Week 9 - Microbiology of GI tract Flashcards

1
Q

Wha is the gram status of psuedomonas aeruginosa?

A

-Gram negative bacilli

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2
Q

Give two examples of obligate aerobes

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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3
Q

Give two obligate anaerobes

A
  • Bacteriodes fragilis

- Clostridium spp.

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4
Q

Name the anaerobic areas of the GI tract

A
  • Parts of the mouth
  • Small bowel
  • Colon
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5
Q

Why are colonic bacteria essential for life?

A
  • Prevent colonisation by pathogenic bacteria
  • Synthesise and excrete essential vitamins eg B12
  • Stimulate production of natural antibodies
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6
Q

What are consequences of a diminished microbiota

A
  • Increased susceptibility to infection
  • Vitamin deficiencies
  • Poorly developed immune system
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7
Q

Name two bacteria which can form endospores

A
  • Clostridium tetani

- Bacillus anthracis

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8
Q

Name 3 aerobic gram positive cocci species

A
  • Staphylococcus
  • Streptococcus
  • Enerococcus
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9
Q

Name 2 aerobic gram negative cocci

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis

- Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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10
Q

Name some gram positive bacilli species

A
  • Clostridia

- Lactobacillus

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11
Q

Name 3 gram negative enteric bacilli

A
  • E.coli
  • Bacteriodes fragilis
  • Pseudomonas
  • Klebsiella spp
  • Salmonella spp.
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12
Q

What is the gram status of Haemophilus influenzae

A

-Gram negative bacilli

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13
Q

Name some bacteria which colonise the mouth

A
  • Strep
  • Staph
  • lactobacilli
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14
Q

When can mouth bacteria begin to be problematic?

A

-When the host is malnourished, dehydrated or immunocomprimised

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15
Q

Who is at risk of oral thrush?

A
  • Neonates
  • Immunocomprimised
  • Antibiotics
  • Diabetics
  • Steroid use
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16
Q

What is angular chylosis?

A

-Inflammation of corners of mouth caused by thrush

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17
Q

How is oral thrush treated?

A

-Nystatin suspension

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18
Q

What bacteria often causes dental caries/gingivitis?

A

-Step mutans (viridans)

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19
Q

What is ludwig’s angina?

A
  • Cellulitis of the neck, usually caused by strep mutans

- Rapid progression can lead to asphyxiation via closure of the larynx

20
Q

What three sites are swabbed for MRSA upon entering hospital?

A

-Nose, throat and perineum

21
Q

What are the main bacteria which colonise the nose?

A

-Strep and staph

22
Q

Name 3 bacteria which normally colonise the throat

A
  • Viridans strep
  • Staphylococci
  • Niesseria Meningitidis
23
Q

When can viridans streptococci become problematic?

A
  • During dental procedures and anesthesia bacteria may enter blood stream
  • Usually cleared but can stick to prosthesis and orthopaedic implants and cause infection
24
Q

Which group of organisms is mainly responsible for tonsillitis? Name the common organism

A
  • Viruses

- Adenovirus

25
Q

What is the main bacterial cause of tonsillitis?

A

-Strep pyogenes

26
Q

What is a quincy?

A

-Abscess of the tonsil

27
Q

What GI pathology is commonly associated with H.pylori?

A

-Duodenal/gastric ulcers

28
Q

Name 3 common colonic bacteria

A
  • Bacteroides fragilis
  • Eschericia Coli
  • Enterococcus Faecalis
29
Q

Why are prophylactic antibiotics used in gut surgery?

A

-Operations on the gut often have abnormal flora and there is a high risk of wound infection

30
Q

Name an antibiotic regime used in surgical prophylaxis

A

-Co-amoxiclav

31
Q

What is pseudomembranous colitis?

A

-Inflammation of the colon caused by c.difficile infection

32
Q

What is the cause of a perianal abscess?

A

-Blockage of anal gland by faecal matter caused stasis of bacteria leading to multiplication and abscess formation

33
Q

What colonic bacteria are found perianal skin?

A
  • E.coli

- Enterococcus

34
Q

Where are lactobacilli the common commensal?

A

-Vagina

35
Q

What makes lactobacilli advantageous to the vagina?

A

-Converts glycogen to lactic acid to creat an acidic environment which prevents other bacteria and candida albicans from growing

36
Q

What is the most common cause of UTIs?

A

-E.coli from GI tract

then enterococcus faecalis and klebsiella

37
Q

What is specific about an infection with pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

-Produces green pus in moist environments

38
Q

What bacteria is responsible for wet/gas gangrene? Explain the process

A
  • C.perfringes

- Anaerobic digestion of glucose leads to ethanol and CO2 producing bubbles in the skin

39
Q

Give two characteristic features of tetanus

A
  • Risus sardonicus (lock jaw)

- Opisthotonus

40
Q

What is the most common cause of nausea and diarrhoea?

A

-Norovirus

41
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis?

A

-Contaminated food or drink

42
Q

What are the most common organisms which cause gastroenteritis?

A
  • Salmonella
  • Campylobacter
  • Listeria
43
Q

What bacteria produce toxins in food which can cause nausea and vomitting?

A
  • Staphylococci

- Clostridium

44
Q

What is the result of infection with vibrio cholera?

A

-Effects the ileum to cause water and salt to be actively secreted into the lumen leading to diarrhoea
-Characteristically looks like ‘rice-water’
-Rapid severe dehydration follows
(cholera)

45
Q

Name 2 protozoans which can cause gastroenteritis

A
  • Giardia

- Cryptosporidium

46
Q

Name 4 causes of travellers Diarrhoea

A
  • E.coli
  • Samlonella
  • Campylobacter spp.
  • Rotavirus
47
Q

What is the gram status of Staphylococcus?

A

-Gram positive cocci