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Intro To Rad-for Final > Week 8 > Flashcards

Week 8 Flashcards

1
Q

If you accidentally prick yourself with a needle as you perform a venipuncture procedure…

A

you flood the area with water, clean it with soap and water, and report the incident

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2
Q

Drugs intended for single use by parenteral administration are typically contained in an?

A

Ampule

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3
Q

Sterile needles used for patient injections are often required to…

A

use an angiocath for improved safety

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4
Q

If you work in CT and administer IV contrast…

A

you are permitted to enter the medication data into the patient chart

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5
Q

Milliliter: a metric unit of measurement, equivalent to ________ and ___________

A

1cc —- is equivalent to 1/1000 of a cubic centimeter

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6
Q

What does STAT mean?

A

Immediate

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7
Q

What happens when extravasation occurs?

A

IV fluids leak out of a vessel into surrounding tissue, causing swelling, pain, and potential tissue damage.
The patient might tell you it’s burning.

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8
Q

What is the abbreviation IM?

A

intramuscular

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9
Q

What are the common sites for venipuncture?

A

Basilic and cephalic

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10
Q

Veins in what body part are preferred for contrast medium injection?

A

Forearms

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11
Q

For an average-sized patient, what angle is the needle tip positioned for a subcutaneous injection?

A

45 degrees

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12
Q

What is a parenteral route of administration?

A

Injections

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13
Q

What are some injection routes?

A

Intravenous (IV)
intramuscular (IM)
subcutaneous (SC)

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14
Q

Define sublingual.

A

Administering substances under the tongue for absorption into the bloodstream

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15
Q

What are the“rights” of medication administration?

A

The right route
The right time
The right drug
The right patient
The right drug dosage

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16
Q

Infiltration and extravasation can occur when there is…

A

localized swelling around the insertion site of an IV but not associated skin erythema

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16
Q

What is an antagonist?

A
  • A drug that binds to the receptor and completely or partially blocks the activation of a biological response.
  • A drug that nullifies an intended action
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17
Q

What are examples of antihistamines? (drug names)

A
  1. Benadryl
  2. Zyrtec
  3. Allegra
  4. Claratin
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18
Q

When should a patient not be given thrombolytics?

A

An example is given: A patient with a history of colon cancer with blood in the stools.

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19
Q

What is a “confined Diuretic” to NSAIDS?

A

Compromised renal function

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20
Q

Diuretics, furosemide, and Lasix are prescribed to patients with what type of conditions?

A

Congestive heart failure

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21
Q

Heparin is best administered through what type of injection?

A

Intravenous

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22
Q

Drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription?

A

TRUE

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23
Q

Define Brand name regarding drugs.

A

Name given by drug’s manufacturer.

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24
What does the drug levothyroxine use to manage?
Hypothyroidism
25
What is a major complication for patients undergoing blood clotting drug therapy?
Bleeding
26
Drugs that are commonly used for the treatment of high cholesterol are referred to as?
Statins
27
What is an anticholinergic drug?
Decreases muscular activity
28
What is Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)?
Annual publication that contains current product information
29
What is true about Nitroglycerine?
1. Used to treat chest pain 2. Causes blood vessels to dilate 3. Injected with a hypodermic needle 4. Can also be placed under the patient’s tongue
30
What are analgesics?
Medications to relieve pain by blocking pain signals or by reducing inflammation without causing loss of consciousness
31
What is used to treat Type 2 diabetes?
Insulin, (glucagon) metformin, diet, and exercise
32
What modality would be of concern in medical imaging if a patient had a transdermal patch?
MRI
33
Slow, uniform absorption of drugs over several hours is in the _________?
Small bowel/small intestine
34
What is anaphylaxis shock?
Severe life-threatening allergic reaction that causes rapid swelling, difficulty breathing, and drop in blood pressure.
35
Don’t pick the term Echinacea on the exam
Just don't
36
Describe pharmacology genetics.
Excrete, Metabolize, Absorption
37
Vitamins, herbs, and dietary supplements are classified as what?
Over the counter drugs
38
What are the common dosage forms of drugs?
Suspension, capsule, tablet, inhalant, solution, transdermal
39
Non-prescription drugs are also known as?
Over the counter
40
Any characteristic that makes a drug undesirable or improper is...
its contraindication
41
Benadryl is a drug _____ name?
Brand
42
What drug promotes bowel evacuation?
Laxatives
43
Define Pharmacology.
Study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties, and effects on living organisms
44
It is acceptable to discontinue CPR on a person when...
a qualified medical practitioner calls a halt
45
What is fibrillation?
Heart rhythm disorders. Quivering contraction of cardiac muscle fibers - when the ventricles “flutter”
46
Use a backboard when performing CPR on a patient who is...
lying supine in a bed with a soft mattress
47
When using an AED, two AED chest pads are used...
one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs
48
The Heimlich maneuver is modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts.
True
49
CPR performed on an infant is the same as on an adult but...
adjusted based on patient size
50
When performing two-person CPR...
the rescuers remain at their positions to ensure continuity of compressions
51
When can CPR be stopped?
The victim resumes respiration and circulation. The physician calls a halt The rescuer is too exhausted.
52
When performing CPR as a single rescuer, after each group of ___compressions, give ___ ventilations.
30 compressions, 2 ventilations
53
What are the CABs of CPR?
Compression, Airway, Breathing
54
If a patient does not have any verbal response, but their arm moves with your touch and pinch, the person demonstrates:
unconscious but reflexive level of consciousness
55
When working with burn patients...
use an extraordinary level of aseptic technique
56
What do you do when a patient is having an asthma attack?
Allow the patient to sit down and use an inhaler.
57
What do you do when a patient has a wound that continues to bleed through the bandage?
Call for help, apply pressure, and elevate the body part.
58
What does the patient do when they experience epistaxis?
Lean forward and pinch the bridge of their nose.
59
What is the first thing you should do if a patient stands turns pale and says they are dizzy?
Lay them down
60
When comparing hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia portrays clinical symptoms of?
Excessive thirst and urination, dry mouth, rapid breathing, drowsiness, and confusion.
61
Both semi-automatic and automatic AEDs...
determine the patient's cardiac rhythm
62
What type of shock is caused by a loss of blood from a knife or GSW (gunshot wound)?
Hypovolemic
63
In preparation for any emergent situation, the technologist should become familiar with the location of and access to the crash cart, AED location, and institutional numbers for emergency code announcements
Location of crash cart, AED operation, and institutional numbers for emergencies
64
To counteract hypoglycemia:
give orange juice
65
What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiology?
Anaphylactic
66
Symptoms of a head injury include?
Respiratory distress, change in the state of consciousness, the patient is lethargic.
67
Define hypovolemic shock?
caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid
68
If a patient starts to have a seizure after losing consciousness after a CT...
restrain the patient's extremities to prevent orthopedic injuries
69
Define cardiogenic shock.
Failure to pump enough blood to vital organs
70
Define syncope
Fainting
71
What is a common name for the emergency cart within medical imaging?
Crash cart
72
The single most important action for the radiographer when administering emergency care is to...
provide a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed and calling for assistance
73
Providing care in an emergency is intended to...
prevent further harm, preserve life, and stabilize the patient

Intro To Rad-for Final (6 decks)

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