weeks 7-9 Flashcards

1
Q

4 steps in a negative feedback loop

A

a stimulus that produces change, a receptor that detects changes in this parameter, a control/integration centre and an effector whcih enacts a response to maintain homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a somatic sensation

A

our awareness of our external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a visceral sensation

A

the sensation of our internal functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

key neurotransmitters/hormones involved in thermoregulation include:

A

noradrenaline - released by the sympathetic nervous system evoke a fight flight or fear response, activate a class of receptors called adrenergic receptors, adrenaline - secreted by adrenal gland (sympathetic), and the thyroid hormone - secreted by the thyroid gland, (regulated by hypothalamus) and increases energy expenditure. ALL CAN INCREASE ENERGY EXPENDITURE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when is our internal body temp lowest during the day

A

while we sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do we exchange heat with the sun

A

radiation, evaporation, convection, and conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a pyrogen

A

something that induces a fever response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does a pyrogen stimulate

A

the production of prostaglandin (PGE2), which alters activity in the hypothalamus, leading to an increased internal temperature set point (so body temp is still homeostatically regulated, just at a higher temp than normally seen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do ibuprofen and aspirin do

A

block the production of prostaglandin and therefore reduce inflammation and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is sepsis

A

an uncontrolled inflammatory response which leads to excessively high temperatures, which can lead to organ damage/failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

impaired working memory, diminished executive function and difficulty focusing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the main steps in the overall development of an embryo

A

rotational cleavage (to form a blastocyst), gastrulation, and then neurulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a blastocyst

A

one of the primary stages of embryonic development, an outer cell layer, consisting of pluripotent stem cells (able to form all other cells in the body), and filled with a fluid called blastocoel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 3 main germ layers, and when do they form/differentiate

A

the differentiate from pluripotent stem cells during gastrulation. They are the ectoderm (forms the skin and nervous system), endoderm (the lining of internal organs) and mesoderm (basically anything else, including muscle, blood, and connective tissue etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is neurulation

A

a part of the ectoderm specialised to form the neural plate, which which eventually invaginate to form the neural tube, which gives rise to the nervous system (specifically the spinal chord and brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 4 key phases of neuron development

A

genesis of neurons (neural stem cells give rise to neural progenitors, which differentiate to form specific neural cells), outgrowth of axons and dentrites (axons and dendrites grow towards other neural cells), synapse formation and refinement of synaptic connections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where are neurons formed in the developing embryo and what do they do afterwoods

A

they are formed in the ventricular proliferative zone (near the inside of the of the neural tube). They then begin to migrate outwards from the neural tube (via radial glial cells), with the oldest neurons forming the innermost layers of the cortex, they are directed to their target through various methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when do the number of synapses in the brain begin to slowly decline

A

around 4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the limbic system

A

the emotional or affective region of the brain. Consists of structures deep within the cerebral hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what part of the brain is the limbic system derived from

A

the diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are ventricles

A

hollow spaces within the brain, filled with cerebrospinal fluid

22
Q

what are the 4 ventricles

A

the lateral ventricles, the 3rd and the 4th ventricle

23
Q

what are the 3 types of extracellular receptors

A

ion-channel-couples receptors, g protein couples receptors (GPCR), and enzyme coupled receptors

24
Q

what happens when an action potential arrives at the axon terminal

A

this causes sodium channels in the terminal to open (sodium enters the cell), which depolarises the membrane, causing Ca channels to also open, which then triggers the release of neurotransmitters (via exocytosis)

25
Q

what is a monoamine neurotransmitter and what are 3 examples

A

meaning they are derived from amino acids, includes dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin

26
Q

what neurotransmitter is implicated in the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

dopamine (more specifically its overactivity)

27
Q

where are the key dopaminergic neurons involved in schizophrenia

A

they are located in the Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA) of the midbrain

28
Q

what are the 2 dopaminergic pathways related to schizophrenia

A

the mesocortical pathway (from the VTA (meso - middle) to the cortex - specifically the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex) and the mesolimbic pathway (from the VTA to the limbic system - particularly the Nucleus Accumbens of the Striatum (NAcc). this is referred to as the reward pathway)

29
Q

what is the precursor to dopamine and what converts it

A

L-DOPA, which is converted to dopamine by the enzyme dopamine decarboxylase

30
Q

breifly explain the synthesis of dopamine

A

the enzymes required are produced in the cell body and then transported along the axon to the axon terminals, where they catalyse the conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine

31
Q

what receptors type does dopamine signal via

A

a GPCR

32
Q

What happens to excess dopamine following release into the synapse

A

either repackaged in the axon terminal, or broken down into it’s precursors

33
Q

what kind of feedback loop is the sensitisation of dopamine systems associated with in schizophrenia

A

a positive loop - paranoia and psychosis can lead to psychosocial stress (fear of judgement etc.) which can further sensitise the dopamine system

34
Q

what is the role of the microbiome of the gastrointestinal tract.

A

prevent infection by pathogens (be competing for space and resources), provide structural support to the linings of the GI and digest food that the body cannot

35
Q

what are traits of pathogenic microbes

A

they can occupy sterile locations, antagonise host defences and facilitate the spread of other microbes

36
Q

what is gastroenteritis caused by

A

can be caused by many things including bacteria, parasites and chemicals (so can be infectious or non-infectious), resulting in excess inflammation causing damage to the epithelia of the gut, reducing nutritional uptake (as microvilli aren’t working), and causing a ‘leaky gut’ - and hence diarrhoea

37
Q

what specific type of salmonella is causative of gastroenteritis

A

non-typhoidal salmonella (so you have salmonella enterica, split into typhoidal (transmitted human - human and causing typhoid and paratyphoid) and non-typophoidal (NTS)

38
Q

how does salmonella cause an infection

A

ingested salmonella needs to compete for space with our regular gut microbes, and will eventually breach the epithelial lining of the small intestine by infecting specific cells, or releasing chemicals that induce its uptake into the epithelium and the lymph surrounding, allowing it to enter the blood and other sterile sites such as the spleen and liver.

39
Q

how can salmonella avoid the effects of antibiotics

A

antibiotics will not reach the gallbladder (a sterile site) and therefore salmonella that has managed to reach the gallbladder via the blood can be released in bile to re-enter the gut

40
Q

does salmonella grow intra or extracellularly when within the body

A

extracellular in the gut lumen, but intracellular in sterile sites

41
Q

what are lipopolysaccharides (LPs)

A

outer layer components of gram-negative bacteria, used by the innate immune system to detect them.

42
Q

enteropathenogenic meaning

A

a pathogen that is able to enter the gastrointestinal tract and cause gastroenteritis

43
Q

what is Clostridiodes difficile (CD)

A

a major hospital pathogen, causing gastrointestinal diseases (known as C. Difficile infections or CDI)

44
Q

what toxins are causative of CDI (produced by CD)

A

Toxin A, Toxin B and CDT - which are taken up by epithelial cells in the colon, and target GTPases, causing cell death and therefore tissue damage, haemorrhage and inflammation of the gut, as well as fluid accumulation

45
Q

what is Bacillus Cereus

A

a spore forming bacteria that can cause emetic (vomiting) syndrome and gastroenterites

46
Q

how does B. Cereus cause emetic symptoms

A

produces a emetic toxin (non-infectious, so preformed) called cereulide, which is resistant to heat, proteolysis and pH (meaning it can survive cooking and digestion), and leads to the destruction of mitochondria within intoxicated cells, and causes activation of the 5-HT3 receptors, causing hyperstimulation of the vagus nerve (involved in controlling stomach function) an therefore nausea and vomiting

47
Q

how does B. Cereus cause infectious gastroenterites

A

when in the body, it produces the enterotoxins NhE (non-haemolytic enterotoxin) and Hbl (haemolytic enterotoxin) which both puncture cell membranes, causing lysis (and therefore cell death), damaging epithelia, and resulting in fluid accumulation in the ileum. Both toxins can be destroyed by heat.

48
Q

What does norovirus require to enter host cells

A

bile, and therefore it is only ‘activated’ once it is in the gastrointestinal tract

49
Q

systemic meaning

A

impacting the entire body, not just one organ/organ system

50
Q

why is norovirus self-limiting

A

it only infects tuft cells (a specific type of cell in the gut epithelium) which are 1 in a million and therefore it quickly destroys most of these cells, leaving nothing for it to infect.

51
Q

why is norovirus hard to study

A

it is hard to grow in a lab - requires bacteria of the microbiota to infiltrate cells, and tuft cells (which it infects) are also generated by these cells.

52
Q

what are the 2 virulence factors (factors than enable a pathogen to infect or damage tissue) of enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)

A

surface factors that allow them to attach to the small intestine (preventing them being washed away) and the production of enterotoxins (heat liable and heat stable enterotoxin)