Week 9 - Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

what is the mnemonic for the stages of mitosis?

A

Portugese - prophase - chromosome condensation
Men - metaphase - chromosomes line up and spindle fibres attach
Are - Anaphase - sister chromatids pulled apart
Totally - Telophase - 2 new nuclear membranes form
Cool - cytokenesis - division of cytoplasm

Interphase is anything which isn’t M or G0

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2
Q

cell cycle stages

A
G1 - growth - protein synthesis
G0 - quiescence - when the cell doesn't get signals to keep dividing
S - synthesis - DNA replication
G2 - growth - protein synthesis
M - mitosis
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3
Q

where are the checkpoints?

A

The first checkpoint occurs between G1 and S, and is creatively named the G1/S checkpoint. It is also known as the restriction point. checks that all the proteins and energy necessary for the S phase are present, that the cell is large enough for the S phase, that its DNA isn’t damaged, and that there are signals from nearby cells, telling the cell to go ahead with division.

The second checkpoint occurs between G2 and M, and is called the G2/M checkpoint. involves checking that the cell has replicated all of its DNA and done any DNA repair that it needs to before entering mitosis

The final checkpoint occurs between metaphase and anaphase, and is called the “spindle checkpoint” or “spindle assembly checkpoint”

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4
Q

what are the two important cell cycle regulators?

A

cyclins - proteins
G1 cyclins, including cyclin Ds -CD4/CD6
G1/S cyclins, including cyclin Es -CD2
S cyclins, including cyclin As -CD2
M cyclins, including cyclin Bs -CD1
don’t eat any bacon

CDKs - cyclin dependent kinases - remember a kinase is an enzyme which phosphorylates something

these are intrinsic cell cycle factors

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5
Q

what do CDK inhibitors do?

A

bind to make a CDK-cyclin-inhibitor complex which deactivates the CDK

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6
Q

what is the importance of the retinoblastoma gene?

A

produces Rb which binds to E2Fs (transcription factors which are commitment factors - push the cell throught the checkpoint to promote entry to S phase) and inhibits them
thus Rb usually inhibits the progression of the cell cycle
a certain level of phosphorylation stops this, leading to cell cycle progression - cyclin D does this

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7
Q

what is atrophy?

A

either a reduction in number of cells or size of cells

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8
Q

what is dysplasia?

A

Dysplasia is the abnormal development of a tissue with proliferation of abnormal cells. It is pathological

precancerous

A disturbance in the regular organisation of the epithelium, with varied shapes and sizes of cell (this variation is called pleomorphism)

A larger nucleus:cytoplasm ratio (that is, the nucleus gets bigger within the cell), and hyperchromatic nuclei (these take up more stain than normal, appearing dark). So, big dark nuclei.

Increased mitosis - so they are proliferating faster than normal. This will be shown in a higher prevalence of mitotic figures.

loss of polarity

cell stratification - piling up on top of each other

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9
Q

what is metaplasia?

A

Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of differentiated cell with another in response to injury

Barrett’s esophagus which occurs when acid reflux disease means that stomach acid repeatedly comes up into the esophagus. The chronic injury and inflammation to the throat leads to the normal stratified squamous epithelium lining it to be replaced by simple columnar epithelium with goblet cells

exposure of the bronchial epithelium persistently to tobacco smoke which injures the epithelium of the bronchial tree and you get a change from the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium to a squamous epithelium. This called squamous metaplasia as it’s named after the cell it turns into. Can go onto form squamous cancers in smokers.

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10
Q

what is hypertrophy?

A

increase in size of cells

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11
Q

what is hyperplasia?

A

increase in number of cells

can be normal such as lactating breast

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12
Q

what is neoplasia?

A

Neoplasia is the formation of a tumor. A tumor is an abnormal mass of tissue with excessive and uncoordinated growth that persists in the same excessive manner after the stimulus driving it is removed.

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13
Q

what is clonal evolution

A

cancerous cells have a high rate of mutation, so as the cells divide, they may all arise from a single founder, but certain cells will mutate and then give rise to their own clonal, mutated lines. Therefore the descendants of the same founder cell can be very different from each other.

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14
Q

what is a sessile tumor?

A

A sessile tumor is a low, flat tumor.

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15
Q

what is an ulcerating tumor?

A

An ulcerating tumor is one that breaks through the surface of the skin, appearing as a wound. You might also hear them described as fungating, though this just describes a tumor with a mushroom-like appearance which may or may not be true of any ulcerating tumor. Ulcerating tumors are more common in breast, head and neck cancer or in melanoma.

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16
Q

what is an annular tumor?

A

An annular tumor is most commonly found in colorectal cancer and grows around the surface of the colon and inwards. like build up on the inside of a pipe

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17
Q

what is the difference between an exophytic tumour and an endophytic on?

A

An exophytic is a tumor that grows outwards from the surface of whatever structure it originated on. Unsurprisingly, an endophytic tumor is one that grows inwards. Exophytic growth is more characteristic of benign growth, and endophytic of malignant, but this is not going to be true 100% of the time.

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18
Q

what is a polyp?

A

A polyp is a growth of tissue that projects from a mucus membrane (such as those we see in the colon, stomach, uterus, and nasal cavity, among other places). A pedunculated polyp is one which grows on a stalk, sitting on it above the epithelium. exophytic

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19
Q

what is a papillary tumor?

A

A papillary tumor occurs in finger-like projections, so is exophytic

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20
Q

what are the eight hallmarks of cancer?

A
  1. self-sufficiency in growth signaling (cell cycle control)
  2. evading apoptosis (death pathways)
  3. limitless replicative potential (immortalisation)
  4. insensitivity to anti-growth signals (signaling pathways)
  5. sustained angiogenesis (cytokines)
  6. tissue invasion & metastasis (adhesion, proteolysis & movement)
  7. deregulating cellular energetics - aerobic glycolysis
  8. avoiding immune destruction
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21
Q

what are oncogenes?

A

Proto-oncogenes are genes that are important in growth control normally, but if mutated, gain a function that drives cancer growth, becoming oncogenes. only need one allele. Ras is a proto-oncogene

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22
Q

what are tumor supressor genes?

A

Tumor suppressor genes are those which actively work to regulate tissue growth and action, for example by keeping the cell cycle in check. lose function in cancer
need both alleles to lose function
retinoblastoma is a tumor supressor gene

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23
Q

what are the two ways of tumor supressor gene inactivation?

A

one inherited, one normal - heterozygous - just one mutation needed in each cell. - multiple tumours in both eyes

also in BRCA 1 - breast cancer
BRCA 2 - ovarian cancer
FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis coli) - bowel cancer caused by one inherited mutation of APC gene

APC is a regulatory protein in the Wnt ligand pathway (signalling pathway in tissue organisation and cell-cell signalling). APC regulates β-catenin, which acts as a transcription factor for growth promoting genes. Therefore, mutated APC will not bind β-catenin and so growth becomes uncontrolled (especially in colon).

both sporadic mutation - much rarer - one tumour in one eye

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24
Q

benign tumours

A
exophytic
more differentiated
have a capsule
do not invade 
smooth
homogenous
slow growing
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25
Q

malignant tumours

A
endophytic
less differentiated
no capsule
invade and metastasise
necrosis and irregular
heterogenous
grow quickly
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26
Q

how does burkitts lymphoma happen?

A

translocation between 8 and 14
gene for c-myc next to gene which codes for and promotes immunoglobulin G action. The c-myc is left under the control of the IgG enhancers, becoming constitutively active and leading to a cancer of B lymphocytes

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27
Q

what are competence factors?

A

Competence factors are those that trigger the cell to enter the cycle i.e. to go from g0 to g1

extrinsic cell cycle factor

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28
Q

what are commitment factors?

A

Commitment factors tend to push the cell through G1 and round the cell cycle. There’s a checkpoint at the end of g1 and the commitment factors are pushing the cell through this checkpoint so that it can complete the cycle once it’s entered the cycle.

extrinsic cell cycle factor

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29
Q

Papilloma

A

Surface squamous epithelia eg skin, cervix, oesophagus

benign

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30
Q

adenoma

A

glandular epithelia eg colon, breast, ovary

benign

31
Q

lipoma

A

Adipocytes (fat cell)

benign

32
Q

Fibroma

A

Fibrocytes (fibroblast)

benign

33
Q

Chondroma

A

Chondrocytes (cell of cartilage

benign

34
Q

Leiomyoma

A

smooth muscle

benign

35
Q

Rhabdomyoma

A
striated muscle (skeletal muscle cell)         
benign
36
Q

Osteoma

A

bone

benign

37
Q

Teratoma

A

germ cells

benign

38
Q

how do you name malignant tumours?

A

sarcoma instead of oma

apart from:

squamous cell carcinoma
Teratocarcinoma
melanoma - skin (melanocytes) - no benign melanomas
seminoma - semen
lymphoma - lymph nodes - no benign lymphomas
leukaemia - blood

39
Q

where do keratin pearls form?

A

in squamous cell carcinomas

40
Q

what is desmoplastic stroma?

A

response to neoplasia - abnormally dense connective tissue (stroma)

41
Q

how can a cancer metastasise?

A

lymphatic vessels
haematogenous (bloodstream) (often venous as the walls are thinner and easier to penetrate)
transcoelomic (spread across a body cavity)

changes in cell-cell or cell-matrix adhesion is necessary for invasion
cadherins for cell-cell and
adherins for cell-matrix

cancer cells signal stromal fibroblasts to secrete matrix metallo proteases to break down cell matrix

42
Q

how do you stage cancer?

A

T - tumour size (1-4)
N - lymph node involvement (0 - none, 1- few nearby, 2-many nearby
M - extent of metastasis (o - none, 1 - one, 2 - many

43
Q

what are cancerous precursors?

A

Pre-invasive stages are called intra-epithelial neoplasms – benign
CIN – cervical intra-epithelial neoplasm

  • abnormal nuclei (pleomorphism & hyperchromasia)
  • abnormal mitoses
  • loss of nuclear polarity
  • loss of differentiation
  • These abnormal cells HAVE NOT INVADED They stay on the epithelial side of the basement membrane – intra-epithelial (benign)
44
Q

what is the dose response?

A

a linear relationship between the amount of carcinogen delivered in a single dose and the number of tumours which develop.

45
Q

what is the latent period?

A

time lag between the administration of a carcinogen and appearance of macroscopic tumours. The length of this time lag is dose dependent, as high doses reduce it, low doses extend it.

46
Q

what is the threshold dose?

A

There is a threshold dose of carcinogen, below which no tumours form.

47
Q

what is initiation?

A

the alteration of a normal cell to a potentially cancerous cell

48
Q

what is promotion?

A

a process which permits the clonal amplification of the initiated cell. Promoters are not mutagens, they induce proliferation (“fix* the mutation”=make permanent )

49
Q

what is progression?

A

Sometimes a third stage is added: acquisition of further mutations within the neoplastic clone drive progression to a malignant neoplasm.

50
Q

what is the Hayflick number

A

Primary diploid cells in tissue culture only undergo a defined number of cell divisions before senescence

51
Q

what can viral oncogenes do?

A

immortalise human cells

Some retroviruses are oncogenic but do not carry oncogenes

52
Q

what does telomerase do?

A

repairs DNA in telomeres lost during cell division. In stem cells and 90% of cancers express it

53
Q

what genes are targeted in cancer?

A

• Cell proliferation
• Cell death
• Signalling to/from cells & matrix
• Monitor & maintain genetic stability/genomic integrity
• Regulate and maintain tissue architecture
o Movement
o Adhesion In cancer

54
Q

what does p53 do?

A

p53 is in very low concentrations in normal situations. When DNA is damaged, p53 is stabilized and its concentration increases. Acts as a transcription factor inducing the expression of protein p21, a cdk inhibitor, binding to it so that it can’t phosphorylate Rb which inhibits almost all cdk/cyclin complexes, leading to cell cycle arrest in G1 and G2. If repair is impossible, apoptosis occurs.

p53 is mutated in ~50% of cancers. If p53 is mutated at one allele, then the probability of generating functional p53 tetramers is significantly reduced.
Mutated p53 permits the survival and replication of cells with damaged DNA.

Mutating p53 makes the cell genetically unstable Deregulation of both Rb and p53 is essential if replicative senescence is to be overcome

p53 is an exception in that only one damaged allele can cause cancer – a cell with damaged DNA is free to proliferate dangerously.

55
Q

how many mutation are necessary for cancer?

A

> 6 for solid cancers

less for leukaemia

56
Q

what is the role of MMR?

A

MMR corrects mismatched bases (eg C-T instead of C-G)
Corrects insertion/deletion loops by cutting a few bases either side of mistake. new DNA sealed by ligase.
In absence of mismatch repair, mutation rate increases 100-1000x

57
Q

what is nucleotide excision repair?

A

Recognizes adjacent thymines crosslinked by UV and carcinogens attached to bases
Defects in excision repair occurs in Xeroderma Pigmentosum

58
Q

what is DNA strand break repair?

A

Repairs single strand and double strand breaks

59
Q

what does a formaldehyde interstrand crosslink do?

A

block transcription and translation

60
Q

what is kataegis?

A

A pattern of localized hypermutation in some cancer genomes – almost exclusively C>T

61
Q

what is chromothrtipsis?

A

up to thousands of clustered chromosomal rearrangements occur in a single event in localised and confined genomic regions in one (or a few) chromosomes

62
Q

what is the philadelphia translocation?

A

translocation of 9 and 22 – leads to chronic myeloid leukemia

63
Q

what happens with angiogenesis in cancer?

A

cancer cells release angiogenic factors - vessels are leaky at first
Poor gas exchange in tumours – necrosis – reduced effect of cytotoxic drugs

64
Q

why is metastatic spread not random?

A

Anatomy plays a part – colorectal cancer spreads to the liver due to its venous drainage to the hepatic portal vein

Organ specificity – due to adhesion molecules that the cancer cells express – preferential attachment to different capillary beds
some cancer cells cannot grow in certain environments (soil and seed hypothesis)

65
Q

what do cancer stem cells do?

A

Evidence that both leukemias and solid tumours contain a small sub-population that
• Self renew
• Proliferate indefinitely
• Can reproduce the cancer through serial transplantation

66
Q

what kinds of cancer therapies are there?

A
•	Surgery
       o	Remove or de-bulk local tumour
•	Radiotherapy
       o	Local and regional disease
•	Chemotherapy
       o	Systemic treatment for metastatic disease combination of drugs each with a different site of action needed for effective treatment

Immunotherapies – stimulate patients immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells

Synthetic lethality – in cancers which have defective DNA double strand repair, drugs which inhibit other major DNA repair pathways can lead to cell death in the cancer cell.

67
Q

what can happen to EGFR?

A

The epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) can become overactive by either amplification producing multiple copies of the gene or truncation of the gene causing the receptor produced to become constitutively active. The cell will act like it is constantly receiving growth factor signals and so proliferate excessively.

68
Q

what are causes of cancer?

A

Smoking chemicals - 30% of cancer in UK

Radiation - hiroshima has much higher rates of cancer, especially leukaemia

Environmental factors - higher levels of stomach cancer and lower levels of breast cancer in japan compared to USA

Occupational risk - chimney sweeps had higher rates of scrotal cancer, bladder cancer in dye industry, Sex workers show higher incidence for cervical and anal cancer – HPV
Mesothelioma after asbestos exposure

Chemical carcinogen - Synthetic
o Polycyclic hydrocarbons – benzpyrene, benzanthracene, methyl choranthrene
o Aromatic amines and Azo dyes – beta-napthylamine (activated in liver by addition of -OH then solubilized by addition glucuronyl but glucuronyl removed in bladder → activated → bladder cancer

Naturally occurring
o Nitrosamines
o Aflatoxin

Infectious agents -

Parasites
o Chronic irritation from schistosoma haematobium

Bacteria
o Infection with helicobacter pylori – major risk factor for the development of gastric carcinoma and gastric lymphoma

Viruses
o Both DNA and RNA viruses are known to cause cancer in animals
o In humans
 HPV – carcinoma cervix – present in 99.7% invasive cervical carcinoma
 HBV, HCV – hepatocellular carcinoma
 Epstein Barr virus – Burkitt’s lymphoma, ?Hodgkins lymphoma?
 HTLV 1 - Adults T cell leukemia
 HHV 8 – Kaposi’s sarcoma
o Cancer is chronic, multi-stage disease over a long time, viral infection initiates. Difficult to show that the virus causes the cancer

69
Q

difference between mutagen and carcinogen

A

Mutagens – most are metabolically inactive pro-carcinogens – need to be activated to an active form – ultimate carcinogen
Ultimate carcinogen – highly reactive electrophilic molecule directly damages DNA

70
Q

how do you work out if a virus causes cancer?

A

o Case/control studies – comparing infection with the virus in patients with/without cancer
o Prospective cohort studies – follow a population infected with the virus to see if they develop cancer

71
Q

use of vaccination to prevent cancer

A

Hep B vaccination available since 1980s – liver cancer decreasing in vaccinated population
HPV vaccine – >98% efficacy

72
Q

what does rising level of tumour markers after surgical removal indicate?

A

a recurrence

73
Q

where is blastoma found?

A

in children, where the cells have not fully differentiated