Week 9 - Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

what is the mnemonic for the stages of mitosis?

A

Portugese - prophase - chromosome condensation
Men - metaphase - chromosomes line up and spindle fibres attach
Are - Anaphase - sister chromatids pulled apart
Totally - Telophase - 2 new nuclear membranes form
Cool - cytokenesis - division of cytoplasm

Interphase is anything which isn’t M or G0

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2
Q

cell cycle stages

A
G1 - growth - protein synthesis
G0 - quiescence - when the cell doesn't get signals to keep dividing
S - synthesis - DNA replication
G2 - growth - protein synthesis
M - mitosis
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3
Q

where are the checkpoints?

A

The first checkpoint occurs between G1 and S, and is creatively named the G1/S checkpoint. It is also known as the restriction point. checks that all the proteins and energy necessary for the S phase are present, that the cell is large enough for the S phase, that its DNA isn’t damaged, and that there are signals from nearby cells, telling the cell to go ahead with division.

The second checkpoint occurs between G2 and M, and is called the G2/M checkpoint. involves checking that the cell has replicated all of its DNA and done any DNA repair that it needs to before entering mitosis

The final checkpoint occurs between metaphase and anaphase, and is called the “spindle checkpoint” or “spindle assembly checkpoint”

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4
Q

what are the two important cell cycle regulators?

A

cyclins - proteins
G1 cyclins, including cyclin Ds -CD4/CD6
G1/S cyclins, including cyclin Es -CD2
S cyclins, including cyclin As -CD2
M cyclins, including cyclin Bs -CD1
don’t eat any bacon

CDKs - cyclin dependent kinases - remember a kinase is an enzyme which phosphorylates something

these are intrinsic cell cycle factors

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5
Q

what do CDK inhibitors do?

A

bind to make a CDK-cyclin-inhibitor complex which deactivates the CDK

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6
Q

what is the importance of the retinoblastoma gene?

A

produces Rb which binds to E2Fs (transcription factors which are commitment factors - push the cell throught the checkpoint to promote entry to S phase) and inhibits them
thus Rb usually inhibits the progression of the cell cycle
a certain level of phosphorylation stops this, leading to cell cycle progression - cyclin D does this

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7
Q

what is atrophy?

A

either a reduction in number of cells or size of cells

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8
Q

what is dysplasia?

A

Dysplasia is the abnormal development of a tissue with proliferation of abnormal cells. It is pathological

precancerous

A disturbance in the regular organisation of the epithelium, with varied shapes and sizes of cell (this variation is called pleomorphism)

A larger nucleus:cytoplasm ratio (that is, the nucleus gets bigger within the cell), and hyperchromatic nuclei (these take up more stain than normal, appearing dark). So, big dark nuclei.

Increased mitosis - so they are proliferating faster than normal. This will be shown in a higher prevalence of mitotic figures.

loss of polarity

cell stratification - piling up on top of each other

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9
Q

what is metaplasia?

A

Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of differentiated cell with another in response to injury

Barrett’s esophagus which occurs when acid reflux disease means that stomach acid repeatedly comes up into the esophagus. The chronic injury and inflammation to the throat leads to the normal stratified squamous epithelium lining it to be replaced by simple columnar epithelium with goblet cells

exposure of the bronchial epithelium persistently to tobacco smoke which injures the epithelium of the bronchial tree and you get a change from the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium to a squamous epithelium. This called squamous metaplasia as it’s named after the cell it turns into. Can go onto form squamous cancers in smokers.

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10
Q

what is hypertrophy?

A

increase in size of cells

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11
Q

what is hyperplasia?

A

increase in number of cells

can be normal such as lactating breast

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12
Q

what is neoplasia?

A

Neoplasia is the formation of a tumor. A tumor is an abnormal mass of tissue with excessive and uncoordinated growth that persists in the same excessive manner after the stimulus driving it is removed.

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13
Q

what is clonal evolution

A

cancerous cells have a high rate of mutation, so as the cells divide, they may all arise from a single founder, but certain cells will mutate and then give rise to their own clonal, mutated lines. Therefore the descendants of the same founder cell can be very different from each other.

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14
Q

what is a sessile tumor?

A

A sessile tumor is a low, flat tumor.

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15
Q

what is an ulcerating tumor?

A

An ulcerating tumor is one that breaks through the surface of the skin, appearing as a wound. You might also hear them described as fungating, though this just describes a tumor with a mushroom-like appearance which may or may not be true of any ulcerating tumor. Ulcerating tumors are more common in breast, head and neck cancer or in melanoma.

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16
Q

what is an annular tumor?

A

An annular tumor is most commonly found in colorectal cancer and grows around the surface of the colon and inwards. like build up on the inside of a pipe

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17
Q

what is the difference between an exophytic tumour and an endophytic on?

A

An exophytic is a tumor that grows outwards from the surface of whatever structure it originated on. Unsurprisingly, an endophytic tumor is one that grows inwards. Exophytic growth is more characteristic of benign growth, and endophytic of malignant, but this is not going to be true 100% of the time.

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18
Q

what is a polyp?

A

A polyp is a growth of tissue that projects from a mucus membrane (such as those we see in the colon, stomach, uterus, and nasal cavity, among other places). A pedunculated polyp is one which grows on a stalk, sitting on it above the epithelium. exophytic

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19
Q

what is a papillary tumor?

A

A papillary tumor occurs in finger-like projections, so is exophytic

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20
Q

what are the eight hallmarks of cancer?

A
  1. self-sufficiency in growth signaling (cell cycle control)
  2. evading apoptosis (death pathways)
  3. limitless replicative potential (immortalisation)
  4. insensitivity to anti-growth signals (signaling pathways)
  5. sustained angiogenesis (cytokines)
  6. tissue invasion & metastasis (adhesion, proteolysis & movement)
  7. deregulating cellular energetics - aerobic glycolysis
  8. avoiding immune destruction
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21
Q

what are oncogenes?

A

Proto-oncogenes are genes that are important in growth control normally, but if mutated, gain a function that drives cancer growth, becoming oncogenes. only need one allele. Ras is a proto-oncogene

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22
Q

what are tumor supressor genes?

A

Tumor suppressor genes are those which actively work to regulate tissue growth and action, for example by keeping the cell cycle in check. lose function in cancer
need both alleles to lose function
retinoblastoma is a tumor supressor gene

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23
Q

what are the two ways of tumor supressor gene inactivation?

A

one inherited, one normal - heterozygous - just one mutation needed in each cell. - multiple tumours in both eyes

also in BRCA 1 - breast cancer
BRCA 2 - ovarian cancer
FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis coli) - bowel cancer caused by one inherited mutation of APC gene

APC is a regulatory protein in the Wnt ligand pathway (signalling pathway in tissue organisation and cell-cell signalling). APC regulates β-catenin, which acts as a transcription factor for growth promoting genes. Therefore, mutated APC will not bind β-catenin and so growth becomes uncontrolled (especially in colon).

both sporadic mutation - much rarer - one tumour in one eye

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24
Q

benign tumours

A
exophytic
more differentiated
have a capsule
do not invade 
smooth
homogenous
slow growing
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25
malignant tumours
``` endophytic less differentiated no capsule invade and metastasise necrosis and irregular heterogenous grow quickly ```
26
how does burkitts lymphoma happen?
translocation between 8 and 14 gene for c-myc next to gene which codes for and promotes immunoglobulin G action. The c-myc is left under the control of the IgG enhancers, becoming constitutively active and leading to a cancer of B lymphocytes
27
what are competence factors?
Competence factors are those that trigger the cell to enter the cycle i.e. to go from g0 to g1 extrinsic cell cycle factor
28
what are commitment factors?
Commitment factors tend to push the cell through G1 and round the cell cycle. There’s a checkpoint at the end of g1 and the commitment factors are pushing the cell through this checkpoint so that it can complete the cycle once it’s entered the cycle. extrinsic cell cycle factor
29
Papilloma
Surface squamous epithelia eg skin, cervix, oesophagus | benign
30
adenoma
glandular epithelia eg colon, breast, ovary | benign
31
lipoma
Adipocytes (fat cell) | benign
32
Fibroma
Fibrocytes (fibroblast) | benign
33
Chondroma
Chondrocytes (cell of cartilage | benign
34
Leiomyoma
smooth muscle | benign
35
Rhabdomyoma
``` striated muscle (skeletal muscle cell) benign ```
36
Osteoma
bone | benign
37
Teratoma
germ cells | benign
38
how do you name malignant tumours?
sarcoma instead of oma apart from: squamous cell carcinoma Teratocarcinoma melanoma - skin (melanocytes) - no benign melanomas seminoma - semen lymphoma - lymph nodes - no benign lymphomas leukaemia - blood
39
where do keratin pearls form?
in squamous cell carcinomas
40
what is desmoplastic stroma?
response to neoplasia - abnormally dense connective tissue (stroma)
41
how can a cancer metastasise?
lymphatic vessels haematogenous (bloodstream) (often venous as the walls are thinner and easier to penetrate) transcoelomic (spread across a body cavity) changes in cell-cell or cell-matrix adhesion is necessary for invasion cadherins for cell-cell and adherins for cell-matrix cancer cells signal stromal fibroblasts to secrete matrix metallo proteases to break down cell matrix
42
how do you stage cancer?
T - tumour size (1-4) N - lymph node involvement (0 - none, 1- few nearby, 2-many nearby M - extent of metastasis (o - none, 1 - one, 2 - many
43
what are cancerous precursors?
Pre-invasive stages are called intra-epithelial neoplasms – benign CIN – cervical intra-epithelial neoplasm * abnormal nuclei (pleomorphism & hyperchromasia) * abnormal mitoses * loss of nuclear polarity * loss of differentiation * These abnormal cells HAVE NOT INVADED They stay on the epithelial side of the basement membrane – intra-epithelial (benign)
44
what is the dose response?
a linear relationship between the amount of carcinogen delivered in a single dose and the number of tumours which develop.
45
what is the latent period?
time lag between the administration of a carcinogen and appearance of macroscopic tumours. The length of this time lag is dose dependent, as high doses reduce it, low doses extend it.
46
what is the threshold dose?
There is a threshold dose of carcinogen, below which no tumours form.
47
what is initiation?
the alteration of a normal cell to a potentially cancerous cell
48
what is promotion?
a process which permits the clonal amplification of the initiated cell. Promoters are not mutagens, they induce proliferation (“fix* the mutation”=make permanent )
49
what is progression?
Sometimes a third stage is added: acquisition of further mutations within the neoplastic clone drive progression to a malignant neoplasm.
50
what is the Hayflick number
Primary diploid cells in tissue culture only undergo a defined number of cell divisions before senescence
51
what can viral oncogenes do?
immortalise human cells | Some retroviruses are oncogenic but do not carry oncogenes
52
what does telomerase do?
repairs DNA in telomeres lost during cell division. In stem cells and 90% of cancers express it
53
what genes are targeted in cancer?
• Cell proliferation • Cell death • Signalling to/from cells & matrix • Monitor & maintain genetic stability/genomic integrity • Regulate and maintain tissue architecture o Movement o Adhesion In cancer
54
what does p53 do?
p53 is in very low concentrations in normal situations. When DNA is damaged, p53 is stabilized and its concentration increases. Acts as a transcription factor inducing the expression of protein p21, a cdk inhibitor, binding to it so that it can’t phosphorylate Rb which inhibits almost all cdk/cyclin complexes, leading to cell cycle arrest in G1 and G2. If repair is impossible, apoptosis occurs. p53 is mutated in ~50% of cancers. If p53 is mutated at one allele, then the probability of generating functional p53 tetramers is significantly reduced. Mutated p53 permits the survival and replication of cells with damaged DNA. Mutating p53 makes the cell genetically unstable Deregulation of both Rb and p53 is essential if replicative senescence is to be overcome p53 is an exception in that only one damaged allele can cause cancer – a cell with damaged DNA is free to proliferate dangerously.
55
how many mutation are necessary for cancer?
>6 for solid cancers | less for leukaemia
56
what is the role of MMR?
MMR corrects mismatched bases (eg C-T instead of C-G) Corrects insertion/deletion loops by cutting a few bases either side of mistake. new DNA sealed by ligase. In absence of mismatch repair, mutation rate increases 100-1000x
57
what is nucleotide excision repair?
Recognizes adjacent thymines crosslinked by UV and carcinogens attached to bases Defects in excision repair occurs in Xeroderma Pigmentosum
58
what is DNA strand break repair?
Repairs single strand and double strand breaks
59
what does a formaldehyde interstrand crosslink do?
block transcription and translation
60
what is kataegis?
A pattern of localized hypermutation in some cancer genomes – almost exclusively C>T
61
what is chromothrtipsis?
up to thousands of clustered chromosomal rearrangements occur in a single event in localised and confined genomic regions in one (or a few) chromosomes
62
what is the philadelphia translocation?
translocation of 9 and 22 – leads to chronic myeloid leukemia
63
what happens with angiogenesis in cancer?
cancer cells release angiogenic factors - vessels are leaky at first Poor gas exchange in tumours – necrosis – reduced effect of cytotoxic drugs
64
why is metastatic spread not random?
Anatomy plays a part – colorectal cancer spreads to the liver due to its venous drainage to the hepatic portal vein Organ specificity – due to adhesion molecules that the cancer cells express – preferential attachment to different capillary beds some cancer cells cannot grow in certain environments (soil and seed hypothesis)
65
what do cancer stem cells do?
Evidence that both leukemias and solid tumours contain a small sub-population that • Self renew • Proliferate indefinitely • Can reproduce the cancer through serial transplantation
66
what kinds of cancer therapies are there?
``` • Surgery o Remove or de-bulk local tumour • Radiotherapy o Local and regional disease • Chemotherapy o Systemic treatment for metastatic disease combination of drugs each with a different site of action needed for effective treatment ``` Immunotherapies – stimulate patients immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells Synthetic lethality – in cancers which have defective DNA double strand repair, drugs which inhibit other major DNA repair pathways can lead to cell death in the cancer cell.
67
what can happen to EGFR?
The epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) can become overactive by either amplification producing multiple copies of the gene or truncation of the gene causing the receptor produced to become constitutively active. The cell will act like it is constantly receiving growth factor signals and so proliferate excessively.
68
what are causes of cancer?
Smoking chemicals - 30% of cancer in UK Radiation - hiroshima has much higher rates of cancer, especially leukaemia Environmental factors - higher levels of stomach cancer and lower levels of breast cancer in japan compared to USA Occupational risk - chimney sweeps had higher rates of scrotal cancer, bladder cancer in dye industry, Sex workers show higher incidence for cervical and anal cancer – HPV Mesothelioma after asbestos exposure Chemical carcinogen - Synthetic o Polycyclic hydrocarbons – benzpyrene, benzanthracene, methyl choranthrene o Aromatic amines and Azo dyes – beta-napthylamine (activated in liver by addition of -OH then solubilized by addition glucuronyl but glucuronyl removed in bladder → activated → bladder cancer Naturally occurring o Nitrosamines o Aflatoxin Infectious agents - Parasites o Chronic irritation from schistosoma haematobium Bacteria o Infection with helicobacter pylori – major risk factor for the development of gastric carcinoma and gastric lymphoma Viruses o Both DNA and RNA viruses are known to cause cancer in animals o In humans  HPV – carcinoma cervix – present in 99.7% invasive cervical carcinoma  HBV, HCV – hepatocellular carcinoma  Epstein Barr virus – Burkitt’s lymphoma, ?Hodgkins lymphoma?  HTLV 1 - Adults T cell leukemia  HHV 8 – Kaposi’s sarcoma o Cancer is chronic, multi-stage disease over a long time, viral infection initiates. Difficult to show that the virus causes the cancer
69
difference between mutagen and carcinogen
Mutagens – most are metabolically inactive pro-carcinogens – need to be activated to an active form – ultimate carcinogen Ultimate carcinogen – highly reactive electrophilic molecule directly damages DNA
70
how do you work out if a virus causes cancer?
o Case/control studies – comparing infection with the virus in patients with/without cancer o Prospective cohort studies – follow a population infected with the virus to see if they develop cancer
71
use of vaccination to prevent cancer
Hep B vaccination available since 1980s – liver cancer decreasing in vaccinated population HPV vaccine – >98% efficacy
72
what does rising level of tumour markers after surgical removal indicate?
a recurrence
73
where is blastoma found?
in children, where the cells have not fully differentiated