2. TV will plateau but F will increase
  3. recovery = rapid decrease & slower decrease
398
Q

what do Hypoxic conditions cause

A

an increase in F, TV and MV (hyperventilation)

399
Q

short term effects of altitude: External respiration (4 points)

A
  • decrease in O2 availability in the lungs
  • Decrease pp of O2 in the alveoli
  • shallow diffusion gradient
  • slower & less O2 diffuses
400
Q

short term effects of altitude: Blood

A

less oxyhemoglobin in the blood

401
Q

short term effects of altitude: internal respiration (3 points)

A
  • decrease partial pressure of O2 in the blood
  • shallow diffusion gradient
  • less O2 diffuses into muscles
402
Q

short term effects of altitude: on athlete (aerobic) (2 points)

A
  • aerobic performance decreases
  • early fatigue
403
Q

altitude acclimatisation

A

adapting to less O2 (takes 3 weeks)

404
Q

short term effects of altitude: on athlete (anaerobic)

A
  • no affect
405
Q

atmospheric pressure

A

the amount of pressure the air exerts (less with altitude)

406
Q

long term effects of altitude: cardiovascular adaptations (4 points)

A
  • increased capillary density around alveoli and muscles
  • increase in EPO release
  • increase haemoglobin content in blood
  • increase O2 carrying capacity of blood
407
Q

long term effects of altitude: respiratory adaptations (3 points)

A
  • increase surface area of alveoli
  • increased capacity for diffusion during internal and external respiration
  • increase strength of respiratory muscles
408
Q

Altitude

A

the height above sea level

409
Q

hypoxia

A

a condition where there is less O2

410
Q

Starlings law (2 points)

A
  • The more blood returning to the heart = the more blood that comes out the heart
  • therefore an increase in venous return = an increase in SV and Q
411
Q

pocket valves

A

valves in the veins that only allow the blood to travel back to the heart

412
Q

skeletal muscle pump

A

during movement the skeletal muscle pump squeezes the veins forcing blood towards the heart

413
Q

respiratory muscle pump

A

the pressure changes in the thoracic cavity during breathing, this puts pressure on the abdominal veins which helps pull the blood up to the heart

414
Q

smooth muscle (2 points)

A
  • venoconstriction of the veins
  • the smooth muscle in the vessel walls help to move blood back to the heart
415
Q

gravity from above the heart

A

gravity moves blood from areas of the body that are above the heard down towards it.

416
Q

which two venous return mechanisms work harder during exercise.

A

skeletal and respiratory muscle pumps

417
Q

why does blood pooling occur

A

if there is insufficient pressure to push blood back towards the heart

418
Q

where does blood pooling occur

A

in pocket valves

419
Q

why is an active cool down important to prevent blood pooling

A

an active cool down maintains the respiratory and skeletal muscle pumps aiding venous return

420
Q

periodisation of training definition

A

structured programme that has long, medium and short term goals. Its purpose is to peak at the right time

421
Q

macrocycle (2 points)

A
  • a long term training plan (typically over one year) to reach a long term goal
  • e.g. preparing for olympics
422
Q

mesocycle (3 points)

A
  • a mid term plan (typically over 10 weeks) to reach a mid term goal
  • several mesocycles in a macrocycle
  • e.g. a gymnast will aim to develop their fitness with focus on flexibility and strength
423
Q

microcycle (3 points)

A
  • a short term training plan (one week) to reach a short term goal
  • several microcycles in a mesocycle
  • e.g. gymnast will start conditioning work to improve their basic fitness
424
Q

preparatory phase of training (2 points)

A
  • off season: general fitness training to create base for…
  • pre season: more specific fitness work, and progression used to increase training intensity
425
Q

competition phase of training (3 points)

A
  • maintenance of fitness: principle of moderation applied to avoid injury
  • focus on tactics and strategy
  • tapering used to optimise performance
426
Q

transition phase of training (3 points)

A
  • recovery from competition season
  • light training to avoid excessive reversibility
  • treatment of any injury’s
427
Q

tapering (3 points)

A
  • a gradual reduction of training volume, time and intensity before major competition
  • includes extending rest periods in interval training or rest between sets
  • fuel stores are maximised allowing for longer periods of high intensity
428
Q

Asthma definition (2 points)

A
  • A condition that reduces the amount of O2 getting into the lungs
  • it is a reversible narrowing of the respiratory airways and makes it difficult for a person to breath
429
Q

symptoms of asthma (4 points)

A
  • coughing
  • breathlessness
  • chest tightness
  • wheezing
430
Q

triggers of asthma (3 points)

A
  • includes allergens, pollen and dust
  • can be caused by exercise
  • can be worsened on cold days and during high intensity exercise
431
Q

ways in which asthma suffers can overcome the problem (5 points)

A
  • medical inhalers
  • warmup
  • Inspiratory muscle training
  • diet (lots of water and minerals, less salt)
  • caffeine
432
Q

medical inhalers (blue)

A

bronchodilator
- used during exercise to relieve symptoms and can be used before to relax airways

433
Q

medical inhalers (brown) (2 points)

A
  • everyday use
  • help to prevent the symptoms of asthma
434
Q

how asthma affects performance (4 points)

A
  • can cause unconsciousness
  • limit performance
  • limits aerobic athletes with lack of O2
  • reduces tidal volume and efficiency of gaseous exchange increasing lactic acid build up
435
Q

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) definition

A

a term used to describe a condition of the ling where the airways become inflamed and narrow

436
Q

effects of COPD (4 points)

A
  • thickening of bronchiole walls
  • increased mucus production
  • damage to alveoli
  • decrease in tissue elasticity
437
Q

symptoms of COPD (4 points)

A
  • persistent coughing
  • breathing difficulty
  • regular chest infections
  • reduced lug capacity
438
Q

effects of training on respiratory diseases (4 points)

A
  • increase strength of respiratory muscles
  • decreased resting and sub max frequency of breathing - reduces onset of fatigue
  • maintains full use of lung elasticity which decreases risk of COPD
  • IMT increases airflow and alleviates breathlessness
439
Q

effects of exercise on the respiratory system (general health and how it can alleviate asthma) (4 points)

A
  • increased surface area of the lungs
  • increased capillary density around alveoli which aids gaseous exchange
  • increased elasticity of alveoli which increases respiratory volumes
  • increase in strength of respiratory muscles
440
Q

effects of smoking on the respiratory system (8 points)

A
  • decreases the efficiency to supply O2 to muscles
  • carbon monoxide reduces amount of O2 absorbed in blood
  • HB has greater affinity to CO than O2
  • decreased gaseous exchange
  • increases likelihood of respiratory diseases
  • damage to respiratory structures
  • tar coats the airways and inhibits gaseous exchange
  • impairs lung function
441
Q

sedentary lifestyle definition

A

an inactive lifestyle

442
Q

atherosclerosis definition

A

a condition where fatty plaque builds up in the walls of arteries causing their walls to harden and their lumen to narrow

443
Q

coronary heart disease (CHD) definition

A

a condition where fatty plaque builds up in the walls of the coronary arteries causing them to narrow and reduce blood supply to the heart. may lead to angina and heart attacks

444
Q

Coronary arteries

A

blood vessels that supply O2 rich blood to the entire heart muscle

445
Q

angina definition

A

partial blockage of a coronary artery causing chest pain due to lack of O2 to heart muscle

446
Q

heart attack

A

a complete blockage of a coronary artery causing total restriction of O2 to heart muscle

447
Q

coronary risk factors definition

A

conditions or habits that increase the risk of CHD

448
Q

coronary risk factors (6 points)

A
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • overweight or obese
  • smoking
  • high LDL cholesterol
  • hypertension
  • unhealthy diet
449
Q

hypertension definition

A

high blood pressure, often caused due to atherosclerosis

450
Q

stroke definition

A

a ‘brain attack’ caused when O2 supply to the brain is cut off

451
Q

LDL cholesterol definition

A

bad cholesterol. high in blood fats that deposit on the walls of arteries causing atherosclerosis and CHD

452
Q

HDL cholesterol definition

A

good cholesterol. Low in blood fats and removes LDL cholesterol from walls of arteries and transports to liver

453
Q

a sedentary lifestyle that is high in coronary risk factors increases the chance of: (8 points)

A
  • Atherosclerosis
  • CHD
  • heart attack
  • stroke
  • low HDL cholesterol
  • high LDL cholesterol
  • angina
  • hypertension
454
Q

healthy lifestyle effects on: Heart (5 points)

A
  • cardiac hypertrophy
  • increased SV
  • decreased resting HR
  • more efficient heart
  • decreased cardiovascular strain
455
Q

healthy lifestyle effects on: blood vessels (2 points)

A
  • increased efficiency of coronary arteries/increased O2 delivery to heart muscle
  • increased elasticity of artery walls/more efficient vasodilation and vasoconstriction
456
Q

healthy lifestyle effects on: blood (2 points)

A
  • decreased blood fats and LDL cholesterol/increased HDL cholesterol
  • decreased blood viscosity/increased blood flow/decreased blood pressure

PE (3 decks)

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