Week 8 Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of pain?

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage.

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2
Q

What are the categories of pain?

A
  • Acute Pain
  • Chronic Pain
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3
Q

What characterizes acute pain?

A

Results from disease, inflammation or injury to tissues; generally comes on suddenly and may be accompanied by anxiety or emotional distress.

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4
Q

What characterizes chronic pain?

A

Widely believed to represent disease itself and can be made much worse by environmental and psychological factors; persists over a long period of time and is resistant to most medical treatments.

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5
Q

What is one of the most prevalent public health epidemics related to pain management?

A

Death involving prescription drug abuse.

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6
Q

What were the statistics for drug overdose deaths in the U.S. in 2021?

A
  • Total Drug Overdoses: 106,699
  • Overdoses involving Opioids: 80,411 (75.4%)
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7
Q

What are the four areas addressed by the CDC Clinical Practice Guidelines for Prescribing Opioids for Pain?

A
  • Whether or Not to Initiate Opioids for Pain
  • Selecting Opioids and Determining Dosages
  • Deciding Duration of Initial Opioid Prescription and Determining Follow-Up
  • Assessing Risk and Addressing Potential Harms of Opioid Use
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8
Q

What framework does the CDC guidelines use for prescribing opioids for pain?

A

Grading of Recommendations, Assessment, Development, and Evaluation (GRADES) Framework.

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9
Q

What are the first-line recommendations for opioid therapy in chronic non-cancer pain according to updated guidelines?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Anticonvulsants
  • Acetaminophen
  • Muscle relaxants

Non-pharmacological recommendations: exercise programs, physical therapy, acupuncture, massage, TENS, chiropractic treatment, and biofeedback therapy

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10
Q

Fill in the blank: The first-line opioid choices for mild pain include _______.

A

[tramadol, codeine, hydrocodone]

Mild to moderate pain: hydrocodone or oxycodone

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11
Q

Fill in the blank: For severe pain, the first-line opioid choices are _______.

A

[hydrocodone, oxycodone, morphine]

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12
Q

What are the fundamental tenets of responsible opioid prescribing?

A
  • Patient Evaluation & Selection
  • Periodic Review and Monitoring
  • Treatment Plans
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13
Q

What factors contribute to undertreated pain versus over-prescribing?

A
  • Lack of knowledge among prescribers about current pain management guidelines
  • Lack of knowledge among prescribers about addiction, dependence and misuse
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14
Q

What is the purpose of the Opioid Risk Tool?

A

A self-report screening tool designed for adult patients in primary care settings to assess risk for opioid abuse among individuals with chronic pain.

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15
Q

What does SOAPP Version 1.0-14Q do?

A

A tool for clinicians designed to determine how much monitoring a patient on long-term opioid therapy might need.

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16
Q

What is included in a comprehensive assessment of a patient for opioid prescribing?

A
  • Pain Condition
  • General Medical History
  • Previous Treatments
  • Psychosocial History and Evaluation
  • Substance Use History and Addiction Screening
  • Sleep Patterns
  • Functional Assessment
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17
Q

True or False: Chronic pain is generally considered to be less resistant to medical treatments than acute pain.

A

False

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18
Q

What are non-pharmacological recommendations for pain management?

A
  • Exercise programs
  • Physical therapy
  • Acupuncture
  • Massage
  • TENS
  • Chiropractic treatment
  • Biofeedback therapy
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19
Q

What is the role of Prescription Drug Monitoring Programs?

A

To monitor prescriptions and prevent misuse/abuse.

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20
Q

What is the significance of establishing treatment goals in opioid prescribing?

A

It guides responsible prescribing and patient outcomes.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of a Pain Management Agreement?

A

To outline expectations and responsibilities between the clinician and the patient.

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22
Q

What are the six points in guidance for responsible opioid prescribing?

A
  1. Comprehensive Assessment of patient
  2. Prescription drug monitoring programs
  3. Risk stratification
  4. Urine drug testing
  5. Establishing treatment goals
  6. Informed decision making
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23
Q

What are the three different groups of opioids?

A

Natural, semisynthetic, synthetic

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24
Q

What is the primary action of opioid analgesics?

A

Provide analgesia without loss of consciousness

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25
Q

Name two natural opioids.

A
  • Morphine
  • Codeine
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26
Q

What are semisynthetic derivatives of opioids?

A
  • Oxycodone
  • Hydromorphone
  • Oxymorphone
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27
Q

What are the two groups of synthetic compounds?

A
  • Phenylpiperidines
  • Pseudopiperidines
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28
Q

Name two compounds in the phenylpiperidine group.

A
  • Meperidine
  • Fentanyl
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29
Q

Which compound belongs to the pseudopiperidine group?

A

Methadone

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30
Q

How many basic opioid receptors are there?

A

Three

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31
Q

Which opioid receptor is responsible for most of the action of opioids?

A

Mu receptor

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32
Q

What is the function of the mu 1 receptor?

A

Responsible for central interpretation of pain

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33
Q

What effects are associated with the mu 2 receptor?

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Spinal analgesia
  • Physical dependence
  • Euphoria
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34
Q

What is the effect of kappa receptors?

A

Modest analgesia with little to no respiratory depression or dependence

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35
Q

What is the effect of delta receptor agonists?

A

Poor analgesia with little addictive potential

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36
Q

What is the major pharmacokinetic effect of opioids when taken orally?

A

Significant first-pass effect

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37
Q

How are opioids distributed in the body?

A

Various extents of plasma protein binding with highest concentrations in tissues

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38
Q

What happens to morphine metabolites in patients with compromised renal function?

A

Can cause prolonged analgesia

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39
Q

What is the primary pharmacodynamic action of opioids?

A

Enhance activity in descending aminergic pathways or antinociceptive pathways

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40
Q

What physiological effect leads to analgesia in the CNS?

A

Closing N-type voltage-operated calcium channels and opening calcium-dependent potassium channels

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41
Q

What are the two components of pain?

A
  • Affective
  • Sensory
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42
Q

What is euphoria in the context of opioid use?

A

A sensation of pleasant feeling

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43
Q

What side effect can occur with opioid use related to sleep?

A

Sedation

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44
Q

What causes respiratory depression in opioid use?

A

Inhibition of the brain stem respiratory center

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45
Q

Which opioid is best at producing cough suppression?

A

Codeine

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46
Q

What are common GI side effects of opioids?

A
  • Constipation
  • Decreased GI motility
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47
Q

What effect do opioids have on renal function?

A

Depressed renal function due to decreased renal blood flow

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48
Q

What is a notable effect of opioids on thermoregulation?

A

Alter equilibrium point of hypothalamic heat regulatory mechanisms

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49
Q

What are the signs of opioid toxicity?

A
  • Coma
  • Pinpoint pupils
  • Depressed respiration
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50
Q

What are common withdrawal symptoms from opioids?

A
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Lacrimation
  • Piloerection
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Chills
  • Hyperventilation
  • Tachycardia
  • Body aches
  • Frequent yawning
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51
Q

What are the three types of opioid receptors?

A

Mu (µ), Delta (∆), Kappa (K)

Mu is the major analgesic receptor, Delta is associated with spinal analgesia, and Kappa is linked with high potency analgesics.

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52
Q

What is the prototypical opioid agonist?

A

Morphine

Morphine is a pure alkaloid isolated in 1803 and named after Morpheus, the Greek god of dreams.

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53
Q

What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics?

A

Euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence

These side effects are significant concerns when using opioid analgesics.

54
Q

How are opioid analgesics regulated?

A

Under the Controlled Substances Act and policed by the DEA

This regulation is due to the potential for abuse and dependence.

55
Q

What is the typical onset of action for opioid analgesics?

A

2 – 60 minutes

The onset varies depending on the method of administration.

56
Q

What is the half-life of most opioid analgesics?

A

Generally up to 6 hours

This can vary based on the specific drug and individual metabolism.

57
Q

What are the two types of NSAIDs?

A

Non-selective COX inhibitors, COX-2 inhibitors

These classifications are based on their mechanism of action.

58
Q

What are some examples of NSAIDs?

A

Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Aspirin, Toradol, Mobic

These drugs exert analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory effects.

59
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen?

A

2 grams

This limit is set to prevent liver toxicity.

60
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Allopurinol?

A

Prevents formation of uric acid by inhibiting xanthine oxidase

Allopurinol is used in the treatment of gout and hyperuricemia.

61
Q

What type of drug is Methotrexate?

A

Disease-Modifying AntiRheumatic Drug (DMARD)

It acts as a folic acid antagonist inhibiting DNA synthesis and cell reproduction.

62
Q

What is the role of Colchicine in gout treatment?

A

Decreases inflammation by decreasing movement of leukocytes into tissues containing urate crystals

Colchicine does not have analgesic or antipyretic effects.

63
Q

Fill in the blank: Opioid analgesics include full agonists, partial agonists, and _______.

A

antagonists

This classification is important for understanding their pharmacological effects.

64
Q

True or False: Tramadol is a non-opioid drug.

A

False

Tramadol is centrally-acting and binds to µ receptors.

65
Q

What are the adverse effects of NSAIDs?

A

CNS, GI, Respiratory

These effects can vary based on the specific NSAID and patient factors.

66
Q

What is the function of mixed agonist-antagonists?

A

Activate one type of opioid receptor while blocking another type

They produce fewer side effects than true opioids.

67
Q

What is the primary use of Acetaminophen?

A

Treatment of mild pain and fever

It lacks anti-inflammatory properties.

68
Q

What is the central principle regarding the use of controlled substances?

A

Balance between preventing abuse and ensuring medical availability.

69
Q

What dual imperative does the federal government have regarding controlled substances?

A

Prevent abuse, trafficking, and diversion while ensuring medical availability for individuals in pain.

70
Q

What is the purpose of the Controlled Substances Act of 1970?

A

To regulate the manufacture, importation, possession, use, and distribution of certain substances.

71
Q

Which agency is responsible for interpreting and enforcing the Controlled Substances Act?

A

The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA).

72
Q

What are the schedules of controlled substances based on?

A

Potential for abuse and accepted medical use.

73
Q

What is an example of a Schedule I medication?

A

Cocaine or heroin.

74
Q

What medical use does cocaine have despite being a Schedule I substance?

A

Used for nasal packing in emergency rooms for intractable epistaxis.

75
Q

What is an example of a Schedule V medication?

A

Pseudoephedrine.

76
Q

Why must opioids be available for medical use?

A

To relieve pain and suffering.

77
Q

What does the label ‘controlled substance’ indicate about a medication’s medical value?

A

It does not change their medical value.

78
Q

What must not interfere with medical practice and patient care?

A

Efforts to prevent abuse.

79
Q

Who must comply with federal and state regulations for prescribing scheduled controlled substances?

A

Health care providers.

80
Q

Where are federal regulations for controlled substances contained?

A

The Controlled Substances Act.

81
Q

Where can state regulations for prescribing controlled substances be found?

A

The health care provider’s licensing board and governing board.

82
Q

Which board governs nurse practitioners regarding controlled substances?

A

The nursing board in each state.

83
Q

Which board governs physicians regarding controlled substances?

A

The medical board.

84
Q

What applies when federal laws differ from state laws regarding controlled substances?

A

The more stringent rule applies.

85
Q

What is gout?

A

The most common form of inflammatory arthritis affecting about 9.2 million adults in the United States

86
Q

What causes gout?

A

An alteration in purine metabolism leading to elevated uric acid levels in the blood

87
Q

What are the goals of therapy for gout?

A

Manage pain from acute attacks, lower uric acid levels long-term, and lifestyle management

88
Q

What organization developed the latest clinical practice guidelines for gout management?

A

American College of Rheumatology

89
Q

When were the latest guidelines for gout management developed?

90
Q

What methodology is used in the guidelines for gout management?

A

GRADE methodology (grading of recommendations, assessment, development, and evaluations)

91
Q

What are xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

A

A group of medications that includes allopurinol and febuxostat used in urate-lowering therapy

92
Q

How do xanthine oxidase inhibitors work?

A

By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the conversion of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid

93
Q

What is the first-line agent for treating gout?

A

Allopurinol

94
Q

What side effect is commonly associated with xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

A

Hepatotoxicity

95
Q

What is a potential risk when initiating therapy with allopurinol or febuxostat?

A

Patients may experience a gout flare

96
Q

What skin reaction can allopurinol cause?

A

Life-threatening skin rash similar to Stevens-Johnson syndrome

97
Q

What is probenecid?

A

A uricosuric drug that inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of urate

98
Q

How is pegloticase administered?

A

Parenterally (injection)

99
Q

What are common side effects of probenecid?

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and GI side effects

100
Q

In which patients should probenecid be avoided?

A

Patients with peptic ulcer disease

101
Q

What is the drug of choice among uricosuric drugs?

A

Probenecid

102
Q

What class of medications can be used to manage acute gout flares?

A

Colchicine, NSAIDs, and glucocorticoids

103
Q

What is the preferred dosing regimen for colchicine in acute gout flares?

A

1.2 mg at first sign of flare, followed by 0.6 mg one hour later

104
Q

What are interleukin-1B inhibitors used for?

A

Management of gout flares in patients who do not respond to standard treatments

105
Q

What are emerging therapies for gout focused on?

A

Long-term urate-lowering therapies and selective gut anaerobic purine degrading bacteria

106
Q

What is a common side effect of biologics, including interleukin-1B inhibitors?

A

Increased risk of infection

107
Q

What are corticosteroids commonly referred to as?

A

Glucocorticoids or steroids

108
Q

Where are corticosteroids produced in the body?

A

Adrenal cortex

109
Q

What is the primary role of corticosteroids in the body?

A

Maintaining homeostasis

110
Q

What can result from inadequate or excessive corticosteroid secretion?

111
Q

What are the three groups of endogenous corticosteroids?

A
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Mineralocorticoids
  • Adrenal sex hormones
112
Q

How many different steroid hormones are categorized into these groups?

113
Q

What is one mechanism by which corticosteroids decrease inflammation?

A

Inhibiting arachidonic acid metabolism

114
Q

What are some cytokines inhibited by corticosteroids?

A
  • Interleukin-1
  • Tumor necrosis factor
115
Q

What are the symptoms of withdrawal syndrome from exogenous corticosteroids?

A
  • Malaise
  • Myalgia
  • Nausea
  • Headache
  • Low-grade fever
  • Hypotension
116
Q

What is the prototype for exogenous corticosteroids?

A

Hydrocortisone

117
Q

What does hydrocortisone equal in terms of anti-inflammatory effect?

118
Q

What is the general principle for short-term corticosteroid therapy?

A

Use for self-limiting conditions

119
Q

When should long-term corticosteroid use be reserved?

A

Life-threatening conditions or severe disabling symptoms

120
Q

What is the defined duration of short-term corticosteroid use?

A

Less than one week

121
Q

What is the typical tapering schedule for short-term corticosteroid use?

A

Large dose divided in 48 to 72 hours and then tapered

122
Q

Why is it important to avoid abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroids?

A

To prevent acute adrenal cortical insufficiency

123
Q

What is a common regimen for treating asthma exacerbation with corticosteroids?

A

Five-day prednisone burst

124
Q

What is preferred when treating with corticosteroids, local or systemic therapy?

A

Local therapy when possible

125
Q

What should patients be advised regarding the timing of prednisone administration?

A

Take in the morning with food

126
Q

What is a potential adverse effect of prednisone related to diabetes?

A

Increased blood sugar levels

127
Q

What are contraindications for prescribing prednisone?

A
  • Allergy
  • Infection
128
Q

What is a common glucocorticoid used for allergic conditions?

A

Methylprednisolone

129
Q

What is the high-powered glucocorticoid often used for cerebral edema?

A

Dexamethasone

130
Q

What role have glucocorticoids played in the treatment of COVID-19?

A

Used in moderately to severely ill patients

131
Q

What are some studies showing mixed results regarding glucocorticoids in COVID-19?

A

Efficacy in preventing mechanical ventilation or increasing mortality