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DTMH > Weeks 8-9 > Flashcards

Weeks 8-9 Flashcards

1
Q

What are NTDs?

A

Neglected tropical diseases

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2
Q

Give examples of soil transmitted helminths (nematodes)

A

Ascaris lumbricoides
Necatar americanus
Acylostoma duodenale
Trichuris trichiura
Strongyloides sterocoralis

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3
Q

What is the common name for ascaris lumbricoides?

A

Roundworm

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4
Q

What is the common name for necatar americanus?

A

Hookworm

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5
Q

What is the common name for acylostoma duodenale?

A

Hookworm

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6
Q

What is the common name for tichuris trichiura?

A

Whipworm

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7
Q

What is the common name for strongyloides stercoralis?

A

Threadworm

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8
Q

What immune response increases susceptibility to STHs in HIV disease?

A

Predominant Th2 response

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9
Q

What is the relationship of HIV with strongyloides stercoralis?

A

Unreliable serological testing
High fatality of SHS
No increased risk

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10
Q

Give examples of filaria (nematodes)

A

Wuchereria bancrofti
Brugia malayi
Onchocerca volvulus
Loa loa

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11
Q

What disease does loa loa cause?

A

African eye worm

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12
Q

What is the urogenital schistosoma?

A

Haematobium

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13
Q

Name intestinal schistosomas

A

Mansoni
Japonicum
Mekongi
Intercalatum

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14
Q

Does HIV increase schistosoma risk or does schistosoma increase HIV risk?

A

Schisostoma increases HIV risk

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15
Q

Name cestodes

A

Taenia solium
Echinococcal granulosus
Echinococcal multiocularis

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16
Q

What organism causes neurocystercircosis?

A

Taenia solium

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17
Q

Name the organisms that cause visceral leishmaniasis

A

Donovani
Infantum

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18
Q

Name the organisms that cause cutaneous leishmaniasis

A

Tropica
Major
Mexicana
Vienna braziliensis

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19
Q

Which organisms cause human African trypanosomiasis?

A

Brucei gambiense
Brucei rhodesiense

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20
Q

Which organisms cause Chagas disease?

A

T. cruzi

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21
Q

Name GIT associated protozoa

A

Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Cryptosporidium hominis
Cyclospora cayetensis
Cystoisospora belli
Microsporidia

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22
Q

Does HIV increase susceptibility to leprosy?

A

No and they tend to develop milder forms

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23
Q

Why does EFV have many drug interactions?

A

CYP450 inducer

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24
Q

Name side effects of EFV

A

CNS
Hepatotoxicity
Rash
Hyperlipidemia
QT prolongation

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25
Q

What is the dose of EFV?

A

600mg daily

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26
Q

Name side effects of NVP

A

Hepatotoxicity
Severe cutaneous reactions

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27
Q

Which factors increase NVP risk for hepatic necrosis?

A

Females CD4 >250
Males CD4 >400

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28
Q

Which patients is doravirine (DRV) approved for use in?

A

Treatment naive patients

29
Q

With which medication does doravirine interact?

A

Rifampicin (lowers DRV doses)

30
Q

What is the most commonly used NNRTI in DR HIV?

A

Etravirine

31
Q

What is the decision to use etravirine based on?

A

NNRTI mutation score

32
Q

With which medication does etravirine interact?

33
Q

Name side effects of etravirine

A

Rash (SJS)

34
Q

In which patients can we use rilpivirine?

A

Treatment naive with VL < 100 000

35
Q

With which medication does rilpivirine interact?

A

All TB treatment

36
Q

Why if TAF superior to TDF?

A

90% less in plasma -> less bone and renal toxicity
However assoc with weight gain

37
Q

What is Fanconi syndrome?

A

Proximal tubular dysfunction

38
Q

What does TDF increase risk for?

A

Fanconi syndrome
AKI
CKD
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Osteoporosis

39
Q

Name side effects of AZT

A

Lactic acidosis
Lipodystrophy
Bone marrow suppression

40
Q

In which patients is abacavir contraindicated?

A

HLA-B*3701 positive
CVS disease

41
Q

When is the risk for flare highest in HBV?

A

Active HBV
HBeAg positive

42
Q

If there is previous INST treatment or resistance, can you use DTG?

A

Yes, 50mg bd

43
Q

With which mutation must DTG be avoided?

A

Q148 mutation

44
Q

What are the requirements for VL when switching to DTG?

A

TLD1 - no VL
TLD2 - suppressed VL within 6 months

45
Q

Which INSTI has the most side CNS effects?

46
Q

How do INSTIs work?

A

Prevent binding of pro-integration complex to host cell DNA

47
Q

What are contraindications for bictegravir?

A

Hepatic impairment
CrCl<30

48
Q

What is the dose of bictegravir?

A

<25kg 30mg
>25kg 50mg

49
Q

Which INSTIs have the highest resistance barrier?

50
Q

What were risk factors for virological failure on cabotegravir/rilpivirine injection?

A

BMI>30
HIV subtype A1/A6
RPV resistance

51
Q

What is the MOA of lencapovir (LEN)?

A

Inhibits Gag/Gag-Pol and protein subunit production (capsid inhibitor)

52
Q

Can you pick up HIV resistance if you are not on treatment?

A

No, increased wild type

53
Q

In which HIV subtype is K65R more common?

54
Q

What must the VL be in order to do drug resistance testing?

55
Q

Which mutation is most common in DTG resistance?

56
Q

What is a major determinant of neurological deficit in TBM?

A

Vasculitis

57
Q

What are the clinical stages of TBM?

A

1- alert w/ no focal signs
2 - non-comatose w/ focal signs
3 - comatose

58
Q

Solid, non-enhancing lesion?

59
Q

What is the treatment of CCM?

A

Initiation - 2 weeks ampho B and fluconazole
Consolidation - 8 weeks fluconazole
Maintenance - daily fluconazole 200mg until CD4>200

60
Q

What is the treatment of toxoplasmic encephalitis?

61
Q

What is the treatment of CMV?

A

Gancyclovir

62
Q

Which virus causes PML?

A

JC virus reactivation

63
Q

What is the treatment of PML?

64
Q

When can you get contrast enhancement in PML?

65
Q

Which virus is associated with primary CNS lymphoma?

66
Q

Which ART is associated with HIV stroke?

67
Q

What stage of syphilis is meningovascular syphilis?

68
Q

Which artery is usually affected by VZV?

A

Middle cerebral artery ipsilateral to rash on face

DTMH (5 decks)

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