Week One Flashcards

1
Q

A patient is prescribed penicillin G for a bacterial infection. The nurse understands that penicillin G is effective during which bacterial phase?

A: During bacterial dormancy
B. During bacterial spore formation
C. During bacterial growth and division
D. During bacterial phagocytosis

A

C. During bacterial growth and division

Rationale: Pen G is a bactericidal antibiotic that is only effective when bacteria are growing and dividing, as it inhibits the formation of the bacterial cell wall by targeting penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) essential for cell wall synthesis.

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2
Q

A patient has been prescribed a combination of penicillin and aminoglycoside for a severe infection. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate when administering these medications?

A. Administer the medications in the same IV solution for synergistic effects.
B. Administer the penicillin first, then the aminoglycoside in separate IV solutions.
C. Delay administration of the aminoglycoside until after the penicillin course is complete.
D. Administer both medications orally to avoid interactions.

A

Answer: B. Administer the penicillin first, then the aminoglycoside in separate IV solutions.

Rationale: Penicillin weakens the bacterial cell wall, which allows aminoglycosides to penetrate and effectively kill the bacteria. However, penicillin can inactivate aminoglycosides if mixed in the same IV solution, so they should be administered separately​.

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3
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect that patients should be educated about when taking tetracycline antibiotics?

A. Hypertension
B. Photosensitivity
C. Bradycardia
D. Diarrhea without the risk of superinfection

A

Answer: B. Photosensitivity

Rationale: Tetracycline antibiotics can cause photosensitivity, leading to exaggerated sunburns. Patients should be advised to use sun protection, such as wearing sunscreen and protective clothing

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4
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient taking vancomycin for the treatment of a serious infection. Which of the following lab values is most important to monitor?

A. Serum potassium levels
B. Trough levels of vancomycin
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. Serum glucose levels

A

Answer: B. Trough levels of vancomycin

Rationale: Vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic window, and trough levels must be monitored to avoid toxicity. Renal failure is a significant adverse effect, and if the patient’s creatinine level increases by 50%, vancomycin should be discontinued​.

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5
Q

A patient taking clindamycin develops severe diarrhea. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Administer an antidiarrheal agent
B. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
C. Assess for the presence of Clostridium difficile infection
D. Discontinue the medication immediately

A

Answer: C. Assess for the presence of Clostridium difficile infection

Rationale: Clindamycin can lead to an overgrowth of drug-resistant microbes, particularly Clostridium difficile (C. diff), which can cause severe diarrhea. It’s essential to assess for C. diff and manage appropriately, rather than immediately stopping the medication

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6
Q

Which of the following best describes selective toxicity in antimicrobial therapy?

A. Ability of the drug to suppress host immune responses
B. Ability of the drug to injure target organisms without harming the host
C. Ability of the drug to eliminate all microbes in the body
D. Ability of the drug to promote bacterial growth

A

Answer: B. Ability of the drug to injure target organisms without harming the host

Rationale: Selective toxicity is a critical concept in antimicrobial therapy, where the drug targets the microbe without damaging the host’s cells​

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7
Q

Penicillin exerts its bactericidal effect by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Disrupting bacterial protein synthesis
B. Inhibiting bacterial DNA replication
C. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
D. Disrupting bacterial RNA synthesis

A

Answer: C. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis

Rationale: Penicillin disrupts the bacterial cell wall by inhibiting transpeptidases necessary for cell wall synthesis

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8
Q

A patient is receiving vancomycin IV for MRSA. Why is it important to monitor the trough level of vancomycin?
A. To assess liver function
B. To evaluate the potential for allergic reactions
C. To avoid nephrotoxicity
D. To monitor the effectiveness of the drug

A

Answer: C. To avoid nephrotoxicity

Rationale: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic, and monitoring trough levels helps prevent renal damage.

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9
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is excreted by the liver rather than the kidneys?
A. Cephalexin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Vancomycin
D. Penicillin G

A

Answer: B. Ceftriaxone

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is primarily excreted via the liver, unlike most cephalosporins, which are eliminated through the kidneys

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10
Q

Which of the following is an example of a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
A. Penicillin G
B. Vancomycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Erythromycin

A

Answer: C. Amoxicillin

Rationale: Amoxicillin is a broad-spectrum penicillin that works against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms

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11
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is classified as narrow-spectrum?
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin V
C. Piperacillin
D. Cefepime

A

Answer: B. Penicillin V

Rationale: Penicillin V is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic effective against Gram-positive bacteria

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12
Q

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics occurs primarily due to which of the following?
A. Genetic changes in the host
B. Development of altered drug receptors in the bacteria
C. Overproduction of natural enzymes by the host
D. Prolonged exposure to UV radiation

A

Answer: B. Development of altered drug receptors in the bacteria

Rationale: Bacteria develop resistance by changing the structure of their drug receptors, preventing antibiotics from binding effectively.

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13
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is effective against MRSA due to its resistance to beta-lactamase?
A. Cefazolin
B. Ceftaroline
C. Tetracycline
D. Penicillin G

A

Answer: B. Ceftaroline

Rationale: Ceftaroline is a 5th generation cephalosporin effective against MRSA because it binds to altered PBPs​.

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14
Q

A patient receiving penicillin reports experiencing throat swelling and difficulty breathing. What is the nurse’s first priority?
A. Administer antihistamines
B. Monitor for anaphylactic shock
C. Administer epinephrine
D. Discontinue the antibiotic immediately

A

Answer: C. Administer epinephrine

Rationale: The patient’s symptoms indicate anaphylaxis, which requires immediate treatment with epinephrine

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15
Q

Which antibiotic is most likely to cause a superinfection?
A. Clindamycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Ceftriaxone

A

Answer: A. Clindamycin

Rationale: Clindamycin has a high risk of causing superinfections like C. difficile due to its broad-spectrum activity

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16
Q

What adverse effect should the nurse educate the patient about when taking tetracycline?
A. Photosensitivity
B. Hypertension
C. Seizures
D. Hyperglycemia

A

Answer: A. Photosensitivity

Rationale: Tetracyclines can cause photosensitivity, leading to an exaggerated response to sunlight.

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17
Q

A patient taking aminoglycosides for a bacterial infection reports hearing loss. What is the most likely cause?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Photosensitivity

A

Answer: C. Ototoxicity

Rationale: Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss, especially with prolonged use or high doses

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18
Q

Which of the following drugs should not be mixed with penicillin in the same IV solution due to inactivation?
A. Tetracycline
B. Vancomycin
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Cephalosporins

A

Answer: C. Aminoglycosides

Rationale: Penicillin can inactivate aminoglycosides when mixed in the same IV solution, reducing the effectiveness of both drugs

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19
Q

A patient taking erythromycin should avoid which of the following drugs due to the risk of QT prolongation?
A. Digoxin
B. Warfarin
C. Verapamil
D. Acetaminophen

A

Answer: C. Verapamil

Rationale: Erythromycin can cause QT prolongation, and concurrent use with drugs like verapamil increases the risk of arrhythmias.

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20
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of vancomycin?
A. Inhibits protein synthesis
B. Inhibits DNA synthesis
C. Disrupts the formation of the bacterial cell wall
D. Binds to ribosomal sub-units.

A

Answer: C. Disrupts the formation of the bacterial cell wall

Rationale: Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis by preventing precursor molecules from forming the bacterial cell wall

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21
Q

Penicillin resistance in bacteria is primarily due to which of the following?
A. Activation of autolysins
B. Production of beta-lactamase
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Decreased production of bacterial enzymes

A

Answer: B. Production of beta-lactamase

Rationale: Bacteria produce beta-lactamase enzymes that break down the beta-lactam ring in penicillins, rendering them ineffective.

22
Q

How do tetracyclines inhibit bacterial growth?
A. By inhibiting cell wall synthesis
B. By inhibiting DNA synthesis
C. By preventing tRNA from binding to mRNA-ribosome complexes
D. By disrupting bacterial RNA synthesis

A

Answer: C. By preventing tRNA from binding to mRNA-ribosome complexes

Rationale: Tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal sub-unit and prevent tRNA from attaching to the mRNA-ribosome complex, inhibiting protein synthesis

23
Q

Which of the following best describes a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
A. It directly kills bacteria.
B. It enhances the immune system.
C. It prevents bacteria from growing, allowing the immune system to eliminate them.
D. It promotes the growth of healthy bacteria.

A

Answer: C. It prevents bacteria from growing, allowing the immune system to eliminate them.

Rationale: Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit the growth of bacteria, requiring a functioning immune system to eradicate the infection

24
Q

Which antibiotic is considered bactericidal and not bacteriostatic?
A. Tetracycline
B. Vancomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Erythromycin

A

Answer: B. Vancomycin

Rationale: Vancomycin is a bactericidal antibiotic that kills bacteria by disrupting their cell walls

25
Q

A nurse is explaining how bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT a way bacteria develop resistance?
A. Mutation in bacterial DNA
B. Production of drug-inactivating enzymes
C. Increased permeability to the antibiotic
D. Alteration of drug target sites

A

Answer: C. Increased permeability to the antibiotic

Rationale: Bacteria often develop resistance by decreasing permeability to antibiotics or pumping them out, not by increasing permeability

26
Q

Which of the following is an essential aspect of antimicrobial stewardship to prevent drug-resistant organisms?
A. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics for all infections
B. Identifying the causative microbe before prescribing an antibiotic
C. Using antibiotics for all viral infections
D. Delaying antibiotic therapy until after symptoms resolve

A

Answer: B. Identifying the causative microbe before prescribing an antibiotic

Rationale: Antimicrobial stewardship involves matching the antibiotic to the identified pathogen to minimize the development of resistance

27
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient receiving piperacillin. The patient asks why this drug is being used. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “Piperacillin is effective against MRSA.”
B. “Piperacillin is used for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.”
C. “Piperacillin is effective against most Gram-positive bacteria.”
D. “Piperacillin works well with viral infections.”

A

Answer: B. “Piperacillin is used for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections.”

Rationale: Piperacillin, an extended-spectrum penicillin, is effective against Gram-negative organisms, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa, often found in immunocompromised patients.

28
Q

Which generation of cephalosporins is most effective against MRSA?
A. First-generation
B. Second-generation
C. Third-generation
D. Fifth-generation

A

Answer: D. Fifth-generation

Rationale: Fifth-generation cephalosporins like ceftaroline are effective against MRSA

29
Q

A patient receiving penicillin G reports pain at the injection site. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Apply ice to the injection site.
B. Monitor the site for signs of infection.
C. Administer antihistamines.
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

A

Answer: B. Monitor the site for signs of infection.

Rationale: Penicillin G administered intramuscularly can cause pain at the injection site, and monitoring for infection is essential

30
Q

Which of the following adverse effects is associated with tetracyclines and requires patient education?
A. Discoloration of teeth in children under 8 years
B. Excessive sweating
C. Hypotension
D. Hyperglycemia

A

Answer: A. Discoloration of teeth in children under 8 years

Rationale: Tetracyclines can bind to calcium in developing teeth, causing permanent discoloration and are contraindicated in children under 8 years​

31
Q

A patient taking erythromycin should avoid which of the following drugs due to the risk of increased toxicity?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Theophylline
C. Ibuprofen
D. Amoxicillin

A

Answer: B. Theophylline

Rationale: Erythromycin inhibits P450 enzymes, which can increase the levels of drugs like theophylline, leading to toxicity

32
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the combination of penicillin and aminoglycosides in treating bacterial infections?
A. Penicillin increases the effectiveness of aminoglycosides when mixed in the same IV solution.
B. Penicillin must be administered first, and then aminoglycosides are given in separate solutions.
C. Aminoglycosides reduce the absorption of penicillin when given orally.
D. Penicillin inhibits the bactericidal effect of aminoglycosides.

A

Answer: B. Penicillin must be administered first, and then aminoglycosides are given in separate solutions.

Rationale: Penicillin weakens the bacterial cell wall, enhancing the entry of aminoglycosides into the bacterial cell, but they must be given separately to avoid inactivation

33
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT a beta-lactam antibiotic?
A. Penicillin G
B. Vancomycin
C. Cephalexin
D. Imipenem

A

Answer: B. Vancomycin

Rationale: Vancomycin is not a beta-lactam antibiotic; it disrupts the bacterial cell wall through a different mechanism​

34
Q

A nurse is reviewing the medication profile of a patient with renal insufficiency. Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate for this patient?
A. Tetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Gentamicin
D. Amoxicillin

A

Answer: B. Doxycycline

Rationale: Doxycycline is preferred for patients with renal insufficiency because it is primarily eliminated through the liver

35
Q

A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics for pneumonia develops diarrhea. The nurse suspects that the patient may have developed which of the following?
A. Viral gastroenteritis
B. C. difficile infection
C. E. coli infection
D. Norovirus infection

A

Answer: B. C. difficile infection

Rationale: Broad-spectrum antibiotics can lead to superinfections like C. difficile, resulting in severe diarrhea

36
Q

Which of the following is a critical component of antimicrobial stewardship programs?
A. Prescribing antibiotics for every bacterial infection
B. Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible
C. Delaying treatment until symptoms worsen
D. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics for all infections

A

Answer: B. Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible

Rationale: Antimicrobial stewardship aims to use narrow-spectrum antibiotics to target specific pathogens, reducing the risk of resistance

37
Q

How does erythromycin inhibit bacterial growth?
A. Inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis
B. Binds to the 50S ribosomal sub-unit and inhibits protein synthesis
C. Disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis
D. Prevents folic acid synthesis

A

Answer: B. Binds to the 50S ribosomal sub-unit and inhibits protein synthesis

Rationale: Erythromycin binds to the 50S sub-unit of bacterial ribosomes, preventing protein synthesis.

38
Q

Which antibiotic is primarily used as an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin?
A. Vancomycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Gentamicin

A

Answer: C. Erythromycin

Rationale: Erythromycin is often used as an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin, especially for similar infections​

39
Q

Which cephalosporin is best suited for treating a patient with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
A. Cefazolin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Cefepime
D. Ceftaroline

A

Answer: C. Cefepime

Rationale: Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is highly effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

40
Q

What is the definition of an antimicrobial?
A. A substance that enhances the growth of bacteria
B. A substance that can kill or suppress microorganisms
C. A substance that only affects viruses
D. A substance used exclusively in vaccines

A

Answer: B. A substance that can kill or suppress microorganisms

Rationale: Antimicrobials are agents used to kill or suppress the growth of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi​

41
Q

What is the difference between broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum antibiotics?
A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics target fewer microbes, while narrow-spectrum antibiotics target a wide range.
B. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics are only used for viral infections.
C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics affect many microbial species, while narrow-spectrum antibiotics affect specific species.
D. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics target fungi only, while broad-spectrum antibiotics target bacteria.

A

Answer: C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics affect many microbial species, while narrow-spectrum antibiotics affect specific species.

Rationale: Broad-spectrum antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacteria, while narrow-spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria

42
Q

Which of the following best defines a bacteriostatic drug?
A. A drug that kills bacteria
B. A drug that enhances bacterial growth
C. A drug that slows bacterial growth without killing it
D. A drug that suppresses the immune system

A

Answer: C. A drug that slows bacterial growth without killing it

Rationale: Bacteriostatic drugs inhibit the growth of bacteria, allowing the immune system to eliminate the infection

43
Q

What is the primary difference between aerobic and anaerobic bacteria?
A. Aerobic bacteria survive without oxygen, while anaerobic bacteria need oxygen.
B. Aerobic bacteria need oxygen to survive, while anaerobic bacteria thrive without oxygen.
C. Anaerobic bacteria only survive in the lungs.
D. Aerobic bacteria are only found in the bloodstream.

A

Answer: B. Aerobic bacteria need oxygen to survive, while anaerobic bacteria thrive without oxygen.

Rationale: Aerobic bacteria require oxygen for growth, while anaerobic bacteria grow in environments where oxygen is absent

44
Q

Which of the following defines a superinfection?
A. An infection caused by a super-bug.
B. A new infection that occurs during treatment of a primary infection
C. An infection that is resistant to all antibiotics
D. A viral infection that follows a bacterial infection

A

Answer: B. A new infection that occurs during treatment of a primary infection

Rationale: A superinfection is a secondary infection that occurs when normal flora are disrupted by antibiotic treatment, allowing opportunistic pathogens to proliferate.

45
Q

What is the peak level of a drug?
A. The lowest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream
B. The highest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream
C. The concentration of the drug before administration
D. The concentration of the drug during excretion

A

Answer: B. The highest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream

Rationale: The peak level of a drug refers to the highest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream after administration​

46
Q

Which of the following describes selective toxicity?
A. The ability to target multiple types of pathogens
B. The ability of a drug to injure the target organism without harming the host
C. The ability of a drug to enhance immune function
D. The ability of a drug to cause resistance in pathogens

A

Answer: B. The ability of a drug to injure the target organism without harming the host

Rationale: Selective toxicity is the ability of an antimicrobial drug to harm the pathogen while minimizing damage to the host​

47
Q

What is a trough level?
A. The highest drug concentration in a serum blood sample
B. The level of drug in the blood before the next dose
C. The amount of drug excreted in the urine
D. The amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract

A

Answer: B. The level of drug in the blood before the next dose

Rationale: The trough level refers to the lowest concentration of a drug in the bloodstream, measured before the next dose is administered

48
Q

Which of the following best describes penicillinase?
A. An enzyme that breaks down penicillin
B. A drug that enhances penicillin absorption
C. A protein that helps penicillin bind to bacteria
D. A receptor that penicillin binds to on bacterial cells

A

Answer: A. An enzyme that breaks down penicillin

Rationale: Penicillinase, also known as beta-lactamase, is an enzyme produced by some bacteria that inactivates penicillin, making the bacteria resistant to the drug

49
Q

What is the definition of a facultative bacterium?
A. A bacterium that only survives in the presence of oxygen
B. A bacterium that only survives in the absence of oxygen
C. A bacterium that can survive with or without oxygen
D. A bacterium that only grows in high temperatures

A

Answer: C. A bacterium that can survive with or without oxygen

Rationale: Facultative bacteria can adapt to both aerobic and anaerobic environments, allowing them to survive with or without oxygen

50
Q

What is the role of penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) in bacterial cells?
A. They are enzymes that break down antibiotics.
B. They are proteins that help bacteria produce toxins.
C. They are the molecular targets for beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin.
D. They are proteins responsible for antibiotic resistance.

A

Answer: C. They are the molecular targets for beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin.

Rationale: Penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) are essential for bacterial cell wall synthesis. Beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin bind to PBPs, inhibiting cell wall formation and leading to bacterial death during cell growth and division