Finals Studying Flashcards
1
Q
What makes up the ethics of the professions of radiological sciences?
A
State licensing board for x-ray machine operators & ARRT code of ethics
2
Q
What are laws?
A
The system of rules that a particular country or group recognize as regulating the actions of its members.
3
Q
What are ethics?
A
Moral principles that govern a person’s behavior or the conducting of an activity
4
Q
What are morals?
A
Generally accepted customs of right living & conduct and an individual’s practice in relation to these customs.
5
Q
Radiologic sciences professionals must know the ethical and professional standards of the profession
A
6
Q
What’s the easiest way to lose your license as a rad tech?
A
Violating the code of ethics or demonstrating unethical behavior
7
Q
What does ARRT Code of Ethics do?
A
Establishes professional norms of conduct
8
Q
All professional decisions in radiologic technology & other health care practices involve what?
A
A consideration of human values
9
Q
Keep your _____ out of ethical dilemmas
A
Bias
10
Q
Being rude or impolite to a patient’s family members because they are asking how long an examination will take is an example of what violation?
A
Professional etiquette violation
11
Q
Consequentialism
A
An ethical theory that judges whether or not something is right by what its consequences are.
12
Q
“If telling a lie would help save a person’s life, it’s the right things to do” is an example of ________
A
Consequentialism
13
Q
Steps to solving an ethical dilemma (Ethical Analysis)
A
1-identification of the problem
2-Developing alternative solutions
3-Selecting the best solution
4-Defending the selection (CYA)
14
Q
Although one’s morals may be considered, it is _____ to base ethical decisions exclusively on moral values.
A
Inappropriate
15
Q
Right or wrong?
Using Moral values are your complete guide to determine appropriate professional behavior
A
Wrong
16
Q
Beneficence
A
Perform actions that benefit others
17
Q
Nonmaleficence
A
Do No Harm
18
Q
Fidelity
A
Being faithful-perform acts that observe covenants or promises
19
Q
What would criticizing a doctor or team member in a public or private forum be an example of?
A
Unethical practice for a rad tech
20
Q
Constantly overexposing a patient to obtain a “perfect picture” for the radiologist is an example of what violation?
A
An ethical violation (doing harm to the patient by exposing them to extra radiation)
21
Q
Failure to pay ones federal income taxes would be an example of what?
A
Violation of federal law
22
Q
ARRT reserving the right to revoke any certification for someone it has registered for not following its rules demonstrates ________ to society?
A
Professional self-regulation
23
Q
Do patients have the legal right to ask for and receive extra studies from the rad tech?
A
NO
24
Q
ASRT
A
American Society of Radiologic Technologists
25
What group makes the practice standards for medical imaging and radiation therapy.
ASRT
26
In a legal proceeding, the actions of a radiographer will be judged with regard to their compliance with what?
The ASRT practice standards for medical imaging and radiation therapy.
27
What must be hidden if you are using scans in your social media to protect you legally?
Patient’s, Name, DOB and all other information that would connect the scan with the patient.
28
What is a tort?
When a patient files a claim saying that they have been wronged or have sustained some injury, other than breach of contract.
29
What can be considered assault?
May only be verbal, but patient perceives possible harm from comments.
Threat of bodily harm to patient due to reckless conduct by the healthcare provider
30
If you do not get permission to touch patient and use professional palpitation techniques, you may be accused of ______
Battery
31
Improper positioning methods & rough handling can warrant a charge of ____
Battery
32
If a patient feels they were touched without permission, a ______ complaint can be filed.
Battery
33
With senile, pediatric or other incompetent patients what do you need to do to keep from being accused of false imprisonment?
Obtain consent to restrain or immobilize from someone authorized to give consent
34
What is this an example of?
An attendee at a meeting of professional radiographers stood up and stated that the chairperson uses excessive radiation daily
Defamation
35
What is a willful and intentional misrepresentation of facts known as?
Fraud
36
Health records are the property of who?
The provider
37
Health information in the health record is the property of who?
The patient
38
HIPAA
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 1996
39
When negligence occurs to a patient, who is responsible for proving injury?
An expert witness
40
What percentage of all medical claims of negligence involve medical imaging?
About 10%
41
Res ipsa loquitur
The thing speaks for itself
42
What does Res ipsa loquitur mean, legally speaking?
It’s a legal doctrine that intends to shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff (the patient) to the defendant (technologist). It implies that the patient was injured through no fault of their own while in the complete control of another.
EXAMPLE:PATIENT’S SKIN TORN WHEN BEING TRANSFERRED FROM
THE CART TO THE EXAM BED
43
Patients can agree or refuse to be treated based on information provided by the radiographer (informed consent)
KNOW THIS!
44
Consent form signed & witnessed by disinterested third party is an example of what?
Informed consent
45
What should always be considered and safeguarded when performing diagnostic or therapeutic procedures?
The patient’s right and autonomy
46
What does the disclosure clause do?
Explains the procedure, its risks and benefits, and possible alternatives to the procedure.
47
What clause is needed if the removal of tissue may be necessary?
Tissue-disposal clause
48
What is the bottom of the lungs called?
costophrenic angle
49
Top of lungs is called what?
Apex or apices (plural)
50
Eukaryotes
Organisms whose cells have a true nucleus
51
Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by:
A vector
52
Streptococci and bacilli are classified as what type of microorganisms?
Bacteria
53
Bacteria have all of the following characteristics except they:
1) Are eukaryotic organisms.
2) Have the ability to produce endospores.
3) Are single-cell organisms.
4) May live on a host in a colony form.
1) Are eukaryotic organisms.
54
Any microorganism that causes disease is?
Pathogenic
55
All of the following are related except:
1) fungi.
2) protozoa.
3) viruses.
4) bacillus.
4) bacillus
56
All of the following are true of radiology department biosafety except:
1) washing hands before and after an interventional procedure.
2) wearing gloves while handling an emesis basin with vomitus.
3) cleaning up a biospill area using a commercial soap solution.
4) using a resuscitation mask or bag during CPR.
3) cleaning up a biospill area using a commercial soap solution.
57
The single greatest measure that can be done to prevent the spread of infection is:
1) proper discarding of all refuse in sharps containers.
2) proper hand washing technique.
3) proper disinfection of radiographic cassettes.
4) discarding lead aprons that have been contaminated.
2) proper hand washing technique.
58
When gowning and gloving for a sterile procedure, it is important to remember that:
1) the techniques are the same as gowning for medical asepsis.
2) sterile gloves must be put on outside of the sterile work area.
3) after gowning, the front of the gown down to the waist, and the sleeves are considered sterile.
4) when passing a sterile team member, you must pass each other face to face in order to see any contamination.
3) after gowning, the front of the gown down to the waist, and the sleeves are considered sterile.
59
When gowning another person,
1) a nonsterile circulating person pulls up the gown and fastens the back and waistband.
2) the nonsterile person picks up the opened gown from behind, and hands it to the sterile person.
3) sterile masks are unnecessary.
4) the sterile person grabs the gown by the waist and wraps it around their waist with the assistance from the unsterile person.
1) a nonsterile circulating person pulls up the gown and fastens the back and waistband.
60
When putting on a pair of sterile gloves using the self-gloving, open technique,
1) jewelry must be wrapped in skin tape and may remain on during gloving.
2) the glove package is open and positioned so the wearer crosses his or her arm over the left glove to reach for the right glove.
3) the first glove is picked up by the inside cuff with one hand, being careful not the touch the outside of the glove.
4) the remaining glove is grabbed by the outside and placed on the unsterile hand, making it sterile.
3) the first glove is picked up by the inside cuff with one hand, being careful not the touch the outside of the glove.
61
When performing dressing changes, it is important to remember that:
1) working on the dressing change as a single person is highly recommended to prevent contamination.
2) dressing changes can be performed once there is a color change on the dressing surface.
3) if the wound is purulent, gowns are recommended.
4) sterile gowns are only needed if the wound is openly draining.
3) if the wound is purulent, gowns are recommended.
62
Which of the following represents good sterile technique?
1) When using a sterile setup, avoid bending and reaching over it.
2) Remove sterile forceps from their container and tap them on the edge so all the solution drips off.
3) Any sterile supplies added to a sterile tray, such as cotton balls, can be returned to their containers if not used, as such waste is inefficient and costly.
1) When using a sterile setup, avoid bending and reaching over it.
63
Hazardous drug-related waste materials:
1) include only pharmaceuticals, to prevent needle perforations through the collection bag.
2) deal with bodily discharges such as sputum and feces.
3) are collected in clear bags for identification.
4) require the labeling of needle containers and breakable items of hazardous waste.
4) require the labeling of needle containers and breakable items of hazardous waste.
64
Which of the following is a true statement regarding cleansing enemas?
1) Oil retention enemas are used to "harden" stool material for more complete evacuation.
2) Diabetic patients require special colon preparation procedures.
3) Standardized colonic preparation protocols are used by all departments performing colon studies.
4) Cleansing enemas are typically not recommended for inflammatory bowel disease.
2) Diabetic patients require special colon preparation procedures.
65
Performing fluoroscopic examinations of the colon are scheduled less often than before.
The reason for this change in the clinical study of the colon includes:
1) an increased cost of barium as a contrast agent.
2) patient tolerance for barium enemas has diminished.
3) the sensitivity of colonoscopy has surpassed the results of barium contrast colon studies.
4) the shortage of radiologists has made fluoroscopy of the colon harder to schedule.
3) the sensitivity of colonoscopy has surpassed the results of barium contrast colon studies.
66
When performing a single-contrast barium enema examination,
1) show the patient the entire volume of enema solution to prepare him or her for the study.
2) suspend the enema bag above the table at a height no greater than 30 inches.
3) continue emptying the barium solution as the patient cramps to encourage peristalsis.
2) suspend the enema bag above the table at a height no greater than 30 inches.
67
The administration of glucagon shortly before a double-contrast barium enema is intended to:
1) increase liver function and the release of glycogen.
2) cause the gallbladder to empty. 3) relieve bowel spasm.
4) increase peristalsis to improve bowel motility.
3) relieve bowel spasm.
68
For a single-contrast barium enema,
1) approximately 500 mL of barium is used for an adult.
2) air or carbon dioxide is used as a contrast agent.
3) spot images of the cecum, hepatic flexure, splenic flexure, and sigmoid are taken.
4) a post-evacuation image is taken 24 hours later to assess emptying.
1) approximately 500 mL of barium is used for an adult.
69
The use of a water-soluble contrast agent such as Gastrografin for a colon examination is warranted for patients with:
1) an intussusception.
2) a possible bowel perforation.
3) diverticulosis.
4) pancreatitis.
2) a possible bowel perforation.
70
Post-procedural care for patients who have had a colon examination should include:
1) instructions for maintaining hydration.
2) an increase in fluid intake and dietary fiber for a few days after the examination.
3) an awareness of the change in stool color to an ashen gray color and the importance of eliminating the barium during defecation.
4) All of these.
4) All of these.
71
Size of x ray field for portrait?
For landscape?
14 x 17 (portrait)
17 x 14 (landscape)
72
What should you do if the patient is unable to raise their arms for the x-ray?
Document it!
73
Vert-up and down
Tran-toward me or away
Horz-toward wall bucky or away
CTE-stops at detent
Rot-rotates
74
What Act states that a patient can request that her images be sent to another mammography service?
MQSA Mammography Quality Standards Act
75
What is a microbial community found on or in a healthy person?
Flora
76
What are the names of arm veins preferred for iv
Cephalic & Basilic veins
77
What is peristalsis?
Waves of contraction that propel contents through the gastrointestinal tract
78
Barium atomic number
56
79
What are some injection routes?
Intravenous (IV)
intramuscular (IM)
subcutaneous (SC)
intradermal (ID)
intrathecal (into CSF)
80
What are the“rights” for medication administration?
The right route of administration.
The right (correct) time
The right (correct) drug
The right patient
81
What is an antagonist?
Nullifies the intended action
82
What are examples of antihistamines? (drug names)
1. Benadryl
2. Claritin
3. Allegra
83
When should a patient not be given thrombolytics?
If they have bloody stool
The major adverse effect is bleeding complications.
84
What is a confined Diuretic to NSAIDS?
Compromised renal function
85
Diuretic, furosemide, and Lasix are prescribed to patients with what type of conditions?
Congestive heart failure
86
Heparin is best administered through what type of injection?
IV
87
Drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription?
True
88
What does the drug levothyroxine use to manage?
Hypothyroidism
89
What is a major complication for patients undergoing blood clotting drug therapy?
Bleeding
90
Drugs that are commonly used for the treatment of high cholesterol are referred to as?
Statins
91
What is an anticholinergic drug?
Blocks ACH-decreases muscle activity
92
What is Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)?
Annual publication that contains current product information
93
What is true about Nitroglycerine?
1. Used to treat chest pain
2. Causes blood vessels to dilate
3. Injected with a hypodermic needle
Can also be placed under the patient’s tongue
94
What are analgesics?
Medications to relieve pain by blocking pain signals or by reducing inflammation without causing loss of consciousness
NOT A SEDATIVE
95
What is used to treat Type 2 diabetes?
Glucophage(metformin)
96
What modality would be of concern in medical imaging if a patient had a transdermal patch?
MRI
97
Slow, uniform absorption of drugs over several hours is in the _________?
Small bowel/small intestine
98
What is anaphylaxis shock?
Severe life-threatening allergic reaction that causes rapid swelling, difficulty breathing, and drop in blood pressure.
99
*Don’t pick the term Echinacea on the exam
100
Describe pharmacology genetics.
Excrete,
Metabolize,
absorption
101
Vitamins, herbs, and dietary supplements are classified as what?
Dietary supplements
102
What are the common dosage forms of drugs?
Suspension, capsule, tablet, inhalant, solution
103
Non-prescription drugs are also known as?
OTC
104
*Any characteristic that makes a drug undesirable or improper is its contraindication
105
Benadryl is a drug _____ name?
Trade
106
What drug promotes bowel evacuation?
Laxatives
107
Define Pharmacology
Study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties, and effects on living organisms
108
It is acceptable to discontinue CPR on a person when a qualified medical practitioner calls a halt
109
What is fibrillation?
Heart rhythm disorders. Quivering contraction of cardiac muscle fibers
110
Use a backboard when performing CPR on a patient who is lying supine in a bed with a soft mattress
111
*When using an AED, two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs
112
The Heimlich maneuver is modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts
True
113
*CPR performed on an infant is the same as on an adult but adjusted based on patient size
114
*When performing two-person CPR, the rescuers remain at their positions to ensure continuity of compressions
115
When can CPR be stopped?
Victim resumes respiration and circulation
Physician calls a halt
Rescuer is too exhausted
116
When performing CPR as a single rescuer, after each group of ___compressions, give ___ ventilations.
30 compressions/2 breaths
117
What are the CABs of CPR?
Compression, Airway, Breathing
118
*If a patient does not have any verbal response, but their arm moves with your touch and pinch, the person demonstrates unconscious but reflexive level of consciousness
119
*When working with burn patients, use an extraordinary level of aseptic technique
120
What do you do when a patient is having an asthma attack?
Allow the patient to sit down and use inhaler
121
What do you do when a patient has a wound that continues to bleed through the bandage?
Call for help, apply pressure, and elevate body part
122
What does the patient do when they experience epistaxis?
Lean forward and pinch the bridge of their nose.
123
What is the first thing you should do if a patient stands turns pale and says they are dizzy?
Have them lay down
124
When comparing hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia portrays clinical symptoms of?
Excessive thirst and urination, dry mouth, rapid breathing, drowsiness, and confusion.
125
*In preparation for any emergent situation, the technologist should become familiar with the location of and access to the crash cart, AED location, and institutional numbers for emergency code announcements
126
What type of shock is caused by a loss of blood from a knife or GSW (gunshot wound)?
Hypovolemic
127
To counteract hypoglycemia, give orange juice
128
What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiology?
Anaphylactic
129
Symptoms of a head injury include?
Respiratory distress, change in the state of consciousness, the patient is lethargic.
130
Define hypovolemic shock?
caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid
131
*If a patient starts to have a seizure after losing consciousness after a CT, restrain the patient's extremities to prevent orthopedic injuries
132
Define cardiogenic shock.
Failure to pump enough blood to vital organs
133
Define syncope
Fainting
134
What is a common name for the emergency cart within medical imaging?
Crash cart
135
*The single most important action for the radiographer when administering emergency care is to provide a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed and calling for assistance
136
*Providing care in an emergency is intended to prevent further harm, preserve life, and stabilize the patient
137
*When a nonionic contrast agent is injected into an artery, you can visualize the artery because the iodine in the contrast agent mixes with blood and makes the artery radiopaque
138
*A mandatory prerequisite to studies that involve contrast agents is taking a thorough medical history including allergies and disease
139
*When working with a radiopharmaceutical, the nuclear medicine professional must be aware of the half-life of the isotope, isotope leaks or spills, and contamination that yields image artifacts
140
*Nuclear studies using radiopharmaceuticals are generally more functional
141
Define radiopharmaceuticals.
Radioactive material used in nuclear medicine
142
*A thorough medical history must be taken when using contrast for a radiology exam
143
T/F: nonionic low-osmolality contrast agents have gained popularity as a safer choice for iodine examinations. These still pose a risk to renal function.
True
144
Patients who have compromised kidney function include what type of patients?
Patients with renal disease or diabetes and older patients
145
What do the lab tests BUN and Creatinine determine?
Renal disease or renal function
146
*After contrast injection, closely monitor the patient and look for worsening signs such as vomiting and bronchospasm and inform the Radiologist or physician
147
The osmotic effects of ionic contrast agents that are a result of the movement of?
Water from body cells moves into the bloodstream causing increased blood volume and higher blood pressure.
148
*The ideal iodinated contrast agents would have low osmolality, nonionic chemical structure, water solubility, and 3 or more iodine atoms per molecule
In iodinated contrast agents, the non-iodinated part of the molecule, which is the "backbone" or carrier, is typically a tri-iodinated benzene ring with various side chains containing polar alcohol (-OH) groups to ensure water solubility.
149
*Nonionic iodine contrast agents differ from ionic agents in what way?
in that nonionic do not break down into a cation and an anion
150
What is an undesirable characteristic of ionic contrast agents?
*An undesirable characteristic of ionic contrast agent is their dissociation into a cation and an anion when dissolved in plasma
151
Most adverse reactions to ionic, iodinated contrast agents are created by?
Osmotic effects
152
Stomach examinations using barium sulfate have some degree of risk for patients who are?
Sedated
Mentally disabled
Potentially hypovolemic
153
If you suspect a duodenal bulb perforation, you do not want to use what?
Barium-sulfate
154
Barium atomic number is
56
155
Which chemical is chemically inert, and is often mixed with water and sodium citrate to prevent flocculation
Barium (Ba)
156
What happens in a double contrast study?
Air, and radiopaque contrast are used to pair to outline mucosal lining, joint interspaces, and passageways
157
Gadolinium-DTPA is used mostly in what modality?
MRI
158
*Positive contrast agents have _(high or low) atomic numbers, appear opaque on X-rays, and absorb X-ray photon energy to a great extent
High
159
Positive contrast agents have _____ atomic numbers while negative contrast agents have ____ atomic numbers.
Positive = high, Negative = low
160
There are 5 densities seen on radiographs: air/gas, water, fat, mineral, and metal. The lowest subject contrast between these five densities is between ______ and ______.
Water and fat
161
Contrast agents can be generally classified as ____ and _____.
Radiolucent (negative), Radiopaque (positive)
162
What is the purpose of using contrast media?
To increase or decrease radiographic density to allow anatomic tissues to be visualized
163
*Always communicate to the patient-nurse if the catheter fixation material has loosened, or if you notice anything else that isn’t right
164
*Swan-Ganz lines measure _____, may be single-lumen or multi-lumen, and are named after _______& _______.
arterial pressure, Jeremy Swan and William Ganz
165
What is the crime or tort of threatening or attempting to inflict immediate offensive physical contact or bodily harm that one has the present ability to inflict and that puts the victim in fear of such harm or contact?
Assault
166
Which of the following would make up the professional ethics of the profession of radiologic sciences?
State licensing board for X-ray machine operators
Radiography Department social events
ARRT Code of Ethics
State Medical Society
Collective bargaining rules of behavior
1 and 3 only
167
What is in the dermis?
Blood vessels. Nerves
Hair follicles. Sweat glands
Sebaceous glands Mast cells
Connective tissues. Papillae
Lymphatic vessels.
168
The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) reserves the right to revoke any certification from an individual whom it has registered. Reasons for revocation can vary from ethical violations to failure to maintain continuing education credits, just to mention two. This process of sanctioning demonstrates professional _____ to society.
Self-regulation
169
Failure to pay one’s federal income taxes would be an example of a(n):
Violation of federal law
170
What would be considered an unethical practice for a radiologic technologist?
Criticizing a doctor or team member in a private or public forum
171
Being rude and impolite to a patient’s family members because they are asking how long an examination will take is an example of a(n):
professional etiquette violation.
172
All professional decisions in medical imaging and other health care practices involve a consideration of:
Human values
173
Using moral rules as your complete guide to determining appropriate professional behavior…
Has its weaknesses because others may not have the same moral value system as you.
174
What is consequentialism?
an ethical theory that judges whether or not something is right by what its consequences are
175
Your duty as a professional is to:
Complete a quality CT examination quickly, not to interpret the images, and to not harm the patient.
176
It has been estimated that about ____of all medical claims of negligence involve medical imaging
10%
177
When negligence occurs to a patient, who is responsible for proving injury?
An expert witness
178
If the threat of bodily harm were to occur to a patient as a result of reckless conduct by the health care provider, this would be deemed:
An assault
179
What type of complaint can be filed by patients if they feel they have been touched without permission?
Battery
180
What is not a legal right of a patient in the radiology department?
To ask for and receive extra studies
181
A process by which patients can agree to be treated or refuse to be treated based on information provided by the radiographer about the examination is called _____ consent.
Informed
182
What is defamation?
When someone makes a false statement that harms a person's reputation or character. This can include written or spoken statements.
183
In a legal proceeding, the actions of a radiographer will be judged on his or her compliance with the:
Practice standards for medical imaging and radiation therapy.
184
It is the duty of any health care practitioner, including medical imaging personnel, to:
Safeguard all patient rights and autonomy.
185
The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitur intends to shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant (technologist). An example of this is:
The patient’s skin is torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed.
186
What is an unlawful touching of another that is without justification or consent?
Battery
187
Which statements regarding what providing care in an emergency is intended to do are correct?
1. prepare the injured patient for surgery.
2. prevent further harm to the patient.
3. preserve life.
4. place the patient into a sedated state for transport.
5. stabilize the patient until the appropriate medical assistance arrives.
2, 3 and 5 only
188
The single most important action for the radiographer when administering emergency care is:
A) Reacting to the emergent situation and providing any care needed to save the patient’s life.
B) Minimally getting involved for fear of medical and professional liability.
C) Providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance.
D) Waiting to provide care until any doctor or practitioner arrives.
Answer: C. providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance.
189
What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs including the brain?
Cardiogenic
Septic
Anaphylactic
Neurogenic
Answer: Cardiogenic
190
Symptoms of a head injury include:
A) Respiratory distress.
B) Change in state of consciousness.
C) The patient is lethargic.
D) All of these
Answer: D. All of these
191
What is the first thing you should do if a patient who is standing turns pale and says he feels dizzy?
A) Quickly take the exposure and get an emesis basin.
B) Have the patient inhale ammonia.
C) Have the patient lean against the radiographic table.
D) Have the patient lie down.
Answer: D. Have the patient lie down
192
When caring for a patient with epistaxis, the patient:
A) Should lean forward and pinch their nostrils against the midline septum for several minutes.
B) Should lie down quickly and tilt his or her head back.
C) Should be given an emesis basin and gauze pads.
D) Should sit back with his or her head tilted, and heparin gel should be applied inside the nose.
Answer: A. should lean forward and pinch their nostrils against the midline septum for several minutes.
193
An effective method to handle a patient with an asthmatic attack during a radiographic procedure would be to:
A) Tell the patient to breathe faster and with less depth to avoid losing consciousness.
B) Tell the patient to hold his or her breath for 30 seconds to recover.
C) Have the patient sit down and allow the patient to use his or her aerosol inhaler.
D) Recognize the patient's situation and work faster to get the examination done so they can use their inhaler sooner.
Answer: C. Have the patient sit down and allow the patient to use his or her aerosol inhaler.
194
As you are radiographing a patient from the emergency department who has a knife wound to the upper extremity, you notice that his wound dressing is becoming saturated with blood quickly, and he is getting lightheaded. You should:
A) Remove the dressing to assess the degree of bleeding.
B) Tell the patient to lean over to get his arm lower than his heart.
C) Call for help, apply pressure to the wound site, and elevate his arm.
D) Lay the patient down and begin CPR.
Answer: C. Call for help, apply pressure to the wound site, and elevate his arm.
195
When performing CPR as a single rescuer,
A) The compression rate is performed at 60 compressions per minute.
B) Assess circulation using the temporal artery of the forehead.
C) After each group of 30 compressions, give 2 quick ventilations.
D) Internal compressions should have a maximum depth of 1 inch.
Answer: C. After each group of 30 compressions, give 2 quick ventilations.
196
CPR can be stopped when:
A) The rescuer is physically exhausted.
B) A physician says it’s time to stop CPR.
C) The patient responds and shows signs of recovery.
D) All of these are correct.
Answer: D. All of these are correct
197
Drugs that relieve pain without causing a loss of consciousness are called:
A) Analgesics.
B) Anesthetics.
C) Antibiotics.
D) Antiemetics.
Answer: A. analgesics
198
All of the following are true of the drug nitroglycerine except it:
A) Causes blood vessels to constrict.
B) Is commonly used to treat angina.
C) May be administered to a patient under the tongue.
D) May be injected into a patient using a hypodermic needle.
Answer: A. causes blood vessels to constrict.
199
An annual publication commonly used to answer questions about drugs and their actions is the:
A) Pharmacists’ newsletter.
B) Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR).
C) FDA Register
D) Compendium of Drugs and Meds (CDM).
Answer: B. Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR).
200
A patient who is scheduled to have surgery on the esophagus for a diverticulum will likely be given a(an) _______ to decrease mucosal secretions and esophageal muscular activity.
A) analgesic
B) diuretic
C) anticholinergic
D) antiemetic
Answer: C. anticholinergic
201
Drugs that are commonly used for the treatment of high cholesterol are referred to as:
A) statins
B) antiplatelets
C) cholinesterase inhibitors
D) antianemic agents.
Answer: A. Statins
202
A major complication for patients undergoing (antiplatelet) blood clotting drug therapy is:
A) Vomiting
B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
C) Anxiety.
D) Bleeding.
Answer: D. Bleeding
203
A common drug used to manage hypothyroidism is:
A) Lorazepam.
B) Levothyroxine.
C) Levaquin.
D) Simvastatin.
Answer: B. levothyroxine
204
Select the true statement from the choices below:
A) Drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription.
B) Prescription drugs are also known as over-the-counter drugs.
C) Vitamins, supplements, and herbal remedies are classified as prescription drugs and dietary supplements.
D) Prescription drugs can only be dispensed by pharmacists.
Answer: A. Drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription.
205
Heparin is best administered to patients:
A) orally by way of a tablet
B) as a laxative
C) through an intramuscular injection
D) as an intravenous injection.
Answer: D. as an intravenous injection
206
Patients with congestive heart failure and lymphedema are typically prescribed:
A) a diuretic
B) Furosemide
C) Lasix
D) All of these
Answer: D. All of these
207
It is important for the professional imaging technologist to thoroughly understand his or her responsibilities regarding health information confidentiality. Particular considerations include:
1. All examination results are released by physicians only
2. The testimonial statement must be signed
3. All staff have the same standards for maintaining confidentiality
208
In the event a correction is needed in a paper document in a patient health record, what needs to be done to the entry?
To draw a single line through the error, write “ERROR,” and then record the correct information.
209
What items need to be considered as part of a medical imaging quality assurance program?
A) Medication errors
B) Thermal injuries occurring in MRI
C) Timespan available to schedule mammograms
D) Radiology department rate of repeat
E) Patient satisfaction results
210
*An effective hospital quality improvement program includes the operations and effectiveness of the hospital's medical staff
211
What would be the purpose of a radiology department’s quality assurance committee?
Evaluate various radiation processes to promote improvement.
212
The ICD-10-CM codes for radiologic procedures using CPT coding nomenclature range from?
70010-79999
213
To maximize the full reimbursement for a diagnostic study performed in medical imaging, what has to be included?
-The correct CPT code using the ICD-10-CM nomenclature.
-Any changes to radiology examinations must be communicated with the hospital chargemaster so that the correct CPT-4 code is assigned.
-The correct DRG must be attached to inpatient studies performed.
214
In 2007, the government upgraded the DRG system of reimbursement and introduced the MS-DRG system. This upgrade is designed to take into account?
Severity of illness
215
*A major distinction between DRGs and APCs is that APCs are used for the reimbursement of outpatient and ancillary procedures
DRG= diagnosis related group
APC= Ambulatory Payment Classification
216
*If there is no documentation of any type of event, the event did not occur
217
*When entering data into a patient chart, it is important to remember that any data entered must be?
legible and in ink
218
A key function performed by a patient's health information record is to?
Facilitate communication with everybody.
219
*Before a diagnostic study can be initiated, a formal, documented examination request is entered into the institution’s information system, the requesting physician must be identified on the request, and reasons for the examination must be on the request.
220
*If a patient gets injured while under your care, the incident report must be part of the hospital's risk management documentation
221
Health records for inpatients should contain what information?
Identify the patient
Reports of diagnosis or therapeutic data
Physical examination data
All informed consent documents
Medical history
222
Who enters health information into a patient's medical record (chart)?
All departments and healthcare workers that take part in the care of a patient must document that care in the health record.
223
*Standards have been established for the maintenance of completed medical records by The Joint Commission
224
What is Coding?
Critically important to the complete and timely reimbursement of medical costs provided by the government (Medicare/Medicaid) and third-party payers
225
The health information department performs what supportive functions?
A) Support health services research.
B) Administrative activities of the organization
C) Support for medical education activities
D) Patient billing and accounting
E) Quality management
226
What department is responsible for the maintenance, retrieval, and storage of health information?
Health Information Management department
227
What are the characteristics of a patient health record?
-Single record on a single patient
-Maintained in paper or electronic media or both
-Promotes communication among providers and continuity of care
228
As technologists, do we give the results of the exams to patients/families? Even if they insist that they have a “right” to know?
Nope
229
Define veracity
Being truthful
230
Define fidelity
Procuring an image that faithfully produces the patient's images
Being faithful. Performing acts that observe covenants or promises.
231
*A social contract is established between you and the patient once you bring the patient back into the exam room, ask them clinical history questions, and explain the procedure
232
What is an ethical dilemma?
When the correct choice is not clear and personal values may conflict
233
When undertaking an ethical analysis, what must be considered?
• Identifying the problem
• Developing alternative solutions
• Selecting the best solution
• Defending the selection
234
What is an example of an ethical outrage?
The technologist refuses to complete a procedure because his shift is over.
235
Using morals as your complete guide to determine appropriate professional behavior has what?
Has its weaknesses because others may not have the same moral value system as you do.
236
What is a professional etiquette violation?
Being rude
237
Define/recognize what an ethical violation is.
For example - take additional images to get the perfect image.
238
Failure to pay one’s federal income taxes would be an example of?
A violation of federal law
239
What does Res Ipsa Loquitur mean?
The thing speaks for itself
240
What is a lipogram?
The radiographic evaluation of the small and large bowel that has been connected to the skin surface as a substitute for the urinary bladder with an ostomy
241
*When a BE of an ostomy patient is performed, allow the patient to insert the enema cone-tip into the stoma orifice
242
In preparation for a BE of a colostomy patient, it is important to?
Irrigate the colostomy to thoroughly empty the bowel before the procedure
Understand the sensitivity of the patients to their condition and lifestyle change
243
*To allow tissue healing from a partial colon resection, an external stoma is created to allow for defecation
244
What is the post-procedural care for patients who have had a colon examination?
Drink plenty of fluids, and eat food high in fiber. Make the PT aware that there may be changes in stool color.
245
For a possible bowel perforation, what type of contrast is used?
Gastrografin, water-soluble contrast
246
*For a single-contrast BE what do you need images of?
*For a single-contrast BE, spot images of the cecum, hepatic flexure, splenic flexure, and sigmoid are taken
247
What relieves bowel spasms?
Glucagon
248
What height do you suspend the enema bag for a single contrast BE exam?
No greater than 30 inches
249
What diagnostic study is utilized to diagnose colitis?
Colonoscopy
250
*In most radiology departments, barium studies of the colon employ____ and____ as a double-contrast exam
carbon dioxide and barium
251
Be able to identify what is true regarding a virtual colonoscopy.
Minimally invasive
No sedation or referral typically
Super fast
252
The sensitivity of what type of exam has surpassed the results of barium contrast colon studies?
Colonoscopy
253
Be able to identify what is true regarding cleansing enemas.
This includes:
-Diabetic patients require special colon preparation procedures
-Promote defecation reflex and discharge
-Complete when bowel contents are clear and free of fecal matter
-Hydrating patients is a significant concern for patients undergoing a cleansing enema
254
*After bedpan use, proper cleansing of the region requires using gloves and several folded tissues to wipe the region from the mons pubis to the anus
255
Know what is involved for a patient using a fracture bedpan
-(typically a patient who has undergone some type of joint surgery)
-The fracture bedpan has a unique wedge-shaped design.
-Allows patient to elevate hips only slightly for placement
-Convenient handle for placement and removal
-An assistant should assist you with moving the patient onto the bedpan.
-Provide privacy
-Wear gloves and wash your hands
256
What is a double-lumen NG tube? What all is included?
Have an NG tube in place with a syringe upright and pinned to the gown.
257
When transporting a patient with an NG tube to medical imaging…?
Suction must be re-established in the radiology department if the patient is allowed to be disconnected for a short amount of time.
Be aware of double-lumen NG tube considerations when discontinuing suction.
Make sure the NG tube is secured to the patient's nose.
258
What does a physician do to confirm the proper placement of an NG tube?
- Try pulling back the syringe of gastric fluid.
- Perform X-ray fluoroscopy.
259
What is the most common type of NG tube for stomach decompression?
*The single-lumen Levin tube is the most common type of NG tube for stomach decompression
260
To facilitate the removal of an NG tube, the patient is encouraged to do what?
Take a deep breath
261
NG tubes are inserted through the patient ___ with the end of the tube placed in the _____?
Nasopharynx - stomach
262
What position is the patient in when inserting an NG tube?
High Fowlers (sitting upright with back between 60-90 degrees)
263
Know what to do for portable radiography in the NICU
• Hand washing (before and after each patient)
• Wiping down the machine (before and after use)
• Keeping multiple pieces of lead in the units and sterilizing after use
• Covering the lead with a pillowcase or other protective covering
• Assigning a piece of lead to each crib and cleaning after each use
264
Hazardous drug-related waste materials require the ________ of needle containers and breakable items of hazardous waste.
Labeling
265
*When using a portable C-arm for surgical hip pinning, sterility will be maintained using a “shower curtain” approach
C-arm upper head with cover in place
266
In surgery with a C-arm, the image receptor and C-arm are draped with a _______for sterility.
Snap-cover
267
*During a cardiac pacemaker procedure, technologists are responsible for operating the fluoroscopy
268
*When a Foley catheter system is inserted into a patient for an expected period of 4-6 weeks, a polyvinyl chloride catheter is used
269
Handling a patient with a Foley catheter in place involves technologists doing what?
Avoid kinks in the tubing and keep the drainage bag lower than the bladder.
270
The purpose of the inflatable balloon portion at the tip of the Foley catheter is to?
Hold the catheter in the bladder.
(Pic is a Foley with the tip inflated)
271
Regarding chest tubes, the chest drainage system has 3 compartments, which are?
1) The collection chamber collects fluid leaving the lung
2) The water Seal chamber prevents air from leaving
3) The suction control chamber regulates the amount of suction
272
*If you notice that the Rad has contaminated their glove, make them aware immediately
273
If 2 people are in sterile gowns, how do they pass each other?
Back to back
274
If the sterility of an object is unknown, what should be done?
Consider it unsterile and throw it out
275
What is the first thing you should look at when you have a sterile package?
Check the expiration date
276
What represents a good sterile technique?
Avoid bending and reaching over it.
277
When performing dressing changes, if the wound is purulent, _____ is recommended.
A gown (in addition to gloves and a mask)
278
How do you put on a pair of sterile gloves using the self-gloving technique?
Open or Closed technique
Closed you keep your hands inside the arms of the gown.
Open you only touch the rolled back cuff of the gloves.
279
*When gowning another person, a non-sterile circulating person pulls up the gown and fastens the back and waistband
280
After gowning and gloving, what is considered sterile?
The sleeves and front of the gown down to the waist
281
If for some strange reason, you are going to assist in a sterile procedure, how long do you scrub your hands?
3 minutes (the sterile procedure is the catch)
282
When opening and pouring sterile solutions…..
Show the name to another healthcare person (usually the scrub tech) for verification.
Move the sterile basin to the edge of the sterile field.
283
T/F: when opening a sterile tray, can your fingers touch the inside of the tray?
False
284
*Info regarding sterility: a sterile person may touch only what is sterile, a sterile field must be watched continually, and if a solution soaks through to a nonsterile field, the wet area must be re-draped
285
The inflatable balloon portion of the Foley catheter is typically filled with?
Air
Sterile water if air is not an option
286
T/F - When establishing a sterile field, the sterile drape must be clean and wet
False - clean and dry
287
*The goal of the aseptic technique is to protect the patient from?
Infection and prevent the spread of pathogens and harmful microorganisms
288
What are procedures that require an aseptic technique?
Central Venous line
Angiocatheter
Foley catheter
289
Know the methods of sterilization
1. Heat
2. UV
3. Chemical
4. Steam under pressure (autoclave)
290
*A person who acts as a reservoir of pathogenic organisms is referred to as a
carrier. An example of a carrier is a coworker who has demonstrated a cold for 2 weeks
291
*MRSA requires____ precautions
contact
292
What is the single greatest measure that can be done to prevent the spread of infection?
Wash hands correctly (20 seconds)
293
*When you and a coworker do an X-ray on a patient with contact precautions:
place the cassette in a bag,
remove jewelry,
greet the patient professionally, and explain what you will do
294
What is true of Radiology Department biosafety?
-Wash hands before and after an interventional procedure
-Wear gloves while handling an emesis basin with vomitus
-Use a resuscitation mask or bag during CPR
295
What are the most common nosocomial infections
** UTIs from Foley catheters
296
What are two bloodborne pathogens that are of particular importance to hospital personnel?
HIV & hepatitis b
297
What is an iatrogenic infection?
Infection after medical or surgical management (Even if not hospitalized)
298
Nosocomial infections are what type of infections?
Infection acquired at the hospital
299
What does the chain of infection consist of?
Host
An infectious microorganism
A mode of transportation
A reservoir
300
What is a fomite?
Object or material that carries/spreads infection (clothes, furniture, counter, food)
301
What is bactericidal?
Having the ability to kill bacteria
Chemical substances capable of killing microorganisms.
302
What is Droplet precaution and give examples?
Droplet precautions are when a patient has a disease (or is suspected to have it) that can be passed through respiratory droplets (when talking, coughing, or sneezing).
Examples are measles and the flu.
303
What does Respondeat Superior mean?
"let the master answer," is a legal doctrine that holds an employer vicariously liable for the negligent or wrongful acts of its employees if those acts occur within the scope of their employment.
304
What is a vector?
A carrier, especially an animal (usually an arthropod), transfers an infectious agent from one host to another.
305
How do you achieve medical asepsis (what is the most effective method)?
Hand washing (key in the question is medical, not surgical asepsis)
306
A disease spread by kissing is being transmitted by what method?
Direct contact
307
What are the steps of the infectious process?
Encounter
Entry
Spread
Multiplication
Damage
Outcome
308
What are viral infections and give examples?
Viral infections are illnesses caused by viruses. Examples are the common cold, COVID-19, chickenpox, hepatitis, warts, and cold sores.
309
What can pathogenic organisms do?
-cause infectious diseases
-Secrete endotoxins
-Cause cellular and tissue damage
-Replicate and cause blockage to the flow of fluids
310
*Fungi, protozoa, and viruses are related
311
Characteristics of bacteria?
Prokaryotic (no nucleus or organelles), ubiquitous (it is in many places), single-celled organisms
312
Define an infection
Establishment and growth of a microorganism on/in a host resulting in injury to the host
313
Streptococci and bacilli are classified as what type of microorganisms?
Bacteria
314
Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, etc. This is an example of transmission of an infection by?
Vector
315
*If you accidentally prick yourself with a needle as you perform a venipuncture procedure, you:
flood the area with water, clean it with soap and water, and report the incident.
316
Drugs intended for single use by parenteral administration are typically contained in an?
Ampule
317
What is a tort?
A private or civil wrongful or injury, other than breach of contract
318
*Sterile needles used for patient injections are often required to use an angiocath for improved safety
319
*If you work in CT and administer IV contrast, you are permitted to enter the medication data into the patient chart
320
*Milliliter: a metric unit of measurement, equivalent to 1cc, and is equivalent to ____ of a cubic centimeter
1/1000
321
What does STAT mean?
Immediately
322
What happens when extravasation occurs?
IV fluids leak out of a vessel into surrounding tissue, causing swelling, pain, and potential tissue damage.
The patient might tell you it’s burning.
323
What is the abbreviation IM short for?
Intramuscular
324
What are the common sites for venipuncture?
Basilic and cephalic veins in the arm
325
Veins in what body part are preferred for contrast medium injection?
Arm
326
For an average-sized patient, what angle is the needle tip positioned for a subcutaneous injection?
45 degrees
327
What is a parenteral route of administration?
parenteral route of drug delivery includes four types:
1) SC-subcutaneous (under skin)
2) IM-intramuscular (in a muscle)
3) IV-intravenous (in a vein) and
4) IT-intrathecal (injected into the CSF) administration.
328
Fowler position
Position in which the patient’s head is raised 18 or 20 inches above the flat position; the knees are also raised
329
Define sublingual.
Administering substances under the tongue for absorption into the bloodstream
330
What are the“rights” of medication administration?
The right route
The right time
The right drug
The right patient
The right drug dosage
331
*Infiltration and extravasation can occur when there is localized swelling around the insertion site of an IV but not associated skin erythema
332
What is an antagonist?
A drug that binds to the receptor and completely or partially blocks the activation of a biological response.
A drug that nullifies an intended action
333
What are examples of antihistamines? (drug names)
1. Benadryl
2. Zyrtec
3. Allegra
4. Claratin
334
When should a patient not be given thrombolytics?
Example: A patient with a history of colon cancer who has blood in their stool
335
What is a “confined Diuretic” in relation to NSAIDS?
A medicine that, when taken with NSAIDs significantly increases the risk of kidney damage.
336
Diuretics, furosemide, and Lasix are prescribed to patients with what type of conditions?
Congestive heart failure
337
Heparin is best administered through what type of injection?
Intravenous
338
T/F: Drugs are classified legally as either prescription or nonprescription
True
339
Define a name brand of a drug
Name given by the drug’s original manufacturer
340
What is the drug levothyroxine used to manage?
Hypothyroidism
341
What is a major complication for patients undergoing blood clotting drug therapy?
Bleeding
342
Drugs that are commonly used for the treatment of high cholesterol are referred to as…
Statins
343
What is an anticholinergic drug?
Blocks ACH (decreases muscular activity)
344
What are the numbers of protons in the nuclei of the different elements called?
Atomic numbers
345
What are Interactions between electrons of atoms that hold the atoms together in a stable group; line drawn between atoms indicates a bond H-O-H
A bond
346
What chemical is I and what is its atomic number?
I is Iodine and the atomic number is 53
347
What is air/gas and what is its average atomic number?
Air/gas is room air or carbon dioxide. The average atomic number is 8
348
What is osmolality?
The measure of the total number of particles in solution per kilogram of water
349
What is urticaria?
Hives-from an allergic reaction
350
What is a Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) test?
test can reveal whether the urea nitrogen levels are higher than normal, suggesting that the kidneys or liver may not be working properly
351
What does a double contrast study use?
Both positive & negative contrast agents on the same image
Negative contrast (air) and positive contrast (radiopaque) are used as a pair to outline mucosal linings, joint spaces and passageways.
352
What is an amine
Contains nitrogen bonded to two hydrogen atoms
353
What is an acid group
Contains carbon double bonded to an oxygen, single bonded to another oxygen, and a negative charge at the pH of the body
