Week 8 2nd assess Flashcards

1
Q

2nd assessment=

Consists of:

A

=more through examination→ objective & measurable (quantifiable) info is taken→ vitals, SAMPLE,

= head-toe exam & completing vitals signs
Not every PT has everything in 2nd assess/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Assessment 4 techniques:

A

1st visual, 2nd palpation, 3rd percussion, 4th auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Frail:
Feeble:
Robust:
Vigorous:

A

= Sick
= lack of strength
= energetic
= VERY energetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Identifying Odors:

A

Ammonia, fruity breath, bitter almond breath, BO, fishy vagina, fecal breath,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ventilations Qs?:

A

Rate, Quality, Pattern, IE 1:2, Positioning/ Accessory M. use?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

systemic vascular resistance SVR:

A

how much of vessels constriction dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BP=
Top #=
bottom#=

A

SVR x (SV x HR)
= Systolic pressure = squeeze
=Diastolic = diastolic relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BP sounds= Korotkoff 5 sounds= 1st sound
2nd sound=
3rd sound=
4th sound=
5th sound=

A

= snapping
= swooshing
= tapping
= thumping (muffling)
= silence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BGL treatment range:

A

<70 hypo treat w/ sugar & >300 hyper treating w/ fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

GCS:

A

E4, M5 (orient, confused, words, sounds, none), S6 (obey, local/withdraw, normal flex, abnorm flex decorb, exten/ decer, none)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skin function:

A

transmit info, reg/s temp, protect (Burns cant control temp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pupils sizing range:

A

= 2-4mm bright & 4-8 dim (dilated side w/ anisoria side w/ trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Anisocoria:
heterochromia:

A

=unequal pupils greater than 1mm
=dif/ pupil colors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pupils: Direct response:
Indirect response:
Accommodation:
Ocular motor movement:

A

= same pupil in light responds
= pupil opposite of light responds
= eyes cross when finger to nose
= eye movement in “H”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ear (middle) bones:

A

=stapes, incus, malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Neck examine:

A

=Kussmaul sign from pericardial sac filled w/ pus
Auscultate for bruits= swoosh = build up= atherosclerosis
Art/ harding& constricting of vessels & arth=build up of vessels
ROM range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chest 3 phases: phase 1:
phase 2:
phase 3:

A

=Chest wall:
=Pulmonic: bronchial, tracheal, bronchovesicular (rhonci), vesicular
=Cardiac: S3: CHF maybe, S4: in CHF (Aortic, Pulmonic, Erb’s point (3rd ICS), Tricuspid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hamman’s Crunch:

A

=dive injury crunch in heart sounds (air in media stynium ) (pneumo air to heart) can happing from blowing balloons (boyle law)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ABDMN examine:

A

Scaphoid abdomen, hemoptysis, hematochezia, Murphy’s sing, McBurny’s point, Aaron’s signs, Rovsing’s sign, Psoas sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

!!! Murphy’s signs:

A

= Suspected gall bladder infection→ cupping under rib w/ pressure with breath causing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

!!! McBurny’s point:

A

= RLQ pain w/ rebound tenderness ⅔ of way from umbilicus to illicac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aaroon’s sign:

A

= Epigastric pain during palpation to McBurney’s point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rovsing’s sign:

A

= RLQ pain w/ palpation to LLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Psoas sing:

A

=Pain to RLQ when patient tries to reaise R leg against resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Back: Lordosis:
Scoliosis:
Kyphosis:

A

=swayback
=Lateral curve
=humpback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sniffing position:

A

=pillow under head ear aligned with sternum (called sniffing bc/ way head recoils when you shift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ramped position:

A

for obese PTs, <LOTS>prepare a proper ramp (head and shoulder support) before transferring them to the ambulance.</LOTS>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

BP width:

A

= 40-50% of mid-arm circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

BP length:

A

= Should cover between 80-100% of arm circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

BP Overall cuff size:

A

= cover 2/3s of distance of the upper arm (measured from acromion to olecranon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Neck emamine:

A

= Kussmaul’s sing, JVD, Trachea deviation, Bruits, ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Bristol stool chart:

A

= type 4 healthy type, 1 hard deer pebbles, type 8 liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

3 types of abdomen pain:

A

= Visceral: (dull) distension, ischemia, inflammation
Referred: kehrs should pain w/ abdomen b/c phriadam nerve
= Somatic> (sharp pinpoint) appendinixsitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Extrems: edema:

A

Poor perfusion: pitting edema +1 ¼ inch, +2 ½ inch, 3 ½ -1inch, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CN 1:

A

Olefactory = smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CN 2

A

Optic= Vision (senses light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CN 3

A

Oculomotor = pupil m-vt (controls size of pupil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CN 4

A

Trochlear = eye motor function (look up & down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CN 5

A

=trigeminal “suicide “= chewing muscles (chewing mastication), Sensory→Ophthalmic (forehead), maxillary (cheek)& mandibular (chin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CN 6

A

abducens= Lateral Eye m-vt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CN 7

A

facial= sense tongue & motor eyebrows expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CN 8

A

vestibulocochlear= sense hearing, balance, equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

CN 9

A

glossopharyngeal= sense post/ pharynx, taste,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CN 10

A

vagus= “wondering” sense taste post tongue, Motor speck and swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CN 11

A

Accessory = traps Muscles motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

CN 12

A

Hypoglossal = motor tongue out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Scaphoid abdomen

A

A severely sunken in & flat abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Persistent abdominal pain lasting how long is classified as a surgical emergency.

A

6 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

“Hammer” of ear:
“Stirrup” of ear:
“Anvil” of ear:

A

= Malleus bone
= Stapes bone
= Incus bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where to auscultate for a Tricuspid valve murmur?
Where to auscultate for a Pulmonic valve murmur?
Where to auscultate for a Mitral valve murmur?
Where to auscultate for a Aortic valve murmur?

A

= 4th ICS, just to the Left of the sternum
= 2nd ICS, just to the Left of the sternum
=5th ICS, Left of the sternum
= 2nd ICS, just to the Right of the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hematemesis:
Hypotyposis:
Hematochezia:
Melana:

A

= vomiting blood
= coughing blood
= Pooping bright red stool
= Pooping dark black stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Crunch/rasping sound auscultated over left side of chest that is synchronous with the heart beat is?

A

Hamman’s Crunch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Percussion 5 sounds:

A

Tympany, Hyperresonance, Resonance, Dull, Flat
“Thunderous Hammers Rattle Doors Flatly”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Tympany percussion sound:

A

= “drumlike” , loud intensity, High pitched, Medium duration, located in stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hyperresonance percussion sound:

A

= “Booming” , loud intensity, Low pitched, long duration, located in Hyperinflated-Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Resonance percussion sound:

A

= “Hallow” , loud intensity, low pitched, long duration, located in a normal lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Dull percussion sound:

A

= “thud” , Medium intensity, medium pitched, medium duration, located in solid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Flat percussion sound:

A

= “Extremely dull” , Soft intensity , High pitched, short duration, located in muscle & atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Direct Percussion:
Technique:
Commonly used for:

A

= tapping directly on PTt’s skin w/ your fingertip.
= tap sharply & release immediately.
= used w/ percussing PT’s frontal & maxillary sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Indirect percussion:
Technique:

Commonly used for:

A

=indirectly percussing PT;
= Place 1 hand on area you wish to percuss. Use finger of that hand (usually middle finger) as striking surface. Sharply tap (simply from snapping wrist) distal knuckle of finger w/ tip of other middle finger. Snap the finger back quickly to avoid dampening sound.
= Percussing chest (make sure finger lies in ICS)

61
Q

Blunt percussion:
technique:

Commonly used for:

A

= “Blunt weapon” best used for detecting pain/ inflammation.
= Simply strike PT’s skin w/ ulnar side of your fist w/ just enough force to elicit tenderness but not cause undue pain.
= in costovertebral angle when examining a PT for a kidney infection

62
Q

AVPU:

A

Alert, responds to Verbal stimuli, Only Painful stimuli, & Unresponsive

63
Q

Dysarthria:
Dysphonia:
Aphasia:

A

= defective speech caused by motor deficits
= voice changes caused by vocal cord problems
= defective language caused by neurologic damage to the brain

64
Q

Expressive aphasia:
Receptive aphasia:

A

= words will be garbled &/or expressed
= words will be clear but unrelated to your questions
(PT w/ receptive aphasia can have such difficulty talking that you could mistakenly suspect a psych disorder)

65
Q

Assessing PT’s ability to concentrate w/ 3 exercises:

A

= 1st: digit span
= 2nd: serial sevens
= 3rd: spelling backwards

66
Q

1st exercise for assessing PT’s concentration:

2nd exercise for assessing PT’s concentration:

3rd exercise for assessing PT’s concentration:

A

= Digital Span PT repeat a series of numbers back to you. (Norm/= repeat at least 5 numbers forward & backward)
= Serial Sevens= PT start @ 100 & subtract 7 each time(Norm/= complete once in 90 Secs w/ <4 errors.)
= Spelling Backwards: PT spell a common five-letter word backward

67
Q

Tachypnea possible causes:
Bradypnea possible causes:

A

= hypoxia, shock, head injury, DKA, or anxiety.
= drug OD, severe hypoxia, or CNS insult

68
Q

Exhalation process:
Inhalation process:

A

= Passive use→ of respiratory muscles’ elastic recoil.
= Active use requiring ATP→ of respiratory muscles (diaphragm & intercostals) to increase the chest’s inner diameter.

69
Q

Eupnea:
Hyperpnea:
Cheyene-Stokes:

A

= Normal breathing
= Deep breathing
= Gradual increases & decreases in respirations w/ periods of apnea; caused by increasing ICP & brainstem injury

70
Q

Normal BP:

A

SBP 100-135 mmHg & DBP 60-80 mmHg

71
Q

Orthostatic Vital sign Test:

Healthy PTs vitals w/ test:
Positive test:

A

= Take PT’s pulse & BP while they’re supine & have PT sit up, dangle feet, & then stand. In 30- 60 secs retake vital signs.
=Healthy PT vitals should not change;
= HR increases 10- 20 BPM or if SBP drops 10- 20 mmHg indicating possible hypovolemia

72
Q

Hyperthermia is a temp of:
Temp of up to 102°F (38.9°C):
Temp rises above 103°F (39.4°C):
Temps above 105°F (40.6°C):

A

= =100.4°F (38°C) or higher
= increases metabolism markedly.
= Neurons of the brain can denature.
= brain cells die & seizures can occur

73
Q

Body maintains temp ~of:
Celsius# to Fahrenheit:
Fahrenheit# to Celsius:

A

= 98.6°F (37°C)
= (C# -32) / 1.8
= (1.8 x F) + 32

74
Q

Hypothermia treatment:

Body temp of 93°F (33.9°C):
Temp drops below 90°F (32.2°C):
Temp drops much below 70°F (21.1°C):

A

= b/c low fibrillation threshold always handle PTs gently when assessing/moving them.
= normal body warming mechanisms begin to fail.
= Shivering stops, heart sounds diminish, & cardiac irritability +
= PT has deathlike appearance & possibly irreversible asystole (absence of heartbeat)

75
Q

Skin % of weight to body:
Skin reg/s body temp through:
Epidermis is avascular (has no blood vessels) so:
Eccrine glands aka merocrine glands:
Apocrine glands found exclusively:

A

= 15%
= radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation
= blood vessels from underlying dermis must supply its nutrition
= open onto skin surface & help control body temp w/ water excretion
=armpits & genital region & open into hair follicles giving off a scent & respond to emotional stress “Apple smells”

76
Q

Skin tugor test:
Norm/ skin test results: immediately returns to its original state.
Poor turgor results:
Decreased mobility suggests:

A

= pulling skin fold of over a bony prominence & then releasing it
= immediately returns to its original state
= Tenting & from dehydration.
= edema or scleroderma, a progressive skin disease.

77
Q

Primary skin marks:

A

“Many= Macule
Purple = Plaque
Wizards = Wheal
Paint = Patch
Pretty = Papule
New = Nodule
Tattoos = Tumor
Placing = Pustule
Various = Vesicle
Colors = Cyst
Beneath = Bulla
Their = Telangiectasia
Skin” = Skin

78
Q

Macule:
Plaque:
Wheal:
Patch:
Papule:
Nodule:
Tumor:
Pustule:
Vesicle:
Cyst:
Bulla:
Telangiectasia:

A

= flat spot; color varying w/ white-brown or red-purple less than 1cm
= Superficial papule w/ diameter > than 1cm & rough texture
= Pink friction “burn”
= irregular flat spot w/ diameter > 1cm
= Elevated firm spot color white-brown /blue-purple w/ diameter <1cm
= elevated firm spot 1-2cm
= elevated solid >2cm
= elevated spot <1cm purulent liquid
=elevated area <1cm w/ serous fluid
= elevated palpable area w/ liquid or viscous matter
= vesicle w/ diameter >1cm
= Red threads

79
Q

Secondary skin lesions:

A

= Fissure “Frightening
= Scar Scars
= Erosion Etch
= Keloid Killer
= Ulcer Ulcers
= Excoriation Exposing
= Scale Scaly
= Lichenification Layers
= Crust: Crumbling
= Atrophy: Atrophy”

80
Q

Abnormal Nail Findings:

A

Clubbing, Paronychia, Onycholysis,Terry’s nails, Transverse lines, Psoriasis, Beau’s Lines,

81
Q

Beau’s lines in finger nails:

Estimating the timing or length of an illness by:

Why lines form:

A

= Transverse depressions in nails & associated w/ severe illness.
Like transverse lines, they form under nail fold & grow out w/ nail.
= Location of the line. (lines on >1 nail often indicates PT had serious systemic illness during past 2-3Mns)
During severe illness, the nails grow slowly, thus forming the lines.

82
Q

Psoriasis in finger nails:

A

= small pits in the nails and can be an early sign of psoriasis

83
Q

Traverse Lines in finger nails:
Can appear w/ or with:

A

= White lines parallel w/ lunula vs cuticle &
= Severe illness; shows under proximal nail folds & grow out w/ nail

84
Q

Terry’s nails:
Seen in:

A

= mostly whitish nail w/ band of reddish-brown at distal nail tip
= Aging, liver cirrhosis/failure, CHF, & diabetes

85
Q

Onycholysis in finger nails:

A

= nail bed separates from the nail plate. It begins distally & enlarges the free edge of the nail. There are many causes including hyperthyroidism

86
Q

Paronychia in finger nails:

A

=inflammation of proximal & lateral nail folds & can be acute or chronic. The folds appear red, swollen, & tender. The cuticle cannot be visible. People who frequently immerse their hands in water are susceptible

87
Q

Clubbing fingernails:

A

= “finger clubs” distal phalanx of each finger is rounded and bulbous. The proximal nail feels spongy. This is caused by the chronic hypoxia found in cardiopulmonary diseases and lung cancer.

88
Q

A boggy (soft & pliable) nail suggests:

A

= the clubbing seen in systemic cardiorespiratory diseases.

89
Q

Psoriasis skin condition:
Skin look:

A

= chronic skin condition causing cells build up rapidly on skin’s surface
= Thick, red, scaly patches that can be itchy & sometimes painful

90
Q

Hair Dandruff:
Hair psoriasis:
Hair seborrheic dermatitis:

A

= Mild flaking
= Heavy flaking
= Greasy scaling

91
Q

External eye consists:
Mnemonic:

A

= Eyelid, Conjunctiva, Lacrimal gland, Ocular muscles, & Bony skull orbit = “Every Cat Loves Outside Birds”

92
Q

lacrimal glands in temporal region of superior eyelid F:

A

= Produce tears to moisten the eye

93
Q

Eyelids function:

A

= Spread tears over eyes, reg/ light entering, & protect from foreign bodies

94
Q

Conjunctiva:

A

= thin membrane covering anterior surface of eye & inside of the eyelid

95
Q

Ocular Muscles:
Innervated by 3 cranial nerves:

A

= control eye movement
= Oculomotor (CN-III), trochlear (CN-IV),& abducens (CN-VI)

96
Q

Cranium consists of:
saying:

A

= Frontal, Parietal, Temporal, Occipital, Ethmoid, & Sphenoid bones
“Parents on top” “S above E in alphabet”

97
Q

Face includes nasal bones:

A

Maxillary, Lacrimal, Zygomatic, Palate, Inferior nasal Concha,& Vomer

98
Q

internal eye consists of:
Mnemonic:

A

= sclera, cornea, iris, lens, & retina
= “Some Cool Individuals Like Reading”

99
Q

sclera:
Cornea:

Retina:

A

= white of the eye; Dense avascular structure gives eye shape
= Separates anterior chamber fluid from external environment & permits light to enter the lens & reach the retina.
= Sensory network of eye transforms light rays into electrical impulses that the optic nerve transmits to the brain.

100
Q

Lens & Function:

Iris:
Iris function

A

= Cellular structure behind iris; Convex & transparent allows images to focus onto the retina
=Circular contractile muscle; Its pigment produces color of eye
=Controls amount of light reaching the retina by controlling pupil size & initiated by Optic N. CN-II (senses light), & Oculomotor N. CNIII (controls size of pupil)

101
Q

visual acuity test=

Recording PT’s grade:
1st # grade:
2nd #:
Normal results:

A

= PT 20 ft from Visual Acuity wall/Snell Chart/PT hold visual acuity card 14 In from their face. Ask PT to cover 1 eye & begin reading the lines
= Grade next to smallest line which PT can read at least ½ letters
= Distance PT is away from chart
= Distance from which a normal eye could read the line
= 20/20. EX 20/70= normal eye could read line 70 ft away but PT could read it only from 20 ft.

102
Q

Bitemporal hemianopsia:
Left/Right Homonymous Hemianopsia:
Homonymous Quadrantic Defect:

A

= loss of vision in the outside half of each eye
= loss of vision in the right half of both eyes or left half of both eyes
= loss of vision in the same quadrant of both eyes EX LQ & LQ loss

103
Q

Sluggish pupil suggests=
Bilateral eye sluggishness can indicate= Global Hypoxia to the brain tissue or an adverse drug reaction.
Constricted pupils= Opiate OD
Fixed & dilated pupils usually= brain death.
Nystagmus= fine jerking of the eyes
When shining light laterally of eye look for:

Shadow could suggest=

A

= pressure on Oculomotor Nerve CN-III) from increased ICP.
=Global Hypoxia to the brain tissue or an adverse drug reaction.
= Opiate OD
= Brain death
= fine jerking of eyes
= Crescent-shaped shadow on medial side of iris B/c iris is flat & cast no shadow.
= Glaucoma→ caused by blockage that restricts aqueous humor fluid from leaving anterior chamber thus increasing intraocular pressure & threatens PT’s eyesight.

104
Q

Ear has 3 parts:

A

Outer ear, Middle ear, & Inner ear

105
Q

Outer ear consists:

Mnemonic:

A

= Auricle, External Acoustic Meatus “Ear canal”, & Tympanic membrane “eardrum”
“All Ears Auscultate Mighty Tubas”

106
Q

Auricle:
Auricle comprises:

A

= visible skin-covered cartilage that extends outward from the skull
= Helix (outer rim), Antihelix (Inner rim), Lobe, Concha (Opening-canal), & Tragus (protuberance lying in front of concha)

107
Q

Mastoid process of Temporal bone=

Mastoid bone=

A

= behind ear & works as attachment for sternocleidomastoid muscle (palpable behind earlobe)
= contains air-filled cells to middle ear & why ear infections(otitis) often presents w/ tenderness in the mastoid area

108
Q

Translucent tympanic membrane=

A

= @ end of ear canal, separates ear canal from middle ear “ear drum”

109
Q

External Acoustic Meatus “ear canal”:

A

= opens behind tragus & is ~2-3 Cms long in adults.

110
Q

Hair & sebaceous ear glands:

A

= produce wax (cerumen) line distal third of canal.

111
Q

Middle ear contains 3 small bones/ossicles:
Middle ear bones Function:
Middle ear anatomy :

A

= malleus, incus, stapes
= transmit & amplify sound from tympanic membrane to inner ear.
= air-filled cavity in temporal bone, begins w/ medial surface of tympanic membrane.

112
Q

Umbo=
Eustachian tubes=

A

= pulls eardrum inward/concave(“cone of light” visible w/ otoscopy)
= help move mucus from ear- nasopharynx & help =pressure w/ outside air & middle ear during swallowing, sneezing, & yawning

113
Q

Malleus (Hammer):
Incus (Anvil):
Stapes (Stirrup):

A

= 1st bone in middle ear that picks up sound vibrations from eardrum
= 2nd bone connects Malleus to stapes & helps pass sound vibrations
= 3rd bone transfers sound vibrations to inner ear thru oval window

114
Q

Vestibule:
Semicircular Canals:
Cochlea:

A

= Central part of inner ear helps w/ balance & detecting head position
= 3 loops in inner ear help w/ balance w/ detecting head rotation
= “Cochlear hears” coil transmits sound to Acoustic N. (CN-VIII) “sound vibrations to electric impulses”

114
Q

inner ear cavity contains:
Cochlea transmits to:
Hearing=

Labyrinth=

A

= Vestibule, Semicircular canals, Cochlea, Labyrinth
=acoustic nerve (CN-VIII).
= vibrations from environment to the tympanic membrane (trans/ed through eardrum to ossicles & cochlea to translate for brain)
= helps us maintain balance by sensing position & m-nt of our head & innervated by the acoustic nerve.

115
Q

Otorrhea:

A

= discharge from ear

116
Q

Hearing loss testing use=
Pneumatic Otoscope:

A

= a tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) to perform the Rinne & Weber tests
= can Push air through speculum allowing to test tympanic membrane mobility

117
Q

Rinne Test:
Doing Rinne Test:

Rinne Test normal:

A

= hear sounds better through air or bone
=Tuning fork placed on mastoid bone (bone conduction) & then next to your ear (air conduction).
= hear sound longer w/ air conduction= normal

118
Q

Weber Test:
Weber Test Conductive Hearing Loss:
Weber Test Sensorineural Hearing Loss:

A

=hear sound equally in both ears; Tuning fork @ center of forehead
= Sound louder w/ tuning fork in Affected ear (can be infection/wax)
= Louder w/ tuning fork in UNaffected ear (damaged cochlea/nerve)

119
Q

External nose comprises:

A

= nasal bones, septum, nares, & turbinates,

120
Q

Nares:
Nasal Septum:
Turbinate/ conchae=
Turbinates help:

A

= anterior openings in the nose.
= divides nasal cavities.
=Bony ridges on medial surface of nose to create turbulence
= Clean, warm, & humidify inspired air w/ mucous membranes (very vascular & resp/s system’s 1st filtration system)

121
Q

Paranasal sinuses:
Nasal bones:
Sinus bones saying:

A

= Air pockets in nasal cavity bones & line w/ mucus membranes & cilia
= frontal, maxillary, ethmoid, & sphenoid bones
=“FESM front front, E before S, M muncher”

122
Q

Cilia in sinuses:
Sinuses function:
nasal flaring indications:
Rhinitis:
Lips:

A

= fine hair like “nipples” move secretions into oral & nasal cavities
= Help insulate brain & give vocal resonance (absent w/ head cold)
= Respiratory distress
= runny nose commonly from allergies
= mark mouth entrance & play a role in articulation of speech

123
Q

Mouth houses:
Roof of mouth formed by:
Major salivary glands:
Parotid Gland:
Submandibular Gland:
Sublingual Gland:
Amylase:
Teeth:
Tongue:
Tongue Function:
Gingiva:

A

= : tongue, gingiva(gums), teeth, salivary glands,
= hard & soft palate
= parotid, submandibular, & sublingual.
= Post/ jaw & Ant/ ears; make amylase breaks carbs/starches to sugars
= Under & along lower jaw; Makes saliva for digestion & moisture
=makes amylase for digestion & secrets mucus for lubricate mouth
= enzyme to help break down food chemically
= Anchored in bony sockets & norm/=32 permanent teeth
= mobile muscle covered w/ mucous membranes & taste buds
= helps chewing, forming words, swallowing (moving food for teeth)
= “gums” very vascular mucosa linings & protect teeth

124
Q

pharynx consists of 3 distinct areas:

A

=Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, Laryngopharynx

125
Q

Nasopharynx:
Oropharynx:
Laryngopharynx:

A

= “filter” (behind nasal)
=”Food processor” (back throat)
= “air & food pathway” (above epiglottis)

126
Q

Tonsil:
Uvula:

A

= help separate oropharynx food process/ from nasopharynx.
= “Epiglottis” of nose & mouth @ soft palate hanging in back of mouth

127
Q

“Coffee grounds” in mouth:
Pink-tinged sputum indicates:
Green/Yellow phlegm suggests: a respiratory infection.

A

= suggests an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed
= acute pulmonary edema
= a respiratory infection.

128
Q

Midline neck structures:
Neck houses many life-sustaining structures:

A

= thyroid, trachea, esophagus, & S-column
= SC,Carotid Art/s & Jugular V.s delivering from/to brain, Air passage (lar/x/trac/), food passage (esoph/) into stomach (Major disruption to structures can= rapid deterioration/ death)

129
Q

Chest bone cage comprises:
Chest’s 3 cavities:
Lungs’ Lobe #s:
Mediastinum contains:

A

= 3 bones of sternum, 12 pairs of ribs & cartilage, & S-column
= mediastinum, right & left pleural cavity
= 3 R lobes & 2 L lobes to make room for heart
= heart, great vessels (vena cava, aorta, & pulmonic vessels), Trachea, & Esophagus

130
Q

pectus excavatum:
Pectus carinatum:

A

=condition where sternum is depressed
= condition where sternum curves outward

131
Q

Consolidated lung tissue:
Egophony:

Bronchophony:

Whispered pectoriloquy:

A

= pus/ tumor replaces air-filled lung
= change in voice sound through stethoscope; PT’s “ee” sound is heard as “ay,” suggesting lung consolidation/ pleural effusion.
= PT’s spoken voice sounds louder & clearer than normal when auscultated w/ stethoscope, often indicating lung consolidation
= sign where PT’s whispered voice heard clearly through stethoscope, often indicating lung consolidation.

132
Q

Newborn vitals :
Infant vitals:
Toddler vitals:
Preschool vitals:
School age vitals:
Adolescent vitals:

A

= RR 30-60, HR 100-180, SBP 60-90
= RR 30-60, HR 100-180, SBP 87-105
= RR 24-40, HR 80-110, SBP 95-105
= RR 24-34 , HR 80-110 , SBP 95-110
= RR 18-30 , HR 65-100, SBP 97-112
= RR 12-26 , HR 60-90 , SBP 112-128

133
Q

Tricuspid Valve auscultation site:
Pulmonic Valve auscultation site:
Mitral Valve (Apex) auscultation site:
Aortic Valve auscultation site:

A

= 4th intercostal space, Left Sternal border.
=2nd intercostal space, Left Sternal border.
= 5th intercostal space, Left Midclavicular line
=2nd intercostal space, Right Sternal border.

134
Q

Tactile fremitus:

A

= When the PT speaks, you can feel vibrations on their chest wall.

135
Q

hyperresonant percussion sound in right chest can indicate:
Dull percussion sound in right chest can indicate:

A

= Pneumothorax
= Hemothorax

136
Q

“Lub” (S1) Sound:
“Dub” (S2) Sound:
“Dee” (S3) Sound:

“Dee” (S4) sound:

A

= Mitral & Tricuspid valve closing (high pitch)
= Aortic & Pulmonic valve closing (high pitch)
= AKA “ventricular gallop”:“dee” of “lub-dub-dee”. Listen @ apex w/ PT lying on their left side
= AKA “arterial gallop” is low-pitched “dee” of “dee-lub-dub” heard in early-mid diastole. Listen @ apex w/ PT lying on their left side

137
Q

S1 Sounds auscultated @:
S2 Sounds (aortic) auscultated @:
S2 Sounds (Pulmonic) auscultated @:

A

= 5th ICS at Left Sternal border
= 2nd ICS at Right Sternal border
= 2nd ICS at Left Sternal border

138
Q

Splitting heart sounds:

A

= mitral & aortic valves close slightly before the tricuspid & pulmonic valves thus hear two sets of sounds instead of one

139
Q

Ejection Click heart sound:
Opening Snap heart sound:
Pericardial Friction Rub heart sound:
Murmur heart sound: Rumbling/vibrating noise from turbulent blood flow through heart valves, a large artery, or a septal defect.

A

= Sound from a stiff or stuck valve.
= Stenotic Bi/tricuspid valve’s leaflets recoiling abruptly after V diastole
= Inflammation >heart’s visceral/parietal surfaces rub each heartbeat
= “Rumbling/vibrating” > turbulent blood through valves, a large artery, or a septal defect

140
Q

Ascites:
Borborygmi:
Hyperperistalsis:
Normal bowel sounds consist:
More frequent sounds indicate:
Decreased or absent sounds suggest:

A

= bulges in flanks across abdomen indicating CHF
= loud prolonged “gurgling” (healthy GI) but can= hyperperistalsis
= more bowl sounds> + GI m-nt causing diarrhea/cramps
= Variety high-pitched gurgles & clicks occurring every 5-15 secs
= + GI m-nt possibly indicating diarrhea or early intestinal obstruction
= Paralytic ileus/peritonitis. Listen at least 2mins if abdomen is silent

141
Q

white, curdlike vaginal discharge w/ no odor/yeasty, sweet odor:
Yellow, green, or gray discharge w/ a foul/fishy odor:
Profuse, yellow penis discharge could sign:
Scant, clear/white penis discharge suggest:

A

= suggest a fungal infection (candidiasis).
= suggest a bacterial infection (gonorrhea or Gardnerella).
= gonorrhea
= nongonococcal urethritis.

142
Q

acute epididymitis/ Testicular torsion:

If surgery isn’t provided within how long? test can be lost:

A

= twisted spermatic cord (torsed testicle usually swollen/tender & rides higher in scrotum.)
= 6 Hrs (same as ABDMN)

143
Q

Common boner pills:

A

vardenafil (Levitra), sildenafil (Viagra), and tadalafil (Cialis)

144
Q

Anal canal length & kept closed by:
Internal ring M. type & controlled by what NS system:
When rectum fills w/ feces what happens:
External sphincter muscle type? & under control of what?
lower half of anal canal:
upper half of anal canal:

A

= ~2.5-4.0 cm long & kept closed by in/external anorectal sphincters
= has smooth muscle that the autonomic nervous system controls.
= Internal sphincter relaxes, resulting in the urge to defecate.
= Striated Smooth Muscle & voluntary control.
= contains sensory fibers
=is somewhat insensitive b/c less sensory fibers

145
Q

Hinge Joints:
Ball-and-Socket Joints:
Saddle Joints:
Condyloid Joints:
Gliding Joints:
Pivot Joints:
common causes of a tender joint :

A

= Allow only flexion & Extension EX:Finger & elbows.
= Allow rotation & wide range of motion EX Shoulder & hip.
= Permit movement in several planes EX Thumb joints.
= Similar to ball & socket joints but don’t allow rotation. EX Wrist.
= Permit sliding movement of 1 bone across another EX Hands & feet.
= Allow a turning motion EX 1st 2 C-vertebrae.
= arthritis, tendonitis, bursitis, or osteomyelitis.

146
Q

Wrists & Hands:
Radiocarpal Joint:
Carpals & Metacarpals:
MCP Joint (MetaCarpoPhalangeal):
PIP Joint (Proximal InterPhalangeal):
DIP Joint (Distal InterPhalangeal):
M-nts of MCP, PIP,& DIP Joints:

A

= Phalangies, Metacarpal “Middle”, Carpal
= Radius & Ulna articulate w/ carpal bones @ wrist
= Carpals articulate w/ metacarpals.
= Metacarpals articulate w/ proximal phalanges @ MCP joint.
= Proximal phalanges articulate w/ middle phalanges @ PIP joint.
= Middle phalanges articulate w/ distal phalanges @ DIP joint.
= (Flex/ & extended)MCP joints can abduct (spread)& adduct (together)

147
Q

Elbow Joint Structures:
Ulna nerve:Between olecranon process & medial epicondyle.
Movements: Hinge joint allowing flexion & extension, Supination (turn palm up) & pronation (turn palm down) of the forearm.
Major Muscles: Flexors: Biceps. Extensors: Triceps.
Forearm Muscles: Supinators: Allow forearm to turn the palm up. Pronators: Allow the forearm to turn the palm down.

A

= lateral & medial epicondyles, olecranon process of proximal ulna, & proximal radius. Bursa: lies between olecranon process & the skin.

148
Q
A