weeks 10 + 11 Flashcards

1
Q

what are 5 functions of mitochondria

A

generating ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, buffering Ca2+, Fe-S cluster biogenesis, regulation of apoptosis and immune signalling

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2
Q

how many genes does the mitochondrial genome (mtDNA) have

A

37

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3
Q

nucleoid meaning

A

relating to DNA, tightly packed and associated with proteins

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4
Q

heteroplasmy meaning

A

it means that not all of the mtDNA within a cell is identical

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5
Q

why is it beneficial for some mitochondrial proteins to still be made from mtDNA

A

because some of them are so hydrophobic that it would be difficult to transport them

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6
Q

what is the role of a mitochondrial translocase

A

to recieve cytosolic synthesised mitochondrial proteins and deliver them to the correct part of the mitochondria

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7
Q

what are TOM, TIM and SAM

A

tom - translocase of the outer membrane, tim -translocase of the inner membrane and sam - sorting and assembly machinery of the outer membrane

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8
Q

what are the products of glycolysis

A

2 pyruvate, 2 atp, 2 NADH and 2 H2O

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9
Q

what are the products of the Krebs cycle

A

6NADH, 2ATP, 2FADH2, 2CO2

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10
Q

products of oxidative phosphorylation

A

32-34 ATP, 10NAD+, 2 FAD, 6H2O

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11
Q

what are the 2 electron carriers in the membrane of the mitochondria (other than the major complexes)

A

cytochrome C and Ubiquinone

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12
Q

order of electron transfer through the chain

A

from either complex 1 or 2 to ubiquinone, to complex 3, cytochrome c and then complex 4

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13
Q

de novo mutation

A

meaning it occurs for the first time in the child (likely during embryogenesis) and is not inherited from the parents

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14
Q

what tissues is mitochondrial most likely to impact

A

those that are heavily reliant on oxidative metabolism such the CNS, the eyes, muscles and endocrine organs

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15
Q

encephalopathy meaning

A

disorder or disease of the brain (symptom of mito)

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16
Q

neuropathy meaning

A

nerve damage/dysfunction (symptom of mito)

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17
Q

ishcemia meaning

A

loss of blood flow (symptom of mito)

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18
Q

hemiplegia meaning

A

weakness on one side of the body (symptom of mito)

19
Q

ataxia meaning

A

loss of muscle coordination (neurological) (symptom of mito)

20
Q

dystonia meaning

A

sustained muscle contractions - twisting spasms etc. (symptom of mito)

21
Q

myopathy meaning

A

disease of the muscles, resulting in weakness

22
Q

cardiomyopathy meaning

A

disease of the heart muscle, making it harder to pump blood to the rest of the body (symptom of mito)

23
Q

what are the 2 main categories of mitochondrial disease

A

primary (genes with a primary link to the function of the electron transport chain) and secondary (genes with an indirect function in the electron transport chain, or linked to another mitochondrial function)

24
Q

how is mito diagnosed

A

through biochemical tests sucha s blood and urine samples (measuring metabolites such as lactate, pyruvate CSF and urine), neuroimaging and measurement of nerve and muscle activity, and genetic studies (both mitochondrial and nuclear)

25
Q

homoplasmy meaning

A

meaning to have entirely normal or entirely abnormal mitochondria in a tissue

26
Q

what is MELAS

A

mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, lactic acidoses and stroke-like episodes

27
Q

what is FVC

A

forced volume capacity - the amount of air that is released if we ask someone to go from the top of a breath in, and exhale as much air as possible (so the accessible volume of the lungs)

28
Q

what is FEV1

A

forced expiratory volume for 1 second (the amound of air that can be breathed out in a second)

29
Q

what is the average FEV1 of a healthy person

A

80% of FVC

30
Q

what is spirometry

A

how FEV1 and FVC are measured

31
Q

what are the 2 main pathways of activating asthma

A

the alergic and non allergic

32
Q

describe the allergic pathway of activating asthma

A

allergens are breathed in and land on the airway epithelium, are collected by dendritic cells, and presented to naive t cells in the airway submucosa (the thick layer of connective tissue that surrounds the mucosa), which stimulates B cells which release IgE that coat mast cells, and make them receptive to this allergen. They will now release histamine and other bronchoconstrictors if in contact with this allergen, and recruit eosinophils to the airway

33
Q

features of wind pollinated plants

A

have cryptic flowers, produce a large amount of pollen

34
Q

features of animal pollinated flowers

A

have flowers that attract pollinators and produce small amounts of pollen

35
Q

where does IgE bind

A

to the receptor Fce(epsilon)R1 on mast cells and basophils - called sensitising the cells

36
Q

what the the hypotheses of why the incidence of allergies are rising

A

the hygiene hypothesis (due to our clean western lifestyle, we have less exposure to certain organisms that influence our immune system), the old friends hypothesis, which states a similar cause from our hygiene, but instead puts this down to the impact this has on our microbiota. It has also been found that the use of chemials can lead to epithelium damage, which can allower easier access for certain microorganisms and thererfore trigger the immune response that will bring about asthma

37
Q

what are the features of a useful medicine

A

effective, convenient, well-tolerated, safe and not too expensive

38
Q

endogenous meaning (relating to a drug)

A

it enters the receptor

39
Q

explain the action of adrenaline in causing airway dilation

A

it is an endogenous agonist for the B(beta)2-andrenoreceptor, and enters the receptor, causing a change in the proteins shape, activating the associated protein, and therefore the transduction pathway, eventually activating the protein kinase, causing airway smooth muscle relaxation

40
Q

what is High-throughput screening

A

used for finding drugs when we know the enzyme we want to target, but not the drug. A chemical libray is used, which adds the chemicals to wells with the enzyme to determine if there is any biological activity. Once a chemical has been found it will be studied to be optimised for potency, selectivity and solubility

41
Q

what are 2 types of drugs used to treat asthma

A

Glucocorticoid agonists such as Bedesonide (treats inflammation and can reduce eosinophile numbers in the airway - however must be taking as a preventative measure) and B2-adrenoreceptor agonists such as salbutamol (treats airway obstruction - palliative, meaning it is taking after symptoms present)

42
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies

A

a new treatment for asthma that activated antagonism through immunoneutralisation, such as Omalizumab which is directed towards the Fc portion of IgE, preventing it from binding mast cells

43
Q

What is allergic rhinitis

A

another name for hayfever