Exam 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key considerations when approaching treatment for infections?

A
  • Is this an infection?
  • What is the site of infection?
  • What are the most likely pathogens?
  • What are the options for treatment?
  • What makes the patient unique?

Patient uniqueness includes factors like age, co-morbidities, pregnancy, etc.

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2
Q

What is an antibiogram?

A

A report that shows the susceptibility of bacteria to various antibiotics

It is used to guide appropriate antibiotic selection.

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3
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A
  • Beta-lactams
  • Vancomycin

These antibiotics target the bacterial cell wall, disrupting its synthesis.

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4
Q

What are the types of beta-lactam antibiotics?

A
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Carbapenems
  • Monobactams

These groups of antibiotics share a common beta-lactam structure.

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5
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clavulanic acid?

A

Inhibits beta-lactamases, broadening spectrum of coverage and reducing resistance

Clavulanic acid is often combined with penicillin to enhance effectiveness against resistant bacteria.

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6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of penicillin?

A

Bactericidal; inhibits cell wall synthesis

This mechanism is crucial for its effectiveness against bacterial infections.

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7
Q

Name a few drugs that are important to know for penicillin.

A
  • Amoxicillin
  • Penicillin VK
  • Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
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8
Q

What is the safest antibiotic in pregnancy?

A

Penicillin, if appropriate for the type of infection and the patient is not allergic

It is considered the best choice for treating infections in pregnant patients.

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9
Q

What should be done if a patient develops a rash to penicillins?

A

Examine to ensure it’s an allergic reaction; rash could be due to other causes

Many viruses can cause rashes, so it’s important to differentiate between an allergic rash and other types.

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10
Q

If a patient is allergic to penicillins, what can they take?

A

Cephalosporins, unless they have anaphylaxis from a -cillin

Anaphylaxis indicates that cephalosporins should also be avoided.

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11
Q

Which first generation cephalosporins provide the best gram-positive coverage?

A

Cephalexin and cephazolin

These drugs are effective against staphylococci and streptococci.

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12
Q

What happens to gram-negative coverage as you increase from one generation of cephalosporins to the next?

A

You gain gram-negative coverage but lose gram-positive coverage

This shift is important for understanding the appropriateness of cephalosporins for various infections.

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13
Q

What is the route for many of the fourth-generation cephalosporins?

A

IV only and are given in the hospital

Their administration route reflects the severity of infections they treat.

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14
Q

What type of antibiotic is vancomycin?

A

Glycopeptide antibiotic with wide spectrum of gram-positive coverage

It is particularly important for treating serious infections like MRSA.

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15
Q

How is vancomycin administered for C. diff infections?

A

Orally

Despite being poorly absorbed, oral administration is effective for this specific indication.

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16
Q

How is vancomycin administered for serious staph infections?

A

IV

This method is used for treating life-threatening infections caused by resistant staphylococci.

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17
Q

Which antibiotics block protein production?

A

Macrolides, tetracyclines, clindamycin

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18
Q

Name three macrolide antibiotics.

A

Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

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19
Q

What is a common brand name for azithromycin?

A

Z pack

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20
Q

What is the spectrum of coverage for macrolides?

A

Gram positive (pneumococci, strep, staph)
Gram negative (H. Influenzae)
atypical bacteria (M. Pneumoniae)

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21
Q

What are some adverse effects of macrolides?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias

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22
Q

What is a significant risk associated with macrolides?

A

QT prolongation

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23
Q

What are the risk factors for QT prolongation? (6)

A

Electrolyte imbalances
Meds
Female
Heart conditions
Age (older people)
Genetics

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24
Q

Why is erythromycin rarely used?

A

Frequently causes diarrhea and cramping

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25
Q

What gastrointestinal effects are associated with erythromycin?

A

Diarrhea and cramping

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26
Q

What are the names of the drugs listed in the review for tetracyclines?

A

Tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline

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27
Q

What is the spectrum of coverage for tetracyclines?

A

Gram positive, gram negative, atypical bacteria, rickettsiae

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28
Q

Which disease is treated with tetracyclines in addition to those listed in the exam review?

A

Lyme disease

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29
Q

Which patients cannot take tetracyclines and why?

A
  • Pregnant women
  • Children under 8
  • Can affect tooth enamel or impair bone growth
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30
Q

What is a common adverse effect of tetracyclines?

A

Photosensitivity

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31
Q

What should patients be educated about regarding photosensitivity when using tetracyclines?

A

To avoid sun exposure

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32
Q

Why should tetracyclines not be given within two hours of antacids?

A

Due to calcium content

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33
Q

What is the most important adverse effect associated with clindamycin?

A

Clostridium difficile colitis

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34
Q

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of clindamycin?

A

Similar to macrolides due to overlapping receptors

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35
Q

What percentage of patients may develop C. diff when taking clindamycin according to a 2023 study?

A

Up to 6.6%

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36
Q

What symptoms should patients be monitored for when prescribed clindamycin?

A

Loose, watery stool

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37
Q

What do all antibiotics that target DNA and replication generally do?

A

Inhibit enzymes involved in DNA synthesis

Important to know mechanisms for quinolones and sulfa drugs

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38
Q

What are the three main categories of antibiotics that target DNA and replication?

A
  • Sulfa drugs
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Metronidazole
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39
Q

What is the common use of Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)?

A

Often used for UTI and skin infection

TMP-SMX is not really used individually

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40
Q

What spectrum of coverage does Bactrim provide?

A
  • Gram positive
  • Gram negative
  • MRSA
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41
Q

What should you remember about Bactrim’s coverage?

A

Covers MRSA

Important for understanding its clinical use

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42
Q

What is the mechanism of action for sulfa drugs?

A

Inhibits folic acid synthesis → essential for bacterial DNA replication

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43
Q

Name the most common fluoroquinolones.

A
  • Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
  • Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
  • Ofloxacin (Floxin)
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44
Q

What is the spectrum of coverage for fluoroquinolones?

A

Excellent gram-negative coverage, moderate gram-positive coverage, and atypical bacteria

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45
Q

Which fluoroquinolone is more effective against gram positive bacteria?

A

Levofloxacin

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46
Q

Which fluoroquinolone is more effective against gram negative bacteria?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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47
Q

What should you focus on while studying fluoroquinolones?

A
  • Mechanism of action
  • Adverse effects
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48
Q

What is a high risk associated with fluoroquinolones?

A

Tendon rupture

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49
Q

In which patients is the risk of tendon rupture from use of fluoroquinolones more common? (3)

A
  • Elderly patients
  • Patients on prednisone
  • Young runners
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50
Q

Other than tendon rupture, what is another potential adverse effect of fluoroquinolones?

A

QT prolongation

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51
Q

In which populations should fluoroquinolones not be used?

A
  • Children
  • Pregnant women
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52
Q

When should fluoroquinolones be used?

A

In resistant situations when other drugs have been tried or when the patient is allergic to other antibiotics

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53
Q

Why should fluoroquinolones be used sparingly?

A

Due to their adverse effects

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54
Q

What organisms are fluoroquinolones effective against?

A
  • Multi-drug resistant organisms
  • Pseudomonas (gram-)
  • Enterobacter (gram-)
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55
Q

When should fluoroquinolones be reserved?

A

For serious infections or when other more suitable antibiotics cannot be used

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56
Q

What are the basic principles for treating tuberculosis?

A

Must use multiple drugs to which Mycobacterium tuberculosis is susceptible, drugs must be taken regularly (every day), drugs must be taken long enough to resolve the illness (9 months)

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57
Q

Name one antitubercular drug.

A

Isoniazid (INH)

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58
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Isoniazid?

A

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

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59
Q

What are the adverse effects of Isoniazid?

A

Liver toxicity, peripheral neuropathy

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60
Q

What can patients take to help avoid peripheral neuropathy with Isoniazid?

A

Vitamin B6

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61
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ethambutol?

A

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

62
Q

What is an adverse effect of Ethambutol?

A

Optic neuritis

63
Q

What are the symptoms of optic neuritis? (3)

A

Blurred vision, decreased peripheral vision, color blindness

64
Q

What should patients be taught to do if they experience symptoms of optic neuritis?

A

Report these symptoms immediately

65
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Rifampin?

A

Blocks bacterial protein production

66
Q

What is a notable characteristic of Rifampin regarding drug interactions?

A

Multiple drug-drug interactions

67
Q

What are some adverse effects of Rifampin?

A

Nausea/vomiting, red-orange discoloration of urine, saliva, tears

68
Q

What should patients who wear contact lenses know about Rifampin?

A

It will permanently stain their contacts; they will need to wear glasses

69
Q

What is a key factor that increases the risk for microbial resistance?

A

Overuse of antibiotics

Overuse of antibiotics can lead to the development of resistant strains of bacteria.

70
Q

What is another factor that contributes to microbial resistance?

A

Inappropriate prescription of antibiotics

Prescribing antibiotics when they are not needed or using the wrong type can promote resistance.

71
Q

What is a risk factor for microbial resistance related to medication levels?

A

Low dose and inadequate levels leading to sub-inhibitory exposure

Inadequate dosing can allow bacteria to survive and develop resistance.

72
Q

What living conditions can increase the risk of microbial resistance?

A

Day care and crowded living

Crowded environments can facilitate the spread of resistant bacteria.

73
Q

What is the first mechanism of microbial resistance?

A

Decreased permeability/Limiting drug uptake

Bacteria can limit the entry of antibiotics through porin channels.

74
Q

What is the second mechanism of microbial resistance?

A

Antibiotic efflux pump

Active pumps can expel antibiotics from bacterial cells, reducing their effectiveness.

75
Q

What is the third mechanism of microbial resistance?

A

Drug inactivation

Enzymes may destroy antibiotics or prevent them from binding to their target sites.

76
Q

What is the fourth mechanism of microbial resistance?

A

Altered target site

Changes in binding proteins on bacterial surfaces can prevent antibiotics from binding effectively.

77
Q

What are the two classes of antiviral drugs discussed?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors and Nucleoside Analogs

78
Q

What are the names of the neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and Zanamivir (Relenza)

79
Q

How is Oseltamivir administered?

A

Well absorbed orally

80
Q

How is Zanamivir administered?

A

Via inhalation

81
Q

What is the mechanism of action for neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

Act by breaking the bond that attaches the viral particles to the host cell

82
Q

What are the indications for using neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

Prophylaxis and treatment for influenza A and B

83
Q

Who are the ideal candidates for neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

People with comorbidities

84
Q

What are common adverse effects of neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

Headache (HA), Nausea/Vomiting (N/V), CNS effects

85
Q

When should neuraminidase inhibitors be started for maximum effectiveness?

A

Within 72 hours of symptom onset

86
Q

What is a current concern regarding Tamiflu?

A

A lot of Tamiflu resistance right now

87
Q

What are the names of the nucleoside analogs?

A

Acyclovir (Zovirax), Valacyclovir (Valtrex), Famciclovir (Famvir)

88
Q

How often must Acyclovir be taken?

A

5 times a day

89
Q

Which nucleoside analog is the most effective?

A

Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

90
Q

What advantage does Valacyclovir have over Acyclovir?

A

Achieves higher serum levels and penetration

91
Q

What is the mechanism of action for nucleoside analogs?

A

Blocks an enzyme essential for viral replication

92
Q

What are common adverse effects of nucleoside analogs?

A

Headache (HA), Nausea/Vomiting (N/V)

93
Q

What are the indications for using nucleoside analogs?

A

Herpes simplex (genitals or mouth) and varicella zoster (Shingles)

94
Q

When should nucleoside analogs be started for maximum effectiveness?

A

Within 72 hours of onset of symptoms

95
Q

What is a special consideration for prescribing nucleoside analogs for shingles in elderly patients?

A

Higher risk of developing postherpetic neuralgia after rash goes away

96
Q

True or False: Nucleoside analogs are effective after 72 hours of symptom onset.

97
Q

What is a key characteristic of antifungal drugs when given orally?

A

Highly protein bound

This characteristic leads to interactions with many drugs.

98
Q

What should be monitored during long-term use of antifungal drugs?

A

Liver function tests (LFTs)

Long-term use is associated with hepatotoxicity.

99
Q

For how long are antifungals often taken?

A

3-6 months

100
Q

What is the primary focus when studying antihelmintic drugs?

A

Treat parasitic infections caused by worms

101
Q

What is a common treatment for pinworms in pediatric patients?

A

Mebendazole or Pyrantel (OTC)

102
Q

What are some adverse effects of antihelmintic drugs?

A
  • Nausea
  • Diarrhea
  • Stomach pain
103
Q

True or False: Antifungal drugs have multiple drug-drug interactions.

104
Q

What are anxiolytics?

A

Medications used to reduce anxiety

Includes drugs like benzodiazepines and Buspar.

105
Q

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of benzodiazepines?

A

Act at GABA receptors to increase GABA action

This decreases neuronal excitation and firing.

106
Q

List four common benzodiazepines.

A
  • Alprazolam (Xanax)
  • Lorazepam (Ativan)
  • Temazepam (Restoril)
  • Clonazepam (Klonopin)
107
Q

What are the indications for benzodiazepines?

A
  • Reduction in anxiety
  • Muscle relaxation
  • Ataxia
  • Anticonvulsant activity
108
Q

True or False: Benzodiazepines are usually used alone for anticonvulsant activity.

A

False

They are usually used in combination with another anticonvulsant.

109
Q

What is Buspar commonly used for?

A

Treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

Sometimes referred to as an atypical anxiolytic.

110
Q

What type of receptor does Buspar primarily act on?

A

Serotonin-1A (5-HT1A) receptor

It is a full agonist at this receptor.

111
Q

Fill in the blank: Buspar also has action at the _______ receptor.

112
Q

How should Buspar be taken to decrease the first-pass effect?

113
Q

What is the half-life and onset of action of Buspar?

A

Short half-life; slow onset of action

114
Q

What are antidepressants?

A

Medications used to treat depression and other mental health disorders

Antidepressants can include various classes such as SSRIs and SNRIs.

115
Q

What are SSRIs and their mechanism of action?

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors; they act at the Serotonin receptor

SSRIs increase serotonin availability in the synaptic cleft.

116
Q

What should you focus on as you study SSRIs?

A

Know indication, MOA, side effects, patient education

Indications include major depressive disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, etc.

117
Q

Name a few SSRIs.

A
  • Paroxetine (Paxil)
  • Fluoxetine (Prozac)
  • Sertraline (Zoloft)
  • Citalopram (Celexa)
  • Escitalopram
118
Q

What are common adverse effects of SSRIs?

A
  • Nausea
  • Dry mouth
  • Headache
  • Sexual side effects
119
Q

What patient education is important when prescribing SSRIs?

A
  • Nausea improves over time; try to tolerate it
  • Take medication at the same time every day
  • Inform about possible adverse effects
  • Expect symptom improvement in about 2 weeks
120
Q

What are symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A

Symptoms can include confusion, rapid heart rate, and high blood pressure

Serotonin syndrome can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

121
Q

What is a drug-drug interaction concern with SSRIs?

A

Interaction with linezolid (Zyvox)

Linezolid is an antibiotic that can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs.

122
Q

What are the indications for SSRIs? (5)

A
  • Major depressive disorder (MDD)
  • Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
  • Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
  • Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
  • Panic disorder
123
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SNRIs?

A

They block serotonin and norepinephrine transporters, inhibiting reuptake

SNRIs increase the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain.

124
Q

Name a few SNRIs.

A
  • Venlafaxine (Effexor)
  • Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
125
Q

How does venlafaxine primarily affect neurotransmitter reuptake at lower doses?

A

It predominantly affects serotonin reuptake

At higher doses, venlafaxine also affects norepinephrine reuptake.

126
Q

Which patients should avoid taking SNRIs?

A

Patients with uncontrolled hypertension or those who are sensitive to serotonin and norepinephrine levels

Caution is advised in patients with a history of cardiovascular issues.

128
Q

What are tricyclic antidepressants primarily used for?

A

They are used to treat depression but are not prescribed as much.

129
Q

What is the mechanism of action for tricyclic antidepressants?

A

They inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine at the presynaptic neuron and also act on histamine and acetylcholine.

130
Q

List contraindications for prescribing tricyclic antidepressants.

A
  • Patients with CV disease
  • Uncontrolled epilepsy
  • Urinary retention
  • Angle-closure glaucoma
131
Q

True or False: Patients can overdose on tricyclic antidepressants.

132
Q

What should you avoid when prescribing tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Do not give anyone at risk for suicide a TCA.

133
Q

What is the mechanism of action for bupropion (Wellbutrin)?

A

It is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor.

134
Q

What are the contraindications for bupropion?

A
  • Patients with seizure disorders or conditions that increase the risk of seizures
  • Angle-closure glaucoma
135
Q

What additional benefit does bupropion provide?

A

Can help people stop smoking.

136
Q

What is a key characteristic of carbamazepine (Tegretol) regarding its metabolism?

A

It is completely metabolized and induces its own metabolism, leading to increased clearance and shortened half-life.

137
Q

What effect does carbamazepine have on neuronal firing? Which type of channel is affected?

A

It inhibits neuronal firing by blocking sodium channels.

138
Q

What types of seizures is carbamazepine most effective against?

A

Partial seizures.

139
Q

What is the binding characteristic of carbamazepine in the body?

A

It is highly bound to plasma proteins.

140
Q

List common side effects of carbamazepine.

A
  • Drowsiness
  • Headaches
  • GI distress
141
Q

What are less common side effects of carbamazepine?

A
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Blurred or double vision
  • Decreased blood cells or platelets
  • Aplastic anemia (rare)
142
Q

Fill in the blank: Bupropion weakly inhibits the uptake of _______ and _______.

A

[Norepinephrine] and [Dopamine]

144
Q

What is the primary action of Gabapentin (Neurontin)?

A

Inhibits the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the presynaptic area to decrease seizure activity

Gabapentin is primarily used in the treatment of seizures.

145
Q

List the medical conditions Gabapentin is used to treat.

A
  • Seizures
  • Restless legs syndrome
  • Postherpetic neuralgia
  • Neuropathic pain
  • Off-label uses (mostly pain)

Gabapentin has various applications beyond its primary indications.

146
Q

What should be monitored in patients taking seizure medications like Gabapentin?

A

Monitor patients for psychiatric side effects

Patients on any seizure medications must be monitored for potential psychiatric effects.

147
Q

What are some adverse effects of Gabapentin?

A
  • Depression
  • Suicidal thoughts/behaviors
  • Nausea/Vomiting
  • Somnolence
  • Dizziness
  • Dry mouth

Adverse effects can be significant and require monitoring.

148
Q

What is a key focus area for patient education regarding Levetiracetam (Keppra)?

A

Understanding the medication and its effects is crucial for patient compliance.

149
Q

What should be a focus area regarding side effects of Levetiracetam (Keppra)?

A

Side effects

Awareness of side effects can help in managing patient care.

150
Q

What are the symptoms of toxicity associated with Lithium?

A

Coarse tremors of the hands that impair function
N/V
Diarrhea
Confusion
Stupor
Polydipsia/Polyuria
Muscle weakness
Ataxia

151
Q

What happens if a Lithium patient gets out in the sun, sweats, and loses sodium?

A

Increased risk of toxicity

Sodium loss can lead to elevated Lithium levels, increasing toxicity risk.