Week 7 - Microbiology and Infection 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How is clostridium difficile infection treated?

A
  • Stop precipitating antibiotics broad spectrum
  • Oral metronidazole (mild - 0 severity markers), oral vancomycin (severe >1 severity markers or no improvement after 5 days metronidazole)
  • Refractory recurrent disease may require faecal transplant
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2
Q

List the defining symptoms of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

A

Sweats, chills, rigors, malaise, tachypnoea RR>20/minute, tachycardia >90bpm, hypotension (patients may appear well perfused despite hypotension)

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3
Q

How is drug-resistance testing used in HIV?

A

Drug-resistance testing identifies which, if any, HIV medicines won’t be effective against a persons HIV - helps to determine which HIV medicines to include in an HIV treatment regimen

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4
Q

How can MDR-TB be diagnosed?

A

May be detected rapidly using molecular testing - gene Xpert

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5
Q

What causes HIV brain disease?

A
  • Consequence of unrecognised/untreated infection and marked immunodeficiency (opportunistic infections) or lifestyle
    • Encephalitis (ARVs)
    • Dementia
    • Neuro-syphilis (secondary or tertiary)
    • Opportunistic
      • Tuberculosis, cryptococcus, toxoplasmosis
      • JCV (John Cunningham virus) - progressive multi-focal leuco-encephalopathy
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6
Q

What is point of care testing? How is it used in diagnosis of viral infections?

A

Cobas Liat system

  • ‘Lab in a tube’
  • Test for flu A, B and RSV using gargle from patient
  • Takes 20 minutes
  • Used on wards
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7
Q

When is a lumbar puncture contraindicated?

A

Brain shift

Rapid GCS reduction

Respiratory/cardiac compromise

Severe sepsis

Rapidly evolving rash

Infection at LP site

Coagulopathy (including INR >1.5, platelets <40, DOAC, therapeutic LMWH)

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8
Q

What complications can arise as a result of norovirus infection?

A
  • Significant proportion of childhood hospitalisation - usually due to dehydration
  • Illness in hospital outbreaks lasts longer with an increased risk of mortality (underling illness)
  • In elderly increased post-infection complications
  • Chronic diarrhoea and virus shedding in both solid organ transplant patients and bone marrow transplant patients
    • Shedding for up to 2 years - can still infect others
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9
Q

Which patient groups are most likely to present with pulmonary TB?

A
  • Typical main group who present with TB currently in Glasgow
    • Likely have acquired infection as a child in the 1940s and 50s when TB was more common
    • Only 10% of those infected go on to show clinical disease, can remain dormant and only be active due to reduced immunity due to age and alcohol ingestion
  • Patients who grew up or visit areas of the world where TB is prevalent - most places in the developing world
    • Rare in people on holiday, more significant in those staying for prolonged periods e.g. with friends and family
  • Strong association between pulmonary TB and infection with HIV - test for HIV in all those infected with TB
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10
Q

Why is under 5 mortality important statistically?

A

Under 5 mortality rate is a good indicator of health of a population - shows changes rapidly (acute index)

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11
Q

List the most common sites of infections in febrile neutropaenic patients with haematological malignancy

A
  1. Bloodstream
  2. Mouth and pharynx - mucositis, ulceration of oesophagus
  3. Skin and soft tissues - axilla, perianal area
  4. Respiratory tract
  5. Gastrointestinal tract
  6. Urinary tract
  7. Other sites
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12
Q

What are the doctor/patient barriers to HIV testing?

A
  1. Patient barriers
  • May not think they are at risk
  • Worried regarding confidentiality, stigma, immigration issues
    • Don’t have to inform GP but may compromise care of patient if not
  • Employment issues, may fear they will lose their job especially if healthcare worker
    • Doesn’t prevent you from doing any jobs - even surgery (have to be on treatment and prove HIV is well controlled)
    • Can’t travel to some countries (may effect occupation) - may have to hide diagnosis
  • Criminalisation issues
    • Criminalisation of transmission
  • Insurance
    • Doesn’t stop you from getting mortgage, life insurance etc. (have to prove you’re on treatment and well controlled)
  1. Doctor barriers
  • May not think of testing or be aware of clinical indications for testing
  • May assume patient is not at risk
  • Fear of embarrassing or offending patient especially if taking sexual history
  • Lack of time
  • Perceived lack of counselling skills
  • Logistic issues to get result back to patient
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13
Q

Define fever

A

Pyrexia temperature >38 or hypothermia <36 OR >37.5 on 2 occasions 30 minutes apart

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14
Q

How should an unwell child be clinically assessed?

A

Take a good history:

  • Fever - durations and measurement
  • Assessment of severity
  • Localising symptoms
  • Causation

Is the patient well/unwell?

Should I be acting now or do I have time to observe?

  • Infant:
    • Severity indicated by:
      • Feeding/vomiting
        • How much are they feeding? How often? How does this compare to normal intake?
      • Crying
      • Sleeping
        • Do they have to be woken to feed? Are they lethargic?
      • Smiling
      • Localising symptoms - difficult due to lack of communication
        • Diarrhoea not always relevant in young babies - can just be systemic response to infection
      • Causation - e.g. sick contacts (likely to have contracted from close family)
  • Child:
    • Severity indicated by
      • Feeding
      • Activity levels
      • Drowsiness
      • Localising symptoms
        • Cough, coryza (nasal inflammation), vomiting, diarrhoea, rash, dysuria, headache, sore ears/throat
      • Causation - nursery contacts etc.
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15
Q

Which viruses causing gastroenteritis affect which specific populations?

A

Norovirus/sapovirus (calciviridae) - can affect all ages and healthy individuals but often most serious in young and elderly

Rotavirus/adenovirus/astrovirus - affects mainly children under 2 years, elderly and immunocompromised

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16
Q

Describe the outbreak of SARS-CoV

A
  • Emerged in China in 2002
  • Source - bats, civet cats
  • May 2003 - 29 countries reported SARS-CoV cases to WHO, 8,096 people infected, fatality rate 9.5%
  • Contained in 2003 (human chain of transmission broken)
    • 3 cases of accidental release by labs which had stored strains in 2004
  • No new cases reported since 2004
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17
Q

How is cryptococcal meningitis treated?

A
  • Treatment - antifungals
    • Amphotericin B and flucytosine
    • Fluconazole
  • Paradoxical worsening with ARVs in HIV
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18
Q

Which pathogens most commonly cause lower respiratory tract infections in

a) Neonates
b) Young infants
c) Infants and young children
d) Older children

A

a) Neonates

  • Group B streptococcus (usually an innocuous benign group in healthy adults)
  • E coli
  • Respiratory viruses
  • Enteroviruses

b) Young infants - still some maternal Ig so protected from bacterial pathogens (half life 6 weeks - 3 months)

  • Respiratory viruses
  • Enteroviruses
  • Chlamydia

c) Infants and young children

  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Respiratory viruses

d) Older children

  • Mycoplasma pneumonia
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Respiratory viruses
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19
Q

Describe the features of the common cold

A
  • Usually self diagnosed
  • Onset 1-3 days after innoculation
  • Symptoms
    • Sore ‘scratchy’ throat
    • Rhinorrhoea
    • Nasal obstruction
  • Persists for approx. 1 week
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20
Q

Describe high risk and low risk neutropaenia

A

Low risk neutropaenia = <0.5 x 109/L for <7 days with no organ failure/comorbidities

High risk neutropaenia = <0.1 x 109/L for >7 days

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21
Q

List the neurological HIV indicator conditions

A
  • AIDS defining conditions
    • Cerebral toxoplasmosis
    • Primary cerebral lymphoma
    • Cryptococcal meningitis
    • Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
  • Other conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Aseptic meningitis/encephalitis
    • Cerebral abscess
    • Space occupying lesion of unknown cause
    • Guillain-Barre syndrome
    • Transverse myelitis
    • Peripheral neuropathy
    • Dementia
    • Leucoencephalopathy
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22
Q

How is scabies diagnosed and treated?

A
  • Diagnosis made on clinical appearance
  • Treatment
    • Permethrin 5% OR malathion 0.5%
      • Wash off after 24 hours
    • Wash contaminated clothes at 50 degrees
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23
Q

List the investigations which should be undertaken in suspected meningitis

A
  • History and exam
    • Anyone presenting with a headache - look at their throat, check lymph nodes
    • Young people with group A strep can present with headache and neck pain (swelling of lymph nodes)
    • If they have signs of infection in the throat (e.g. white spots) - can rule out meningitis
  • Blood cultures (can do blood PCR for pneumococcus/meningococcus)
  • Throat culture, viral gargle
  • FBC, Ues, LFTs, CRP
  • Lumbar puncture - most important investigation, examination of CSF
    • Cell count, gram stain, culture and PCR
    • Protein and glucose
    • Viral PCR
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24
Q

What type of bacteria are helicobacter pylori?

A

Gram -ve spiral shaped bacilli

Microaerophilic, urease-positive

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25
Q

Describe the physical barriers which contribute to the immune response

A
  • Principal barriers against microbial invasion
    • Skin
    • Conjunctivae
    • Mucous membranes
      • Gut
      • Respiratory tract
      • GU tract
  • Constantly in contact with the environment
  • Skin features
    • Desquamates
    • Dry
    • pH = 5-6
    • Temperature - 5 degrees lower
    • Secretory IgA in sweat
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26
Q

How can the transmission of vibrio cholerae be controlled?

A

Clean drinking water supply and proper sanitation are key preventative measures

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27
Q

What complications can occur as a result of the common cold?

A
  • Otitis media in 30% of children
  • Sinusitis
  • Severe infections in suceptible groups
    • Elderly
    • Immunocompromised
    • Asthma, COPD, CF
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28
Q

How is mycoplasma genitalium treated?

A
  • Treatment not indicated unless symptoms or partner has symptoms
  • Treatment depends on antibitoic resistance (high levels of resistance)
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29
Q

How is active TB treated?

A

Four drug treatment:

  • Rifampicin 6 months
  • Isoniazid 6 months
  • Ethambutol 2 months
  • Pyrazinamide 2 months
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30
Q

Describe the structure of HIV

A
  • Roughly spherical, with a diameter of about 120nm, around 60 times smaller than a RBC but large for a virus
  • 2 copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus’s nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein
  • RNA tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7 and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase
  • Matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion particle
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31
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of enteropathogenic E. coli

A

Initial adherence via pili, followed by formation of characteristic attaching and effacing lesion mediated by intimin protein and Tir (translocation intimin receptor) with disruption of intestinal microvilli

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32
Q

Describe the epidemiology of clostridium difficile infection

A

Predominantly affects the elderly

Major cause of healthcare associated infections

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33
Q

How do influenza pandemics occur?

A
  • ANTIGENIC SHIFT - segmented genome
    • Avian flu and human flu infect same cell, both replicate, progeny can be mixture of genetic segments –> new virus = reassortment virus
  • Pigs are ideal host for antigenic shift of flu
    • Avian flu requires alpha 2,3 salicylic acid receptor
    • Human flu requires alpha 2,6 salicylic acid receptor (in upper respiratory tract)
    • Pigs have a mixture of alpha 2,3 and 2,6 salicylic acid receptors in their upper respiratory tract, can easily be infected with both
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34
Q

How long is the incubation period of shigella? How long does the infection last?

A

Incubation 1-3 days

Duration 2-7 days

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35
Q

How should pathogens be identified in prosthetic joint infections?

A
  • What microbiology grow relates directly to what is sent to the lab
    • Tissue or pus or fluid is always preferable to a surface swab
  • Diagnosis of a prosthetic joint infection depends on macroscopic appearance, histopathology and microbiology
  • Watch out for contaminants - can happen at any time in the sample collection/lab processing
  • Need 5 samples aseptically taken from different locations to give sensitivity and specificity
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36
Q

Describe cell mediated immunity

A
  • T cells mediate three principal functions - help, suppression and cytotoxicity
  • T-helper cells stimulate the immune response of other cells (i.e. T cells stimulate B cells to produce antibodies)
  • T-suppressor cells play an inhibitory role and control the level and quality of the immune response
  • Cytotoxic T cells recognise and destroy infected cells and activate phagocytes to destroy pathogens they have taken up
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37
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of pharyngeal chlamydia?

A

Usually asymptomatic

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38
Q

Describe the prevalence of chronic granulomatous disease

A

Commonest of rare inherited disorders - 1/200,000

X-linked most common

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39
Q

How is influenza treated?

A

Neuraminidase Inhibitors:

  • Dosage in adults for treatment of uncomplicated influenza
    • Oseltamivir 75mg PO twice daily for 5 days
    • Zanamivir 10mg INH twice daily for 5 days
      • Can give IV if multi-organ failure
  • Can be used for prophylaxis if given within 48 hours of exposure
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40
Q

What is the main cause of bronchiolitis?

A
  • Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is main cause of bronchiolitis
    • 35 million cases/year
    • Common in children <2y/o
    • One of the main causes of nosocomial infection
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41
Q

Describe the pharmacological treatment of HIV

A
  • Highly active antiretroviral therapy
  • Usually ‘triple therapy’
    • 2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + 1 drug from another class
  • Combination pills available - only need to take 1 per day
  • Guided by patient choice/comorbidities/interactions/drug resistance

Classes of ARVs:

  1. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  2. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  3. Integrase inhibitors - few drug interactions/side effects
  4. Protease inhibitors
  5. Other e.g. CCR5 entry inhibitor
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42
Q

List the symptoms of vibrio cholerae infection

A
  • Severe, profuse, non-bloody, watery diarrhoea (rice water stool)
  • Profound fluid loss and dehydration precipitates hypokalaemia, metabolic acidosis, hypovolaemic shock and cardiac failure
  • Untreated mortality 30-40%
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43
Q

Describe the surgical treatment options for prosthetic joint infections

A
  1. DAIR to leave the infected join in
  • Debride, antibiotics, implant retained
  • If prosthesis infection is acute (<30 days since insertion), then it is still mechanically functional and can be kept in but infected tissues should be debrided and the joint washed out to reduce the burden of infection then IV antibiotics started for 4-6 weeks
  • Before 30 days - biofilm unlikely to have developed

2.Take the infected joint out

  • If the infection occurs over 30 days since surgery (biofilm likely to have developed) then it may no longer be fully functional and may need removed
  • Removal involves taking out the prosthesis and all cement (can’t heal if foreign body retained)
  • Options
    • Girdlestone procedure - joint fused, very limited movement
    • One stage revision - put a new prosthetic in during the same operation as removing the infected one
    • Two stage revision - delay putting in a new one until treated the existing infection for 4-6 weeks
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44
Q

What were the initial causes of HIV thought to be?

A
  • All male, all homosexual
    • Related to sexual activity?
    • CMV related?
    • Drug use?
    • Environmental? Sauna related?
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45
Q

What percentage of prosthetic joint infections develop from local spread of infection?

A

60-80%

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46
Q

How can local tumours impact immunity?

A
  • Tumours may cause local organ dysfunction
  • Obstruction leads to infection
  • Lung is particularly susceptible
  • CNS tumours/spinal cord compression –> loss of cough/swallow reflex, incomplete bladder emptying –> infection
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47
Q

How does HIV cause illness?

A
  • HIV infects cells in the immune system such as T helper cells, macrophages and dendritic cells
  • All these cells carry CD4 receptors which allow HIV entry
  • HIV infection causes depletion of CD4 helper cells by:
    • Direct viral killing of cells
    • Apoptosis of uninfected ‘bystander cells’
    • CD8+ cytotoxic T cell killing of infected CD4+ cells
  • Abnormal B cell activation resulting in excess/inappropriate immunoglobulin production
  • Once CD4+ cells fall below a critical level (<200), the person is at risk of opportunistic infections and some cancers
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48
Q

How can Shigella be diagnosed in a clinical lab?

A

Use XLD plates

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49
Q

Describe empirical antibiotic treatment of patients with neutropaenic fever

A
  • Patient is a stem cell transplant/solid organ transplant recipient or recieving chemotherapy for acute leukaemia
    • Has sepsis, septic shock or NEWS >7
      • Critical risk - first line IV meropenem, IV amoxicillin and IV vancomycin (if true penicillin/beta-lactam allergy IV amikacin, IV vancomycin and IV ciprofloxacin)
    • Doesn’t have sepsis, septic shock or NEWS >7
      • High risk - IV piperacillin/tazobactam, IV gentamicin and IV vancomycin (allergy - IV gentamicin, IV vancomycin and IV ciprofloxacin)
  • Patient is not a stem cell transplant/solid organ transplant recipient or recieving chemotherapy for acute leukaemia
    • Has sepsis, septic shock or NEWS >7
      • High risk - IV piperacillin/tazobactam, IV gentamicin and IV vancomycin (allergy - IV gentamicin, IV vancomycin and IV ciprofloxacin)
    • Doesn’t have sepsis, septic shock or NEWS >7
      • Standard risk - IV piperacillin/tazobactam +/- IV vancomycin (allergy - IV gentamicin and IV vancomycin)
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50
Q

Describe the clinical features of rotavirus

A
  • Incubation period 1-3 days
  • Clinical manifestations depend on if it is the 1st infection or reinfection
  • Symptoms of rotavirus
    • Watery diarrhoea
    • Abdominal pain
    • Vomiting
    • Loss of electrolytes leading to dehydration
  • Symptoms usually last 3-7 days (longer than norovirus)
  • 1st infection after age 3 months is usually the most severe
    • Protected before age 3 months by maternal antibodies
  • Hospital outbreaks in paediatric wards common
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51
Q

Describe the epidemiology of enterpathogenic E. coli

A

Sporadic cases and outbreaks of diarrhoea in infants and children

Cause of some cases of traveller’s diarrhoea

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52
Q

How does secondary syphilis present clinically?

A
  • 3 months - 2 years post infection
  • Occurs in 25% of patients
  • Usually generalised rash affects palms and soles
  • Muco-cutaneous lesions, condylomata lata/lymphadenopathy and fever
  • Less commonly - patchy alopecia, anterior uvetitis, meningitis, cranial nerve palsies (blurred vision, hearing loss, tinnitus, vision loss - can be irreversible), hepatitis, splenomegaly, periostitis, arthritis and glomerulonephropathies
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53
Q

Why do seasonal flu epidemics occur?

A
  • During replication of the virus mutations often occur in the Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase protein-coding genes
  • Mutations in the HA and NA genes cause structural changes to the HA and NA surface proteins - antibodies can no longer recognise the virus
  • Gradual process - antigenic drift
  • Seasonal epidemics occur when the antigenic drift has occurred to such an extent that the immune system struggles to fight the virus (approx. same length of time every year - epidemics in winter)
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54
Q

List the disease/therapies which suppress humoral immunity

A
  • Bruton agammaglobulinaemia (commonest of rare primary disorders)
  • Antibody production reduced in lymphoproliferative disorders
    • CLL, multiple myeloma
  • Usually preserved in acute leukaemia
  • Intensive radiotherapy and chemotherapy will ultimately cause hypogammaglobulinaemia
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55
Q

Can you be vaccinated against norovirus?

A

NO - due to the incomplete understanding of immunity and the fact norovirus can’t be cultured there have been issues with creating a vaccine

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56
Q

What is the global impact of gastrointestinal infections?

A
  • Major cause of morbidity and mortality
    • Resource poor countries - 2 million deaths in children under 5 per year
    • Developed world morbidity and economic loss
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57
Q

How does tertiary syphilis present clinically?

A
  • Can take 8-15 years to develop - expect to see more in the future following the 2003 epidemic
  • Neurosyphilis
    • Many variations of neurological symptoms including cognitive
    • Always think syphilis with neurological symptoms
  • Cardiovascular syphilis
    • Aortic valve disease, aortic aneurysm, aortitis
  • Gummatous syphilis - skin/bony lesions
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58
Q

What are the complications of chlamydia?

A
  • Women = pelvic inflammatory disease
    • Pelvic pain/fever/dyspareunia
    • 16% untreated women will develop PID (= complicated chlamydia)
    • Tubal infertility (1-20% of PID cases)
      • Many women worry about infertility in chlamydia - if they have uncomplicated chlamydia can reassure that infertility is not a risk
    • Ectopic pregnancy
    • Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (peri-hepatitis)
  • Epididymo-orchitis
    • Male infertility likely associated but insufficient evidence
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59
Q

Describe the tests which can be used in the diagnosis of TB

A

Mantoux Reaction:

  • Determine if someone has been exposed to mycobacteria - doesn’t differentiate between active and latent disease, doesn’t distinguish from non-TB mycobacteria
  • Tuberculin injected intradermally and read 48-72 hours later
  • Those who have been exposed to the bacteria are expected to mount an immune response in the skin containing the bacterial proteins
  • Reaction read by measuring the diameter of induration (palpable raised, hardened area) across the forearm in mm
  • Erythema should not be measured
  • Positive result depends on presence of risk factors e.g. 5mm positive in HIV+, 10mm positive in IVDUs, 15mm positive in those with no known risk factors for TB

Interferon gamma release assays

  • Blood samples taken, exposure of blood lymphocytes to highly specific TB antigens
  • Exposure causes lymphocytes (specifically CD4 and CD8 T cells) to produce interferon gamma, in the presence of TB infection
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60
Q

Describe the clinical features of listeria monocytogenes

A
  • Median incubation period 3 weeks
  • Duration of illness 1-2 weeks
  • Initial flu-like illness, with or without diarrhoea
  • Majority of cases present with severe systemic infection
    • Septicaemia
    • Meningitis
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61
Q

What type of bacteria are listeria monocytogenes?

A

Gram +ve coccobacilli

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62
Q

List the other HIV indicator conditions

A
  • Conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Mononucleosis-like syndrome (primary HIV infection)
    • Pyrexia of unknown origin
    • Any lymphadenopathy of unknown cause
    • Any sexually transmitted infection
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63
Q

What virology tests are used to diagnose HIV?

A
  • HIV antibody test
    • Traditional method for diagnosis
    • Most patients develop antibodies within 6-8 weeks, almost 100% at 3 months (3 month window period for HIV testing)
    • An ELISA test is performed first then confirmed with Western Blot
      • ELISA is an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay which uses an antigen-antibody reaction to generate a signal and result
      • Western blot uses gel electrophoresis to demonstrate specific HIV proteins
  • HIV p24 antigen testing - more recent
    • Used with a confirmatory antibody test
    • Detects p24 protein which is present on the surface of the virus
    • Can be positive as early as 3 weeks (much shorts window period)
  • Early HIV infection can give negative antibody test but positive antigen test
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64
Q

What is the significance of avian influenza?

A
  • Natural reservoir for influenza A virus is aquatic birds
  • Flu in birds based on pathogenicity in chickens
    • Highly pathogenic avian influenza
    • Low pathogenic avian influenza
  • Prior to 1997 avian influenza infection in humans not considered serious
  • Have since had avian influenza outbreaks
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65
Q

What type of bacteria are shigella?

A

Gram negative bacilli

Member of the Enterobacteriales family

Non-lactose fermenters (useful in differential media)

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66
Q

When should a CT be done in suspected meningitis?

A
  • CT to exclude mass lesion/mass effect, gross cerebral oedema
  • Doesn’t exclude raised intracranial pressure
  • CT before LP if
    • GCS <12
    • CNS signs
    • Papilloedema
    • Immunocompromised
    • Seizure
  • Antibiotics pre-CT scan
    • Don’t CT everyone because of delay in giving antibiotics
    • If doing a CT need to give antibiotics pre-scan
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67
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in Scotland?

A

Meningococcus

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68
Q

Describe the types of infection causes by bacillus cereus and how they are transmitted

A
  • Emetic disease
    • Typically associated with fried rice
    • Spores survive boiling
    • If rice is bulk cooled and stored prior to frying, the spore germinate, multiply and re-sporulate
    • Heat stable toxin survives further frying
  • Diarrhoeal disease
    • Spores in food survive cooking, germinate and organisms multiply in food
    • Ingested organisms produce a heat-labile toxin in the gut with similar mode of action to cholera toxin
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69
Q

What effect does delaying antibiotic administration have?

A

6hr delay - 30% mortality

8hr+ delay - 80%

Significant increased risk of mortality if delay antibiotics

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70
Q

Describe the types of adenovirus

A

>50 serotypes causing range of illnesses

Adenovirus 40 & 41 cause gastroenteritis

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71
Q

At what time of year do campylobacter outbreaks most commonly occur?

A

Marked seasonal peaks in May/September

Often peaks in BBQ season - chicken not cooked properly

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72
Q

Define dysentery

A

Dysentery = inflammatory disorder of large intestine, blood and pus in the stools, usually with abdominal pain and fever

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73
Q

What happens to the new reassortment virus following an influenza pandemic?

A

Once pandemic has occurred - becomes seasonal flu through antigenic drift

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74
Q

Describe the epidemiology of HIV in the UK

A
  • Number of HIV diagnoses declining
  • Number AIDS at HIV diagnosis slowly declining
  • Number of HIV-related deaths approx. the same
  • New diagnosis rates MSM > heterosexual > injected drug use
  • 200-300 cases newly diagnosed in Scotland per year
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75
Q

Describe the transmission of rotavirus

A
  • Low infectious dose (10-100 virus particles)
  • Mainly person to person via faeco-oral or fomites
  • Food and water borne spread possible
  • Spread via respiratory droplets is speculated
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76
Q

How is intra-cerebral toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Multiple enhancing lesions (basal ganglia)

IgG and IgM (blood), PCR (CSF)

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77
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of prosthetic joint infection

A
  • Pain
  • Effusion
  • Warm joint
  • Fever and systemic symptoms
  • If has a prosthetic joint, may also have:
    • Loosening on X-ray
    • Discharging sinus - blind-ended tract that extends from surface to underlying tissue
    • Mechanical dysfunction
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78
Q

Describe the organisation of the intact defence system

A
  1. Innate defence mechanisms
  • Integument
  • Resisdent flora - colonisation resistance
  • Complement
  • Lysozme
  • Acute phase reactants
  • Phagocytes - macrophages + neutrophils
  • Spleen
  • NK cells
  1. Adaptive immune response
  • Humoral - B cells (neutralisation, complement activation, opsonisation)
  • Cellular - T cells (help macrophages, help B cells, kill virus-infected cells)
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79
Q

Describe the epidemiology of shigella infection

A
  • Mainly associated with diarrhoeal disease in children
  • S dystenteriae in developing world
  • Large outbreaks can occur
  • Recent outbreaks associated with MSM (men who have sex with men)
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80
Q

How does impaired nutritional status impact immunity?

A
  • Anorexia, nausea and vomiting, mucositis, metabolic derangements –> compromised integrity of host defenses
  • Iron deficiency reduces microbial capacity of neutrophils and T cell function
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81
Q

List the common viral causes of acute bronchitis

A
  • RSV
  • Human metapneumovirus
  • Influenza
  • Adenovirus
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82
Q

Describe the spread of HIV from Africa

A
  • First confirmed HIV cases in Africa - 1959/60 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, old samples tested
  • HIV introduced to Haiti by an unknown individual or individuals who contracted it in the DRC in approx 1966
  • Mini-epidemic followed, and in 1969 another individual brought HIV from Haiti to the US
  • Vast majority of cases of AIDS outside sub-Saharan Africa can be traced back to that single unknown person
  • Virus entered male gay community in the USA, where a combination of sexual promiscuity and high transmission rates associated with anal intercourse allowed it to spread explosively
  • Long incubation period before illness, so HIV was not noticed for years
  • By 1981 and the first reported cases of AIDS, the prevalence of HIV infection in some communities >5%
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83
Q

What are the expected infection rates of prosthetic joints?

A
  • Hip surgery 0.3-2%
  • Knee surgery <4%
    • Knees more prone to getting infection
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84
Q

What is PCR? How is it used in diagnosis of viruses?

A

Polymerase chain reaction is a molecular biology technique which amplifies a specific DNA sequence generating multiples copies

It is a very sensitive and specific technique for diagnosing viruses, overtaking viral culture, serology and IHC

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85
Q

Which group are most affected by haemophilus influenza infection?

A

Highest incidence in under 5s

Asymptomatic carriage pre-vaccine was 4% in children

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86
Q

How is norovirus treated?

A

Symptomatic therapy

  • Oral &/or IV fluids
  • Antispasmodics - abdominal cramps
  • Analgesics
  • Antipyretics
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87
Q

How long is the incubation period of campylobacter? How long does the infection last?

A

Incubation 2-5 days

Duration 2-10 days

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88
Q

Describe the life cycle of HIV and drugs which are targetted to specific points in this life cycle

A
  • Replication cycle takes 1-2 days
  1. Virus binds to CD4 cell receptor (target of Fusion inhibitor/R5 inhibitor)
  2. Virus released into cell
  3. RNA of virus reverse transcribed (using reverse transcriptase enzyme) to DNA, two strands of DNA produced (target of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor)
  4. DNA enters nucleus, integrated into host DNA (target of integrase inhibitors)
  5. DNA transcribed to RNA, translated to viral proteins
  6. Virus released to infect other cells (target of protease inhibitors)
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89
Q

What are the risk factors for prosthetic joint infections following a primary arthroscopy?

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Poor nutritional status
  • Obesity
  • Concurrent UTI
  • Steroids
  • Malignancy
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90
Q

Define revision arthroplasty

A

Re-operating on an artificial joint

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91
Q

Describe granuloma formation in TB

A
  • The tuberculous granuloma is a compact, organized aggregate of epithelioid cells — macrophages that have undergone a specialized transformation to have tightly interdigitated cell membranes that link adjacent cells
  • Epithelioid cells can be highly phagocytic but in some cases do not contain bacteria at all
  • Granuloma macrophages can also fuse into multinucleated giant cells or differentiate into foam cells, which are characterized by lipid accumulation
    • Foam cells have been noted to be most frequently located at the rim of the necrotic centre of a mature tuberculous granuloma
  • The consequences of these changes are not well understood, but in general foam cells and multinucleated giant cells have been reported to contain only a few bacteria, if any, bacteria are most commonly present in the central necrotic areas in which dead and dying macrophages can be seen
  • Many other cell types also populate the granuloma, such as neutrophils, dendritic cells, B and T cells, natural killer (NK) cells, fibroblasts and cells that secrete extracellular matrix components
  • The epithelial cells surrounding the granuloma are now thought to participate in its formation also
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92
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A
  • If chancre - dark ground microscopy/viral PCR swab (even though it is bacterial)
  • Bloods for antibody
    • 3 month window period
    • Stays positive even after completed treatment
  • Rapid plasma reagin
    • Quantitative marker
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93
Q

List the developments which have increased the success of solid organ transplantation

A
  • Optimal tissue typing
  • Donor evaluation
  • Organ procurement
  • Surgical technique
  • Tailored immunosuppressive regimen
  • Prevention of infection
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94
Q

List the respiratory HIV indicator conditions

A
  • AIDS-defining conditions
    • Tuberculosis
    • Pneumocystis
  • Other conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Bacterial pneumonia
    • Aspergillosis
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95
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of rectal chlamydia?

A
  • Usually asymptomatic
  • Can present with proctitis
    • Rectal pain
    • PR discharge
    • Rectal bleeding
    • Tenesmus
    • Constipation
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) sub-type often presents as proctitis
    • Can also have lymphadenopathy/ulcer disease
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96
Q

What causes gonorrhoea?

A
  • Bacterial
  • Caused by gram-negative diplococcus N. gonorrhoeae
  • Infects mucous membranes of urethra, endocervix, rectum, pharynx and conjunctiva
  • Inoculation through secretions from one mucous membrane to another
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97
Q

What impact does vaccine coverage have on child mortality?

A

Where vaccine coverage low, child mortality high

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98
Q

Describe the structure of rotavirus

A
  • Family: Reoviridae
  • Double stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus
    • Tougher, resistant to drying out, can be passed on more effectively
  • 5 predominant strains, G1-4, G9
    • Can also be classified by species A-H
    • G group is from VP7 protein and P group is from VP4 protein
  • G1 accounts for >70% of infections
  • 11 strands of RNA so potential for much antigenic variation
    • RNA replication is very error-prone
  • Stable in environment and fairly resistant to hand washing
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99
Q

List the main symptoms of acute HIV infection

A
  • First 1-2 months after infection
  • Systemic
    • Weight loss
    • Fever
  • Pharyngitis
  • Mouth
    • Sores
    • Thrush
  • Oesophagus - sores
  • Muscles - myalgia
  • Liver and spleen enlargement
  • Central
    • Malaise
    • Headache
    • Neuropathy
  • Lymph nodes - lymphadenopathy
  • Skin - rash (maculopapular)
  • Gastric
    • Nausea
    • Vomiting
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100
Q

How are salmonella identified in clinical labs?

A

XLD plates used most commonly, salmonella appear as black colonies

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101
Q

How do anogenital spread?

A

Most likely to spread when warts present but can have asymptomatic transmission

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102
Q

What outcomes are possible if septic arthritis goes untreated?

A
  • Untreated joint infection =
    • Loss of cartilage –> osteoarthritis in later life (reduced quality of life)
    • Severe sepsis –> septic shock –> death
  • Should be treated as a medical emergency
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103
Q

Describe primary prevention of bacterial meningitis

A
  • Haemophilus influenzae type B, pneumococcus and meningococcus vaccine given at 2 months, three months, four months and 12-13 months
  • Meningococcus booster quadrivalent vaccine given at age 14 - MenACWY
    • More strains emerge when mixing with different populations e.g. in further education

Special Cases:

  • Travel to Sub-Saharan Africa and other high prevalence areas (Pilgrims) - ACWY recommended
  • Asplenia, complement deficiency - Men boosters with Men B and ACWY, HIB and pneumococcus
  • Cochlear implants - pneumococcus booster
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104
Q

What should the initial investigations be in suspected malaria?

A

Full Blood Count, Liver Function tests, Urea and Electrolytes

At least 3 malaria blood films or rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) over 2 days

Blood cultures

HIV Test

Urine and stool culture and microscopy

Serology +/- PCR for dengue, other arbovirus infections, Rickettsia and others pathogens

CXR and ultrasound of liver and spleen

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105
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of clostridium difficile infection

A
  • Infection requires disruption of the normal ‘protective’ gut flora
    • Most commonly due to antibiotic therapy
    • Can also be due to cytotoxic therapy
    • Proton pump inhibitor use may be an additional risk factor
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106
Q

How is CSF glucose used in meningitis diagnosis?

A

If CSF glucose less than 50% blood glucose (need to take bloods right after LP) more likely to be bacterial, fungal or tuberculosis

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107
Q

Which pathogens commonly cause infections following solid organ transplantation?

A
  • Community-acquired pathogens
    • Bacterial - pneumococcus, listeria, salmonella, legionella
    • Viruses - influenza, parainfluenza, RSV
  • Nosocomial infections
    • Especially early post-transplant and if ventilated or prolonged length of stay
    • Resistant gram +ve and gram -ve bacteria, C diff associated disease, fungi
  • Donor-derived infections
    • Latent
      • TB, syphillis, viruses (HIV, hepatitis B, CMV)
    • Active bloodstream infection at procurement
      • Staphylococci, pneumococci, salmonella, E. Coli
  • Reactivation of infections
    • M tuberculosis
    • Viruses - HSV, VZV, CMV
  • Opportunistic pathogens
    • Aspergillus, pneumocystis
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108
Q

How can the transmission of clostridium botulinum be controlled?

A

Proper manufacturing controls in canning industry

Hygienic food preparation

Proper cooking

Refrigerated storage

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109
Q

List the symptoms of shigella infection

A
  • Dysentery - blood and pus in faeces
  • Initially watery diarrhoea followed by bloody diarrhoea
  • Marked, cramping abdominal pain
  • Vomiting is uncommon
  • Fever is usually present
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110
Q

How is TB infection spread?

A
  • Spread by coughing, sneezing, talking
  • Usually close contact spread - live in same household, enclosed spaces e.g. public transport
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111
Q

When should you consider taking a sexual history/perform a sexual health screen?

A

Anyone presenting with symptoms of:

  • Vaginitis - change in discharge, dysuria, change in menstrual bleeding
  • Urethritis - penile discharge, dysuria, meatal discomfort
  • Epididymo-orchitis - swollen, painful testicle
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease - pelvic pain, fever, change in discharge, dyspareunia
  • Proctitis - rectal discharge/pain/bleeding
  • Ulcer/lumps on genitals
  • Possible syphillis - esp. rash (look at hands/feet)
  • Possible HIV seroconversion

And asymptomatic patients in certain settings - screening request etc.

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112
Q

List the symptoms of campylobacter infection

A
  • Bloody diarrhoea
  • Cramping abdominal pain
  • Not usually vomiting
  • Fever
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113
Q

Describe the structural features of norovirus

A
  • Family: Calciviridae
  • Non-enveloped, single stranded RNA virus
    • Non-enveloped viruses more tough, don’t dry out on surfaces so can be passed on easier
  • Five genogroups - only 3 affect humans (GI, GII and GIV)
    • G3 bovine, G5 mice
  • Genogroups divided into at least 32 genotypes
  • Most common in the UK is the GII-4 strain
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114
Q

Is there a vaccine available for adenovirus?

A

No vaccine for adenovirus 40 + 41

There is for adenovirus 4/7 - respiratory infection, used by US military

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115
Q

How do new pathogens emerge?

A
  • Pathogenicity determinants often on mobile genetic elements
    • Bacteriophages
    • Plasmids
    • Transposons
  • Pathogenicity traits often grouped together in large integrons or pathogenicity islands
  • Frequently also contain antibiotic resistance genes
    • Refractory to treatment
    • Selective advantage
  • Many of the pathogens have evolved from gut flora
  • Existing pathogens can acquire new pathogenicity traits
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116
Q

Describe drug-drug interactions in ART

A
  • Including some topical/inhaled drugs
  • Often class-specific
  • Often mediated by CYP450 - induction/inhibition
    • Reduce or increase drug levels
  • E.g. PPIs, statins, antipsychotics - QTc
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117
Q

What are the common viral causes of the common cold?

A
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coronavirus
  • Parainfluenza virus
  • Human metapneumovirus
  • Adenovirus
  • RSV
  • Influenza
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118
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of MERS-CoV

A
  • Develop infection within 12 days of exposure
  • Disease progression
    • Prodrome - flu-like illness (transmission unlikely)
    • Acute illness - dyspnoea, vomiting, diarrhoea, chest pain, cough (transmission)
    • Fulminant illness - ARDS, renal failure, multi-organ failure (transmission)
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119
Q

Describe the transmission of campylobacter infection

A
  • Large animal reservoir (poultry, cattle, sheep, rodents and wild birds)
  • Infection transmitted via contaminated food (esp. poultry), milk or water
  • Person-to-person spread rare
  • Large point source outbreaks uncommon (doesn’t multiply in food)
  • 70% of raw retail fresh (not frozen) chicken is contaminated with Campylobacter
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120
Q

How is adenovirus treated?

A

Supportive treatment

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121
Q

Give an example of a bacteria with lactose fermenting colonies

A

E. Coli

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122
Q

List the symptoms of apical TB disease

A
  • Cough
  • Sputum
  • Haemoptysis
  • Weight loss
  • Night sweats
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123
Q

How do conjugate vaccines aid immunisation?

A
  • Plain polysaccharide antigens (e.g. strep pneumonia) do not stimulate the immune system as broadly as protein antigens such as tetanus or influenza
  • Therefore, production from such vaccines is not long-lasting and response in infants and young children is poor
  • Some polysaccharide vaccines have been enhanced by conjugation - where the polysaccharide antigen is attached to a protein carrier (e.g. Hiv and MenC vaccines) giving better immunological memory
  • Immunogenic in babies (relatively)
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124
Q

Describe the clinical features of clostridium difficile infection

A

Mild to severe with abdominal pain

Severe cases may develop pseudomembranous colitis

Fulminant cases may progress to colonic dilatation and perforation

Severe cases may be fatal

Relapses are common and may be multiple

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125
Q

How do prosthetic joint infections differ from native septic arthritis?

A

Very different environment from native joint, potential for different organisms to grow

Often occurs in elderly patients with co-morbidities, poor nutrition etc. so can be difficult to manage

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126
Q

Define gastroenteritis

A

Gastroenteritis = inflammation of the stomach and intestinal epithelium, characterised by GI symptoms including nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort

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127
Q

How is CSF protein used in meningitis diagnosis?

A

Normal - suggests not tuberculosis or fungal cause

Can get normal with viral meningitis

High - any cause

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128
Q

Define complicated influenza

A

Complicated influenza = infection that requires hospital admission

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129
Q

List the signs of pneumococcal meningitis

A
  • Neurological signs
    • 65% focal signs
    • 24% seizures
    • 22% VIII palsy - hearing loss/damage
  • Other signs of pneumococcal infection - community acquired pneumonia, ENT, endocarditis
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130
Q

Define osteomyelitis

A

Progressive infection of bone characterised by death of bone and the formation of sequestra

Sequestra = replacement tissue for bone, not as strong, not able to deal with stresses on tissue as well

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131
Q

Define pseudo-arthrosis

A

Allowing two bones to articulate against one another but without a joint e.g. Girdlestone, done in patients with no other treatment viable

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132
Q

Describe the aetiology of meningitis in the UK

A
  • In 42% diagnosed with meningitis (inflammatory CSF) a cause is not identified
  • When a specific diagnosis is made, the cause is usually viral (36%)
  • 15% bacterial
  • Rarer causes seen in immunocompromised or those from other countries
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133
Q

How can child mortality due to pneumonia be reduced?

A
  • Community case identification and management of severe pneumonia by oral antibiotics delivered through community health workers
  • Recognise basic clinical signs - fever, cough, tachypnoea, hyperinflation, intercostal recession and make antibiotics available to administer
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134
Q

How is the population of immunocompromised patients changing?

A

Increasing population of often profoundly immunocompromised patients due to:

  • Improved survival at extremes of life - premature babies and elderly
  • Improved cancer treatment
  • Developments in transplant techniques
  • Developments in intensive care
  • Management of chronic inflammatory conditions
  • Steroids
    • Profound inflammatory modulators
    • Taken by lots of people for many reasons
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135
Q

How is phthirus pubis treated?

A

Malathion 0.5% or Permethrin 1% cream

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136
Q

What are the additional roles of the laboratory in viral respiratory infections?

A
  • Resistance
  • Epidemiology
    • Vaccine effectiveness studies
    • Sequence analysis of circulating influenza strains
  • Outbreak investigation
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137
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Treatment - Benzathine penicillin (not much drug resistance)

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138
Q

Describe the epidemiology of meningitis

A

Sub-Saharan Africa carries the highest burden of bacterial meningitis

Incidence of meningitis highest in children, especially <1yr old - unvaccinated

Disease of children + poverty

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139
Q

What causes intra-cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii - raw beef (France, Africa)

Commonly seen in immunocompromised (HIV)

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140
Q

Define MDR-TB

A

Resistance to both rifampicin and isoniazid

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141
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of clostridium botulinum infection

A

Absorbed toxins spread via bloodstream and enter peripheral nerves where they cause neuromuscular blockage at the synapses

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142
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of TB

A
  • Pulmonary 90%
    • Cough/haemoptysis
    • Shortness of breath
  • Constitutional symtoms
    • Fever, chills
    • Night sweats
    • Fatigue
    • Loss of appetite, weight loss
    • Lymphadenopathy
  • CNS
    • Meningitis - neck stiffness, headache, photophobia
  • Eyes
    • Choroiditis, blurred vision, red eyes
  • CVS
    • Constrictive pericarditis
    • Chest pain
    • Shortness of breath
  • Renal
    • Dysuria
    • Haematuria
  • GI
    • Ileocaecal - abdominal pain, mass in RIF, perionteal
    • Distended abdomen and ascites
  • Skeletal
    • If occurs in the spine = Potts disease
    • Arthitis and osteomyelitis
    • Joint/bone pain localised swelling
  • Skin
    • Lupus vulgaris - brown plaques which can ulcerate and can occur at muscocutaneous junction
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143
Q

Give examples of viruses which replicate in the gut but do not cause diarrhoea/vomiting

A
  • Many viruses replicate in the gut but most do NOT cause diarrhoea and vomiting
    • E.g. Poliovirus (and all other enteroviruses)
    • Adenoviruses other than types 40 & 41
    • Hepatitis A/E
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144
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of neutropaenic fever in cancer patients

A
  • Effect of chemotherapy on mucosal barriers (translocation) and immune system
  • Impact on host defenses of the underlying malignancy

–> Neutropaenia, abnormal antibody production, T cell defects (+ organ dysfunction, nutritional status, IV access devices and concurrent illness)

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145
Q

What are the risk factors for prosthetic joint infections following revision arthroscopy?

A
  • Prior joint surgery
  • Prolonged operating room time
  • Pre-op infection (teeth, skin, UTI)
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146
Q

What type of bacteria are clostridium botulinum?

A

Anaerobic, spore-forming gram +ve bacilli

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147
Q

Define resection arthroplasty

A

Taking the disease joint out and putting in an artificial one

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148
Q

How can viral gastroenteritis be diagnosed?

A
  • Most of these viruses can’t be cultured
  • Previously detected using EM or ELISA
  • All are detected by PCR which detects the DNA or RNA
    • Children/elderly/immunocompromised - test for all viruses
    • Normally healthy adults - test for norovirus
  • Testing done in Virology lab
  • Samples - vomit or stool
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149
Q

Why is non-adherence common in TB treatment? What is the effect? How can this be prevented?

A
  • Rapid clinical improvement
  • Patient feels better – stops meds
  • Also often live chaotic lives - homeless, drug users etc.
  • Risk of generating drug resistance
  • Important even at the end of treatment
  • Directly observed treatment/video observed treatment can be used
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150
Q

When is HAART indicated?

A

Initiated at a CD4 count of 350 or lower, although it can be started at higher CD4 counts if the patient is symptomatic

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151
Q

How are enterotoxigenic E. Coli tested for?

A

No differential media available

Test liquid cultures for production of toxins by immunoassays - not routinely done

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152
Q

What are the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS?

A
  • Evidence of an AIDS defining illness
  • The term AIDS is no longer used within clinical practice due to the connotations of a palliative disease
    • AIDS is an epidemiological term - coined by the CDC in America in the 1980s to describe the outbreak of an illness in New York/San Francisco in gay men dying of PCP
    • AIDS = if had positive HIV test and opportunistic infection, and denoted a 6 month life expectancy
    • Often doctor and patient knowledge of HIV is 15 years out of date - AIDS is no longer clinically relevant as HIV+ have a normal life expectancy with ART
  • Advanced HIV is a preferred term
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153
Q

Describe the body’s natural barriers to GI infection

A
  • Mouth
    • Lysozyme
  • Stomach
    • Acid pH
  • Small intestine
    • Mucous
    • Bile
    • Secretory IgA
    • Lymphoid tissue (Peyer’s patches)
    • Epithelial turnover
    • Normal flora
  • Large intestine
    • Epithelial turnover
    • Normal flora
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154
Q

List diseases/therapies which suppress cellular immunity

A
  • DiGeorge syndrome (primary deficiency, rare) - failure of proliferation of T cells
  • Malignant lymphoma
  • Cytotoxic chemotherapy
  • Extensive irradiation
  • Immunosuppressive drugs
    • Corticosteroids
    • Cyclosporin - immunosuppressant used to prevent organ rejection
    • Tacrolimus - more portent that cyclosporin
    • Alemtuzumab - anti-CD52 monoclonal
    • Rituximab - anti-CD20 monoclonal
    • Purine analogues e.g. fludarabine - causes profound lymphopaenia
  • Allogenic stem cell transplantation especially if GVHD (treated w steroids)
  • Infections - HIV, mycobacterial infections, measles, EBV, CMV
  • Infections - viruses, mycobacteria, fungi, protozoa
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155
Q

How is active TB diagnosed?

A
  • Acid fast bacteria in respiratory or other sample
    • Microbiology
    • Histopathology
  • M tuberculosis growth in cultures - liquid or LJ culture medium
  • Clinical and/or radiological diagnosis
  • TB immunology - not validated for latent TB
  • Without microbiological diagnosis, difficult to determine resistance
    • Get samples prior to starting treatment
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156
Q

In neutropaenic fever which additional antimicrobials should be added for specific infection risks?

A
  • IV vancyomycin - recent infection with MRSA, MRSA colonised (current or previous), suspected central line infection or signs of skin/soft tissue infection
  • IV clarithromycin - community acquired pneumonia suspected and atypical cover required (check drug interactions)
  • IV metronidazole - history of true penicillin/beta-lactam allergy with suspected intra-abdominal sepsis
  • Previous ESBL infection or known ESBL carrier use a carbapenem in place of piperacillin/tazobactam
  • Consider possibility of opportunistic infection such as PCP or reactivation of previous infection e.g. CMV, VZV
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157
Q

Define neutropaenia

A

Defined as <0.5 x 10^9/L or <1.0 x 10^9/L and falling

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158
Q

Describe the symptoms and causes of pharyngitis

A
  • Symptoms - sore throat and pharyngeal inflammation
  • Viral infections 25% to 45% all cases
    • Nasal symptoms = viral
    • No nasal symptoms = bacterial
  • Many different viral pathogens including
    • Adenovirus (12-23% cases)
    • Rhinovirus
    • Influenza
    • Parainfluenza
  • Not just caused by respiratory viruses
    • 82% occurrence in infectious mononucleosis - Epstein Barr Virus (EBV), saliva spread
    • HIV seroconversion illness
    • Herpes simplex virus - usually evidence of oral lesions
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159
Q

Where are the under 5 mortality highest and lowest? Why?

A
  • Highest in Somalia (180 per 1,000), Mali, Burkina Faso (Sub-Saharan Africa, Southeast Asia, Middle East)
    • Africa 4.2 million, SE Asia 2.4 million
    • Poverty, poor sanitation, warfare, poorly developed healthcare system etc. risk factors for high under 5 mortality
    • Lots of mortality in neonates (0-30 days old)
  • Lowest in Singapore (2.6 per 1,000), Slovenia, Sweden
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160
Q

Who should be treated for gonorrhoea?

A
  • Positive test result
  • Clinical suspicion (certain circumstances)
  • Recent or ongoing sexual contact with gonorrhoea
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161
Q

What investigations should be done in a patient with suspected GI infection?

A

Blood tests (FBC, U&E, blood film - HUS), sigmoidoscopy, abdominal X-ray/CT

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162
Q

Explain the importance of risk assessment of prosthetic infection prior to joint surgery

A

Risk assessment allows targeting of intervention - nutritional supplements, stop smoking, tight diabetes control, weight loss, monitor steroid use etc.

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163
Q

What are the goals for TB treatment in the UK?

A

20% reduction in TB incidence by 2020 (compared w/ 2015)

35% reduction in TB deaths by 2020 (compared w/ 2015)

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164
Q

List the short term side-effects of ART

A
  • Rash
  • Hypersensitivity (Abacavir and Nevirapine)
  • CNS side effects (Efavirenz) - sleep disturbance, vivid dreams, mood changes
  • GI side effects
  • Renal
  • Hepatic
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165
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of vibrio cholerae

A

Flagellae and mucinase facilitate penetration of intestinal mucous

Attachment to mucosa by specific receptors

Diarrhoea due to production of a potent protein exotoxin

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166
Q

List the causes of viral meningitis

A
  • Enterovirus most common
  • HSV 2 (sexually transmitted) > VZV > HSV 1
  • HIV (seroconversion)
  • Mumps
  • Unidentified - common
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167
Q

Define XDR-TB

A

MDR-TB + additional resistance to fluoroquinolone and one of the injectables (amikacin, kanamycin, capreomycin)

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168
Q

Describe the population of M. Tuberculosis in infected individuals

A
  • Tuberculosis sufferers previously considered to have heterogeneous populations of M. Tuberculosis
  • 4 populations proposed
    • Actively growing organisms (killed mainly by isoniazid)
    • Semi-dormant organisms inhibited by an acid environment (killed mainly by pyrazinamide)
    • Semi-dormant organisms with spurts of active metabolism (killed preferentially by rifampicin)
    • Completely dormant organisms (not killed by standard drugs)
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169
Q

What are the key investigations which should be undertaken in suspected septic arthritis?

A
  • Blood cultures
  • Joint aspirate (gram, microscopy for crystals and culture)
    • Need meticulous aseptic technique when taking joint aspirate - don’t want to introduce and organism into a healthy joint
    • Differential includes gout - crystals
  • FBC
  • CRP - inflammation
  • Imaging
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170
Q

In which cancer patients is neutropaenic fever likely to develop?

A

5-10% solid tumours receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy

20-25% non-leukaemic haematological malignancies

85-95% acute leukaemias receiving induction chemotherapy

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171
Q

How is mycoplasma genitalium diagnosed?

A

NAAT - urine/self-taken vaginal swab

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172
Q

Describe the transmission of salmonella

A
  • Found in wide range of warm and cold blooded animals
  • Only S. typhi and S. paratyphi cause enteric fever (typhoid and paratyphoid), do not have animal reservoir
  • Acquired via contaminated food, especially pork, poultry and other meat and milk/dairy products
  • Waterborne infection less common
  • Large foodborne outbreaks can occur
  • Secondary spread via person-to-person transmission may be a feature
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173
Q

How is clostridium perfringens transmitted?

A

Spores and vegetative cells ubiquitous in soil and animal gut

Contaminated foodstuff (usually meat products)

Often involves bulk-cooking of stews, meat pies

Spores survive cooking, germinate and organisms multiply in cooling food

Food inadequately re-heated to kill organisms

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174
Q

What are the problems associated with anogenital warts?

A

Itch/aesthetic usually only problems

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175
Q

List the types of respiratory samples which can be used for PCR diagnosis

A

Nasal pharyngeal swab

Throat swab

Gargle

Sputum

Endotracheal aspirate

Bronchoalveolar lavage

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176
Q

List the complications of rotavirus

A
  • Severe chronic diarrhoea
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Immunodeficient children may have more severe or persistent disease
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177
Q

List the risk factors for pneumococcal meningitis

A
  • 70% underlying disorder
    • Middle ear disease
    • Head injury (CSF leak)
    • Neurosurgery
    • Alcohol
    • Immunosuppression (HIV)
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178
Q

What type of bacteria are campylobacter?

A
  • Curved gram -ve bacilli
  • Microaerophilic and thermophilic (multiplies at 42 degrees)
  • culture on Campylobacter selective agar
  • C. jejuni most important species - 90%
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179
Q

What are the key strains of avian influenza which have significance in humans?

A
  • A/H5N1
  • A/H7N9
  • A/H9N2
  • A/H7N7
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180
Q

What type of bacteria is clostridium difficile?

A

Anaerobic, spore forming gram +ve bacilli

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181
Q

In a total hip arthroscopy, what are the most common causative organisms of a prosthetic joint infection?

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Coagulase-negative staphylococci (normally found on skin, breach in skin allows entry to joint, very ‘sticky’, can create biofilm so hard to get rid of)
  3. Streptococci
  4. Gram negative bacilli
  5. Anaerobic organisms
  6. Enterococcus
  7. Culture negative - grow nothing
  8. Polymicrobial (mixed)
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182
Q

What type of virus is the influenza virus?

A

Orthomyxovirus - segmented RNA genome - separate strands of genes, code for different proteins

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183
Q

Describe the transmission of listeria monocytogenes

A
  • Infection associated with contaminated foods, especially unpasteurised milk and soft cheeses, pate, cooked meats, smoked fish and coleslaw
  • Can multiply at 4 degrees
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184
Q

Define neutropaenic sepsis/febrile neutropaenia

A
  • Neutrophil count <0.5 or <1 x 109/L if recent chemotherapy (usually within 10 days but can persist for up to 21 days)
  • Plus fever/hypothermia or SIRS or sepsis/septic shock
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185
Q

Describe the use of PEP

A

PEP - Post exposure prophylaxis

  • Take if had exposure which might put you at risk of HIV
  • Take within 72 hours
  • 28 days
  • Available from sexual health/A&E
  • Based on exposure type and risk of contact
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186
Q

How is helicobacter pylori transmitted?

A

Though to be faecal-oral or oral-oral

Humans are only reservoir

Infection acquired in childhood and persists life long unless treated

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187
Q

How is the risk of sexual transmission of HIV increased?

A

Risks increased by high HIV viral load, trauma (including sexual assault), co-existing STIs, ulcerative conditions i.e. herpes simplex/syphilitic chancre and if the index male is uncircumcised

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188
Q

Describe the transmission of clostridium botulinum

A
  • Spores and vegetative cells ubiquitous in soil and animal GIT
  • Produces powerful heat-labile protein neurotoxin (types A, B + E cause human disease)
  • Foodborne botulism - pre-formed toxin in food, commonly associated with improperly processed canned foods
  • Infant botulism - organisms germinate in gut of babies fed honey containing spores, and toxins are produced in the gut
  • Wound botulism - organisms implanted in wound produce toxins, seen in IVDU
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189
Q

How is MDR-TB treated?

A
  • 18 months - 2 years of treatment
  • Drugs associated with significant adverse event profiles
  • Injectable agents with risk of HIV and other BBV transmission
  • Pyrazinamide + 4 second line agents during intensive phase
    • Fluoroquinolone
    • 2nd live injectable - nephrotoxicity
    • Ethionamide or prothionamide
    • Cycloserine or p-aminosalicylic acid
  • Duration of intensive phase >8 months
  • Total duration >20 months if not previously treated for MDR TB
  • Study shows no different between short and long term regimen (9 months vs 2 years)
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190
Q

Define viral latency

A

Viral latency is a state of reversibly non-productive infection of individual cells

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191
Q

How is intra-cerebral tuberculosis treated?

A

Steroids

Paradoxical worsening with treatment usual

Rx for one year (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide) + steroids

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192
Q

How does HIV resistance develop?

A
  • As HIV multiples in the body, the virus sometimes mutates and produces variations of itself - variations that develop while on HIV medication can lead to drug-resistant stains of HIV
  • HIV medicines that previously controlled a person’s HIV are not effective against new, drug-resistant HIV (can’t prevent the drug-resistant HIV from multiplying), can cause HIV treatment to fail
  • A person can be initially infected with drug-resistant HIV or develop drug-resistant HIV after starting HIV medicines
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193
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of enterohaemorrhagic E. Coli infection

A

Attaching and effacing lesion (similar to EPEC)

Production of Shiga-like toxins, structural and functional analogue of shigella dysenteriae toxin (sometimes strains called STEC - Shiga-toxin producing EC - or VTEC - verotoxin-producing EC - because toxins are toxic for cultured vero cells)

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194
Q

List the sources of GI infection

A
  • Many GI infections are zoonotic - transmitted by cross contamination from animal
    • Symptomatic animals
      • Economic cost e.g. Salmonella Dublin
    • Asymptomatic shedders
      • E.g. reptiles and salmonella carriage, E. coli 0157 in cattle
  • Human carriers important for some e.g. typhoid
  • Environmental sources
    • Contamination of soil and produce e.g. Listeria, E. Coli 0157
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195
Q

List the common viral causes of bronchioloitis

A
  • RSV
  • Human metapneumovirus
  • Parainfluenza virus
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coronavirus
  • Influenza
  • Human bocavirus
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196
Q

List the infections which occur as the natural course of HIV infection progresses (untreated)

A

As CD4 count falls/years after onset of HIV infection =

  1. Thrush
  2. Oral hairy leukoplakia
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
  5. Histoplasmosis
  6. Coccidioidomycosis
  7. Cryptotococcosis
  8. Toxoplasmosis
  9. Atypical herpes simplex virus disease
  10. Cryptosporidioisis
  11. Cytomegalovirus disease
  12. Mycobacterium avium complex disease
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197
Q

Describe the infection caused by astrovirus

A

Cause less severe gastroenteritis than other enteric pathogens

Infection usually as sporadic cases but can be outbreaks, usually in younger children

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198
Q

In which age groups is acute osteomyelitis most common?

A

Acute osteomyelitis more common in children than adults

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199
Q

What are the challenges with ART?

A
  • Good adherence essential - drug resistance
  • Psychological impact - taking medication everyday is constant reminder of diagnosis
  • Short term side-effects
  • Longer term toxicities
  • Drug-drug interactions
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200
Q

How does invasive HiB disease most commonly present?

A
  • Most common presentation of invasive HiB disease is meningitis, frequently accompanied by
    • Bacteraemia 60%
    • Epiglottitis 15%
    • Bacteraemia 10%
    • Pneumonia, cellulitis
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201
Q

How are anogenital warts diagnosed and managed?

A
  • Clinical diagnosis
  • Advice:
    • Reassure high prevalence and benign
    • No requirement for partner notification but condoms reduce transmission
    • Many people clear virus
    • Smoking/hair removal
      • Smoking makes treatment more difficult - impairs immune response
      • Hair removal makes spread more likely, should avoid with visible warts
  • Treatment:
    • Cryotherapy
    • Topical treatments: podophyllotoxin/imiquimod
    • Surgical excision (rarely required)
    • Variable success
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202
Q

Define arthrosis

A

A joint

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203
Q

Which groups are at higher risk of viral gastroenteritis?

A
  • Children under age 5
  • Old age people especially in nursing home
  • Immunocompromised
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204
Q

Describe the action of live attenuated vaccines

A
  • To produce an immune response, the live organism must replicate (grow) in the vaccinated individual over a period of time (days-weeks)
  • Usually promote a full, long lasting immune response after 1-2 doses
  • Vaccine virus is weakened or ‘attenuated’ but a mild form of the disease may rarely occur
  • MMR, VZV, intranasal influenza
  • Not to be given to immunocompromised individuals
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205
Q

How can clostridium difficile infection be controlled?

A
  • Antimicrobial stewardship
    • Remember that any antibiotic therapy will disturb the normal gut flora to some extent
      • Avoid/stop unnecessary antimicrobial treatment
    • Restrictive antibiotic formularies to minimise use of ‘high risk’ antibiotics
      • Cephalosporins
      • Fluoroquinolones
      • Clindamycin
      • Co-amoxiclav
  • Infection prevention and control measures
    • Source isolation
    • Hand hygiene - need to wash hands with soap and water not just alcohol gel
    • Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
  • Cleaning/disinfection with hypochlorite disinfectants
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206
Q

Describe antibody mediated immunity

A
  • When a B cell encounters an antigen that it recognises, the B cell is stimulated to proliferate and produce large numbers of lymphocytes secreting an antibody to this antigen
  • Replication and differentiation of B cells into plasma cells is regulated by contact with the antigen and by interactions with T cells
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207
Q

Why is it important to consider tuberculosis in vertebral discitis?

A

Tuberculosis can present with discitis

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208
Q

What are the blood markers tested in HIV?

A
  1. HIV viral load
  • Can be up to >10 million
  • The aim of treatment is to achieve and maintain an ‘undetectable viral load’
  • Undetectable means below 200 copies/ml
    • In Scotland, we measure to <40 copies/ml
  1. CD4
  • Calculated from total lymphocyte count
  • HIV negative - 400-1600 per mm3
  • Risk of opportunistic infection increases sharply below 200/mm3

Test routinely in those with HIV

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209
Q

What causes cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Dissemination of fungus from pulmonary infection

Usually in immunocompromised (HIV)

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210
Q

Which organisms can cause infection in neutropaenia?

A
  • Gram positive cocci
    • Staph aureus
    • Coagulase negative staphylococci
    • Viridans streptococci
    • Enterococci
  • Anaerobes
    • Bacteroides spp.
    • Clostridia spp.
  • Gram negative bacilli
    • E coli
    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    • Klebsiella pneumoniae
    • Enterobacter spp.
  • Fungi
    • Candida spp.
    • Aspergillus spp.
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211
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of osteomyelitis

A
  • Haematogenous spread
  • Contiguous spread
    • Overlying infection (e.g. cellulitic ulcer, diabetic feet)
    • Trauma (compound fracture)
    • Surgical inoculation
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212
Q

Describe the four species of Plasmodia responsible for human malaria in terms of clinical features, treatments and geographical distribution?

A

P. falciparum – Worldwide distribution, most important cause of malaria and the main cause of severe malaria and nearly all fatalities, no dormant liver infection, drug resistance +++. Commonest.

P. vivax - Worldwide but most commonly Asian subcontinent, persistent liver infection, can result in relapse months after initial infection, some Chloroquine resistance in SE Asia. Second most common.

P. ovale - Usually West Africa, persistent liver infection, can relapse. No drug resistance

P. malariae – Worldwide (Africa), 10% occur > 1 year after infection, no dormant liver infection, No drug resistance

Patients with confirmed non-falciparum malaria may be treated as outpatients with Chloroquine. Vivax and ovale infection require additional treatment with Primaquine to eradicate the liver stage infection to prevent relapse.

Vivax + ovale can be dormant in liver then reactivate many years later – treat with chloroquine to get rid of parasitaemia.

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213
Q

Describe the antibiotic prophylaxis used for joint replacement surgery

A
  • No benefit to support >24 hours antibiotics
  • No trial evidence to support antibiotic impregnated cement
  • Single pre-op dose cephalosporin reduces risk of deep wound infection by 1.8%
  • Single pre-op dose and two post op doses reduce risk of deep wound infection by 2.9%
  • Should be given 30-60mins before skin incision
  • Evidence supports the use of cephalosporin (plus vancomycin or teicoplanin if MRSA colonised) in prevention of PJI (but not C. difficile)
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214
Q

What is the under 5 mortality rate in the UK?

A

4.5% - steadily declining by 1% per year

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215
Q

Define latent syphilis

A

If asymptomatic but test positive for syphilis - slow replication

216
Q

List the dermatological HIV indicator conditions

A
  • AIDS defining syndromes
    • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Other conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Severe or recalcitrant seborrhoeic dermatitis
    • Severe or recalcitrant psoriasis
    • Multidermatomal or recurrent herpes zoster
217
Q

How should suspected bacterial meningitis be treated (empirical therapy)?

A
  • Do not delay starting IV antibiotics
  • Rx all for meningococcal/pneumococcal and haemophilus influenzae
    • IV ceftriaxone
    • If true penicillin/beta-lactam allergy - chloramphenicol
  • Stratify Rx by age and risk factors for listeria (resistant to ceftriaxone)
    • >60 years, immunosuppressed, pregnant, alcohol excess, liver disease or if listeria meningitis suspected add IV amoxicillin
    • If true penicillin/beta-lactam allergy - add IV co-trimoxazole
  • High likelihood of pneumococcus - neuro signs, immunocompromised etc.
    • Add steroids
218
Q

Describe the clinical features of helicobacter pylori infection

A

Infection is asymptomatic unless peptic ulceration develops

Now establishes as cause of >90% of duodenal ulcers, and 70-80% of gastric ulcer

Gastric cancer risk

219
Q

Describe the epidemiology of vibrio cholerae

A
  • Cause of epidemic and pandemic cholera
  • Endemic in parts of SE Asia, Africa, South America - returning traveler at risk
220
Q

Describe the most common causes of the common cold

A
  1. Rhinovirus
  • 50% of common cold
  • Very small virus - Picornaviridae family
  • ssRNA
  • 3 species - RV-A, RV-B, RV-C
  • >100 types - constantly acquiring as don’t generate immunity to all types
  1. Coronavirus
  • 10-15% of common cold
  • 229E and OC43 discovered first then NL63 and KHU1
  • ssRNA
  • Largest RNA virus genome
  • Enveloped
221
Q

What is the consequence of compromised immunity?

A

Innate/adaptive immunity compromised - increased susceptibility to infections

222
Q

Describe the immunological protection of joints

A

Joint space very immunologically protected - should be sterile

Synovial fluid important for the mechanical function of the joint

When an antigen enters the joint capsule causes the white cells of the immune system to overreact

The synovial cavity is a very small space, any inflammation is damaging

223
Q

Describe the structure of adenovirus

A

Family: Adenoviridae

Double stranded DNA virus

224
Q

Define diarrhoea

A

Diarrhoea = disease of small intestine and involving increased fluid and electrolyte loss, severity can vary, frequent and/or fluid stool, at least 3 episodes/day

225
Q

How does primary syphilis present clinically?

A
  • 9-90 post infection
  • Chancre
    • Single painless ulcer - on penis, in mouth, in vagina
    • Sample - can see spirochetes on microscopy
226
Q

Is TB infection life long?

A
  • Two billion people worldwide (1 in 3) are thought to be asymptomatically (latently) infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis and at risk of developing active tuberculosis (TB)
  • The prevalence of latent TB infection is inferred from tests that detect immunoreactivity to mycobacterial antigens rather than live bacteria and from mathematical modelling
  • Longitudinal studies and clinical trials show that this TB immunoreactivity can persist after curative treatment
  • Most people with TB immunoreactivity do not develop active TB upon immunosuppression, suggesting that they have cleared their infection while retaining immunological memory to it
  • TB immunoreactivity cannot distinguish cleared from persistent infection, emphasising the urgent need for tests that can identify people with asymptomatic infections
227
Q

List the features of croup

A
  • Commonly encountered childhood infectious syndrome
    • 6 months-3 years
  • Distinctive cough (‘seal’s bark’)
  • Narrowing of airway due to swollen tissue in trachea
  • Mostly mild but responsible for significant emergency visits (rapid onset, difficult breathing)
  • Treatment is supportive
  • Most caused by parainfluenza viruses 1-4 (usually type 1)
228
Q

Describe progressive multifocal luecoencephalopathy

A
  • Progressive motor dysfunction
  • Immunocompromised
    • HIV, anti-TNF, transplant
  • JC virus
  • No specific treatment - ARVs if HIV positive - if already on ARV not much can be done
  • May occur as part of immune reconstitution
229
Q

Describe the seasonality of viral infections

A

Some viruses are seasonal e.g. flu in winter, some have no seasonality e.g. adenovirus

230
Q

Describe the latency of HIV

A
  • In HIV the term latency is generally used to describe the long asymptomatic period between initial infection and advanced HIV (AIDS)
    • Isn’t really latent - the virus replicates constantly if untreated
  • With PCR it has become clear that HIV replicates actively throughout the course of the infection even during asymptomatic period
  • Once HIV genetic material incorporated into host DNA there is no cure as no way to remove it
231
Q

How do vaccines work?

A
  • Induce active immunity and immunological memory
  • Can be made from inactivated (killed) or attenuated live organisms, secreted products, recombinant components or the constituents of cell walls
    • Whole cell Pertussis and inactivated polio vaccine - inactivated bacteria/virus
    • Tetanus and diphtheria - inactivated toxins
    • Pneumococcal - capsular polysaccharide
  • Primary response - IgM mediated followed by IgG, commonly need 2+ injections to elicit response in young infants (primary or priming course), further injections lead to accelerate response lead by IgG (secondary response)
  • Some inactivated vaccines contain adjuvants, substances that enhance the antibody response
232
Q

Describe infection control methods used during a norovirus outbreak

A
  • Isolation (where single rooms are available) or cohorting (i.e. putting all the symptomatic/asymptomatic patients together to prevent spread to those who aren’t infected)
  • Exclude symptomatic staff until symptom free for 48 hours
  • Do not move patients
  • Do not admit new patients
  • Thorough cleaning of ward/hotel/cruise ship/bus
    • 48 hours after last case symptomatic
    • Dilute hypochlorite or hot soapy water
  • Patient/visitor/passenger/guest awareness

Hand Hygiene:

  • Contaminated hands are probably to single most common vector for the spread of Norovirus
  • Alcohol gels not effective at killing norovirus, need to wash hands with hot soapy water
233
Q

Describe the pathogenesis and complications of campylobacter infection

A
  • Inflammation, ulceration and bleeding in small and large bowel due to bacterial invasion
  • Bacteraemia can occur (extremes of age, immunocompromised)
  • Rarely causes post-infectious demyelination syndrome (Guillain-Barre), characterised by ascending paralysis
234
Q

How is XDR-TB treated?

A
  • No standard treatments
  • Consider surgical interventions - remove diseased lobe of lung
  • New drugs
    • BDQ
    • Delamanid
    • Pretomanid
  • All oral regimens in trial - in pipeline for future
235
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A
  • HIV enters the body through open cuts, sores or breaks in the skin, through mucous membranes, such as those inside the anus or vagina, or through direct injection
  • HIV can be transmitted from an infected person to another through:
    • Blood (including menstrual blood) - highest concentration
    • Semen
    • Vaginal secretions
    • Breast milk
  • HIV has been detected in saliva, tears and urine but only in extremely low concentrations - no cases of HIV transmission through these fluids reported
236
Q

List the symptoms of enteropathogenic E. Coli infection

A

Watery diarrhoea with abdominal pain and vomiting

Often accompanied by fever

237
Q

How are viral respiratory infections transmitted?

A
  • Complex, depends on different variables
    • Environment (humidity, temperature), crowds of people, host factors (immune system, receptor distribution in respiratory tract)
  • Contact
    • Direct - with an infected person
    • Indirect - with virus on surface
      • E.g. flu can survive for 2 hours on paper, 24 hours on glass/plastic
  • Droplet spread - >5 microns
    • Coughs, sneezing, talking
    • Anyone in vicinity can be inoculated
  • Aerosol spread
    • 3m spread
    • Occurs during extubation, suction, mechanical ventilation
238
Q

What type of bacteria are salmonella?

A

Gram -ve bacilli, member of the Enterobacteriales family

Non-lactose fermenters

239
Q

Give examples of the conventional pathogens which affect immunocompromised patients

A
  • Endogenous flora
    • E.g. staphylococcus aureus in throat/skin, klebsiella and E. coli in the gut
  • Hospital acquired
    • Often more resistant organisms - from unwell people e.g. C. diff, MRSA, resistant gram -ves
  • Environmental organisms
    • E.g. pneumococcus, meningococcus, haemophilus influenzae - inhaled
240
Q

How is CSF cell count used in meningitis diagnosis?

A

Normal WCC <5/mm3, more is abnormal

Neutrophilic = bacterial (+ lymphocytes - listeria)

Lymphocytic = viral (neutrophils early), fungal or TB

241
Q

How are intoxication GI infections treated?

A

Self-limiting diseases - no need for treatment (rehydration if necessary)

242
Q

Describe the epidemiology of enterotoxigenic E. Coli

A
  • Major bacterial cause of diarrhoea in infants and children in developing world
  • Major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea
243
Q

List the symptoms of viral encephalitis

A

Confusion, fever +/- seizures

244
Q

Describe the risks of HIV transmission in sexual intercourse

A

Insertive vaginal 0.03-0.06%

Receptive vaginal 0.1-0.2%

Insertive anal 0.1%

Receptive anal 0.1-3%

Oral 0-0.03%

245
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed?

A
  • NAAT testing
    • Same sample as gonorrhoea
  • Too small for microscopy
246
Q

How do you define an opportunistic infection?

A

Organisms which do not usually cause infection but do so when host defenses are compromised

Includes viral, bacterial, fungal, protozoal and helminth infections i.e. CMV, candida, PCP, toxoplasma

247
Q

How is listeria monocytogenes infection treated?

A

Intravenous antibiotics (usually Ampicillin and synergistic gentamicin) required

248
Q

Explain the rationale behind meningitis when the cause is not definitively known

A

Although bacterial is less common, bacterial meningitis is much more likely to be life-threatening than viral - all patients diagnosed with meningitis will be treated for suspected bacterial meningitis with empirical treatment.

249
Q

Where do phthirus pubis live?

A

Live on coarse body hair (as opposed to head lice)

250
Q

What is the Bristol stool chart used for clinically?

A

To classify consistency of faeces, commonly used on wards for monitoring C. diff infection

251
Q

What are the most common GI infections in the UK?

A
  1. Norovirus
  2. Rotavirus
  3. Campylobacter
  4. Salmonella
252
Q

How is gonorrhoea treated?

A
  • Ceftriaxone 1g IM stat (or ciprofloxacin if sensitive)
  • Repeat test after 2 weeks to ensure cure
253
Q

List the symptoms of enterotoxigenic E. Coli infection

A

Watery diarrhoea with abdominal pain and vomiting

No associated fever

254
Q

What effect do the different groups of E. Coli have epidemiologically?

A
  • EPEC and ETEC are key causes of diarrhoea in children in the developing world
    • Severity may be related to underlying malnutrition
    • ETEC may mimic cholera clinically
  • EIEC, EAEC and DAEC - true extent unclear
  • Cases may be travel-related
255
Q

Describe the symptoms of adenovirus

A

Fever and watery diarrhoea

256
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of listeria monocytogenes infection

A

Invasive infection from GIT results in systemic spread via bloodstream

257
Q

What type of bacteria are E. Coli?

A
  • Gram negative bacilli
  • Members of the Enterobacteriales family
    • Important component of gut flora of humans/animals
    • Some strains possess virulence factors which allow them to cause infections
258
Q

Describe the global epidemiology of TB

A
  • In 2018
    • 1.5 million people died from TB
    • Leading killer of people with HIV
    • Major cause of death due to antimicrobial resistance
    • 10 million people fell ill with TB
  • Highest prevalence - Sub-Saharan Africa, Indian subcontinent and China
259
Q

How can childhood mortality due to malaria be reduced?

A
  • Community randomised trials in Africa have shown that full coverage with insecticide-treated nets can halve the number of episodes of clinical malaria and reduce all-cause mortality in children younger than 5 years of age
  • When used by pregnant women, insecticide-treated nets can lead to substantial reductions in low birth-weight, placental parasitaemia, stillbirths and miscarriages
  • By reducing the vector population, insecticide-treated nets provide proteins for all people in a community, including those who do not sleep under a net themselves
  • The proportion of households in Africa estimated to own at least one insecticide-treated net rose from 17% in 2006 to 31% in 2008, with 24% of children younger than 5 years of age using an insecticide-treated net during 2008
260
Q

List the possible pathogenic mechanisms for the development prosthetic joint infections

A

Haematogenous spread

Local spread - at time of operation before skin has healed

261
Q

How can transmission of campylobacter be controlled?

A

Reduction of contamination in raw, retail poultry meta

Adequate cooking

262
Q

How can anogenital warts be prevented?

A
  • 89-99% protection with quadrivalent vaccine (6, 11, 16, 18)
    • Females 12/13 (and now males)
    • MSM 15-45
      • HPV associated head and neck cancers in young men
263
Q

When were the first cases of HIV reported?

A
  • October 1980 - May 1981
    • 5 homosexual men treated for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in Los Angeles California
    • All have previous or current lab-confirmed cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection and candidal mucosal infection
  • December 1981 first UK report
    • 2 homosexual males
    • One with PCP and CMV infection, other with Kaposi’s sarcoma, CMV and cryptococcal pneumonia
    • All male, all homosexual - related to sexual activity? Drug use? CMV? Environmental? Sauna related?
  • July 1982
    • 3 cases of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in patients with haemophilia A
    • All heterosexual males, no history of IV drug use
    • Lymphopaenia, evidence of cellular immune deficiency
    • Blood product related?
264
Q

What type of bacteria are clostridium perfringens?

A

Anaerobic, spore forming gram +ve bacilli

265
Q

List the symptoms of staphylococcus aureus GI infection

A
  • Profuse vomiting and abdominal cramps
  • No fever and no diarrhoea
266
Q

Describe methods of laboratory diagnosis of viral infections

A
  • Electron microscopy - can identify family but not specific virus
  • Tissue culture - analyse cytopathic effect of virus, takes 5 days-3 weeks for results
  • Haemadsorption - flood plate with blood, if flu virus has haemagglutinin which will attach to red blood cells (haemagglutinin not just present in flu so not specific)
  • Immunofluorescence
  • PCR - quick processing, can use a variety of samples
267
Q

Define vertebral discitis

A

Infection of a disc space and adjacent vertebral end plates

Can be very destructive with deformity, spinal instability risking cord compression, paraplegia and disability

Similar organisms to septic arthritis and osteomyelitis

268
Q

List the population groups at highest risk of HIV infection

A
  • Sub-Saharan Africa - esp. South Africa
  • Men who have male sexual partners
  • Children of people living with HIV
  • People who inject drugs
  • People who have transactional sex
269
Q

List the common viral causes of pharyngitis

A
  • Adenovirus
  • Rhinovirus
  • Parainfluenza virus
  • RSV
  • Coronavirus
  • Human metapneumovirus
  • Human bocavirus
270
Q

List the ENT HIV indicator conditions

A
  • Conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Lymphadenopathy of unknown cause
    • Chronic parotitis
    • Lymphoepithelial parotid cysts
271
Q

How is helicobacter pylori infection treated?

A

Combined treatment with a proton pump inhibitor and combinations of antibiotics such as clarithromycin and metronidazole eradicates carriage and facilitates ulcer healing

272
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of chronic granulomatous disease

A
  • Defect in gene coding for NADPH oxidase
    • Deficient production of oxygen radicals
    • Defective intracellular killing
  • Recurrent bacterial and fungal infections
    • Abscesses lung, lymph nodes, skin
  • Inflammatory responses with widespread granuloma formation
  • Pulmonary infection
    • Aspergillus spp.
    • Staph aureus
    • Nocardia spp.
273
Q

How did the HIV virus jump species?

A
  • ‘Bush meat’ theory - a hunter was bitten or cut while butchering an animal
  • How SIV transformed –> HIV in the human and became capable of replicating in humans not known
  • Other factors may have triggered an epidemic of transmission to occur
    • Social changes and urbanisation
    • Unsterile injections - vaccine, antibiotics, sleeping sickness
    • Genital ulcer diseases and sexual promiscuity
274
Q

Describe the structure of astrovirus

A

Single stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus

Family: Astroviridae

275
Q

How is HIV usually acquired in Scotland?

A
  • In Scotland HIV almost always acquired sexually - successful needle exchange programmes greatly limit the extent of injecting drug use transmission
  • In MSM most infections acquired in Scotland
  • Those infected heterosexually generally acquire HIV overseas or here through sexual contact here with someone form a high prevalence country
  • Particular problem with HIV in IVDU in Glasgow
    • Nearly 200 new cases of HIV in INDU in Glasgow since 2015
    • Were initially picked up as all had the same unusual resistance mutations
    • Chaotic patients - injecting drugs, homeless, on methadone
276
Q

What limits solid organ transplantation?

A
  • Availability of organs
  • Rejection
  • Infection
277
Q

Give an example of another pathogenic vibrio species

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a halophilic organism that can cause diarrhoeal disease associated with contaminated fish and shellfish in warm costal waters

278
Q

Describe the aetiology and prevalence of mycoplasma genitalium

A
  • Bacteria
  • 1-2% prevalence
279
Q

What drugs are available for the treatment of influenza?

A
  1. M2 inhibitors
  • Amantadine, Rimantadine
  • Block ion channels
  • All circulating viruses currently are resistant - aren’t used
  1. IMP dehydrogenase inhibitors
  • Ribavarin
  • Used in Hepatitis E
  1. RNA polymerase inhibitors
  • Favipiravir, Baloxavir
  • Favipiravir use in Ebola

IMP dehydrogenase inhibitors and RNA polymerase inhibitors broad spectrum antivirals - inhibit virus genetic expression. Not licensed for use in influenza in the UK.

  1. Neuraminidase inhibitors
  • Oseltamivir, Xanamivir, Peramivir, Laninamivir
  • Neuraminidase helps to allow release of new viral progeny to infect other cells - inhibit to stop spread of virus
280
Q

How is osteomyelitis treated?

A
  • Surgery to debulk infection back to healthy bone and manage dead space that remains
    • Have to compensate for tissue removed e.g. with muscle flaps
  • Stabilise infected fractures (external fixation often used) and to debride sinuses and close wounds
  • Antibiotic choice is determined by what grows from debrided bone
  • May require long term antibiotic treatment, 4-6 weeks IV
281
Q

Describe the growth and staining of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

A
  • Weakly gram positive
  • Acid-alcohol fast bacilli - acid/alcohol usually remove stain from bacteria, TB resists decolourisation
  • Slow growing organisms, with a generation time of 15-20 hours
  • White or buff coloured colonies appearing on solid LJ culture media within 6-8 weeks
  • Faster isolation can be achieved in a liquid MGIT culture
  • Molecular tests like gene Xpert can identify TB directly from samples - PCR, results in an hour and indicate resistance
282
Q

Describe the epidemiology of enterohaemorrhagic E. Coli infection

A

Outbreaks and sporadic cases worldwide (250 cases/year in Scotland)

283
Q

In general, how are bacterial GI infections managed?

A
  • Most mild bacterial GI infections resolve spontaneously
  • Maintenance hydration is crucial and can be life-saving
  • Role of antibiotics
    • Antibiotics reserved for severe/prolonged symptoms
    • Antibiotic therapy may prolong/exacerbate symptoms, promotes emergence of resistance and may actually be harmful e.g. STEC infection
284
Q

How long is the incubation period of enterotoxigenic E. Coli? How long does the infection last?

A

Incubation 1-7 days

Duration 2-6 days

285
Q

What is the prognosis of HIV positive patients in the era of HAART?

A
  • Has significantly improved HIV prognosis
    • Mortality rate for HIV positive same as HIV negative matched controls if diagnosed <50 years old with CD4 count >350 and viral load <100,000 and commence treatment at the right time
    • Poorer prognosis for IV drug users, individuals diagnosed with an AIDS defining illness or patients with poor HAART adherence
    • In some areas HIV positive young men have a higher life expectancy than their HIV negative counterparts - more contact with healthcare so more regular check-ups and monitoring of cholesterol, BP etc.
286
Q

Describe the prevalence of HIV in NHSGGC

A
  • 1868 with HIV in NHSGGC
  • 93% of diagnosed attending for monitoring
  • 97% attenders on treatment
  • Overall prevalence (aged 16-59) - 0.15%
    • Some areas meet requirements for whole population screening (0.2%)
  • Many people still being diagnosed late
    • 18.8% presented with CD4 below 200 in Scotland 2015/6
    • Most had multiple medical consultations
287
Q

List the longer term toxicities associated with ART

A

Body shape changes - lipoatrophy/lipodystrophy, weight gain

Renal - Tenofovir disoproxil

Hepatic

Lipid

Bone

288
Q

How long is the incubation period of enterohaemorrhagic E. coli? How long does the infection last?

A

Incubation 1-7 days

Duration 5-10 days

289
Q

What type of bacteria are bacillus cereus?

A

Aerobic, spore-forming gram +ve bacilli

290
Q

Describe the disease caused by enterovirus D68

A
  • Mild to severe respiratory illness
    • Can require ventilatory support
    • Acute flaccid myelitis
291
Q

List the common viral causes of croup

A
  • Parainfluenza virus
  • Human metapneumovirus
  • RSV
292
Q

What causes syphilis?

A
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Gram negative spirochete
  • Normally transmitted sexually
    • Can have vertical mother –> child transmission
293
Q

How is staphlyococcus aureus transmitted?

A

50% of S. aureus produce enterotoxins (types A-E)

Heat stable and acid-resistant protein toxins

Food contaminated by human carriers

Especially cooked meats, cakes and pastries

Bacteria multiply at room temperature and produce toxins

294
Q

What was the millenium development goal for child mortality?

A

Reduce child mortality - reduce the under-five mortality rate by 2/3 between 1990 and 2015

From 93 children of every 1,000 dying to 31 of every 1,000

295
Q

How does infection develop in prosthetic joints?

A

Prosthesis requires fewer bacteria to establish sepsis than does soft tissue

Avascular surface allow survival of bacterial as protects from circulating immunological defenses and most antibiotics

Cement can inhibit phagocytosis and lymphocyte/complement function

296
Q

In which environments do outbreaks of norovirus typically occur?

A

Restaurants

Cruise ships

Hospital wards

Hotels

297
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of helicobacter pylori infection

A

Pathogenesis is complex involving cytotoxin production, and a range of factors to promote adhesion and colonisation

298
Q

How is viral encephalitis treated?

A

IV acyclovir 2-3 weeks (HSV, VSV)

Treatment length dependent on CSF changes, how quickly HSV PCR resolves

299
Q

Describe the epidemiology of syphilis

A
  • Epidemic began in 2003
  • Significantly more common in MSM
300
Q

Describe the spores produced by clostridium difficile

A

Spores resistant to heat, drying, disinfection, alcohol

301
Q

List the species of shigella and the severity of the infections they cause

A

Shigella sonnei associated with milder infections

Shigella boydii and S. flexneri associated with more severe disease

Shigella dysenteriae associated with most severe disease

302
Q

Define arthroplasty

A

Putting in an artificial joint

303
Q

Describe the general principles of infection in solid organ transplantation

A
  • Potential aetiology is diverse
    • Community acquired bacterial and viral infections
    • Opportunistic infections
  • Often pulmonary focus - infections can progress rapidly
  • Inflammatory responses are impaired
    • Diminished symptoms
    • Muted clinical and radiological signs
  • Diagnosis is often difficult and takes too long
    • Radiology/histology
    • Serology
    • Molecular methods
304
Q

List the diarrhoeagenic groups of E. Coli

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

Entero-aggregative E. coli (EAEC)

Diffuse aggregative E. coli (DAEC)

305
Q

Give examples of ways of breaching the integrity of the skin and describe the effect this can have

A
  • Chemotherapy/irradiation
  • Abrasions
  • Insect bites
  • Burn
  • Surgical sites
  • Lines e.g. Hickman, venflon, arterial central
    • Most common cause of infection is staph aureus (from skin), disseminates to brain, lung, joints, heart
  • Ventilation e.g. ventilator associated pneumonia

Any breach in the integrity of the skin creates a portal of entry for organisms

306
Q

At what time of year do norovirus outbreaks commonly occur?

A

Outbreaks begin in November/December, highest prevalence in January/February

307
Q

List the important viruses that cause gastroenteritis

A
  • Calciviridae
    • Norovirus (Norwalk virus)
    • Sapovirus
  • Rotavirus
  • Adenovirus 40 & 41
  • Astrovirus
308
Q

What is the impact of concurrent illness on immunity?

A
  • Stress - reduced T cell function
  • Diabetes mellitus - reduced opsonisation, chemotaxis
309
Q

Describe the impact and management of diabetic foot infection

A
  • More complex than septic arthritis
  • Usually involves bone (osteomyelitis) but can also involve joints
  • Need to optimise diabetic control as well as treat infection so should involve a diabetologist
  • If swab a diabetic foot will grow many organisms - need to get deep samples to find causative organism
  • Can quickly go from being chronic and mild to acutely septic - changes with change in diabetic control
  • Staphylococcus aureus usually primary pathogen
310
Q

Describe the epidemiology of chlamydia

A
  • Most common bacterial STI in UK
  • Approx. 10% of 16-24 y/o infected
  • Easily transmittable (60-75% couple concordance)
  • Risk factors
    • <25 y/o
    • New sexual partner or >1 partner in 12/12
    • Inconsistent condom use
311
Q

How should negative cultures from a prosthetic joint with a suspected infection be interpreted? What can cause false negative results?

A
  • Negative cultures do not necessarily exclude infection (about 11% are culture negative)
    • Bacteria may have been present in very small numbers and require longer time to grow
    • Bacteria may have died in transit if there was delay reaching the lab or if it was a fastidious organism e.g. anaerobes
    • Antibiotics may have been given pre-op (rarely necessary before revision surgery and two days to 2 weeks antibiotic free post-op is ideal)
312
Q

Does norovirus infection lead to development of immunity?

A

Although antibodies are developed to norovirus, immunity only lasts 6-14 weeks - can keep being reinfected over and over again

313
Q

Describe the transmission of clostridium difficile

A
  • Spores and vegetative cells ubiquitous in environment
  • Carriage
    • 3-5% in adults in community
    • May rise to 30% in hospitalised patients
    • Asymptomatic carriage rates may be very high in infants
314
Q

List the ophthalmological HIV indicator conditions

A
  • AIDS defining conditions
    • Cytomegalovirus
  • Other conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Infective retinal diseases including herpes viruses and toxoplasma
    • Any unexplained retinopathy
315
Q

How can spread of shigella be controlled?

A

Only found in humans, so good standards of sanitation and personal hygiene are key measures

316
Q

How is HSV diagnosed?

A

Viral PCR swab

317
Q

How is a NAAT performed?

A
  • Women - self-taken vulvovaginal swab
  • Heterosexual men - urine sample
  • MSM - urine sample, throat swab and self-taken rectal swab
    • Can have isolated infections in throat/rectum (heterosexual will almost always have it in urine anyway - no point testing anywhere else)
318
Q

Describe the impact of strep pneumonia in children and how this has been controlled

A
  • Capsule - major virulence factor
  • Over 90 different capsular types have been characterised
  • Prior to PCV 80% of invasive infections in children were caused by 8-10 capsular types
    • Vaccine has been v successful at reducing pneumococcal disease
    • Some serotype replacement - ones other than those in vaccine causing disease
  • Some serotypes of the pneumococcus may be carried in the nasopharynx without symptoms, with disease occurring in a small proportion of infected individuals
  • Most frequent cause of bacteraemia (community acquired) and meningitis
  • Major cause of morbidity/mortality
  • Particularly problematic in under 2s, immunocompromised, asplenics
319
Q

List the types of immunodeficiency

A
  1. Primary
  • Inherited
  • Exposure in utero to environmental factors
  • Rare
  1. Secondary
  • Underlying disease state
  • Treatment for disease
  • Common
320
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of gonorrhoea in women?

A
  • Women (endocervix/urethra)
    • 50% asymptomatic
    • Change in discharge
    • Abdominal/pelvic pain
    • Dysuria
    • Altered bleeding rare
321
Q

List the clinical features of norovirus

A

Can be asymptomatic

Vomiting

Diarrhoea

Nausea

Abdominal cramps

Headache, muscle aches

Fever (minority)

Dehydration in young and elderly

Usually lasts 12-60 hours

322
Q

How can transmission of listeria monocytogenes infection be controlled?

A

Susceptible groups should avoid high risk foods

Observe use by dates

Wash raw fruit and vegetables and avoid cross contamination

323
Q

What are the potential complications of HSV?

A
  • CNS infection, balanitis, proctitis, urinary retention
  • If first episode in pregnancy - risk of neonatal infection (can be reduced with treatment)
324
Q

What is the effect of seasonal flu epidemics?

A
  • School and occupational absenteeism increases
  • A&E visits and % of respiratory A&E visits increase
  • Paediatric and adult pneumonia admissions increase
  • Pneumonia-influenza mortality increases
325
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Herpes Simplex Virus

A
  • Often prodrome with first presentation - viral symptoms e.g. fever, aches/pains
  • May have further episodes but tend to be less severe
326
Q

Define herd immunity - give an example

A
  • Vaccinated individuals not only less likely to get disease but also less likely to be a source of infection to others
  • Unvaccinated individuals (e.g. vaccine contraindicated) are therefore protected
  • Interrupts cycle of infection and reservoirs e.g. small pox
  • MMR - UK recommendation is for at least 95% of children to receive a first vaccination MMR vaccine before age 2 years and a booster before age 5 years to achieve herd immunity and prevent outbreaks
327
Q

How is vibrio cholerae infection treated?

A

Prompt oral or intravenous rehydration is lifesaving (mortality reduced to <1%)

Tetracycline antibiotics may shorten duration of shedding

328
Q

How are enteropathic E. coli tested for?

A

No differential media available

Test selection of colonies using polyvalent antisera for common EPEC ‘O’ types - not routinely done

329
Q

Explain the legal implications with regards to HIV disclosure and partner notification

A
  • Anyone at risk including current and part partners and children need to be informed of their risk of HIV and offered testing
    • Usually done with the help of a sexual health adviser and can be initiated by the index patient or anonymously by the sexual health adviser
    • This is a legal obligation
  • Transmission of HIV is significantly reduced by the use of condoms however there is still a theoretical risk, which is obviously increased if there is a condom break
    • Undetectable viral load = untransmissible
    • HIV positive individuals are legally obliged to inform their sexual partners of their diagnosis prior to any sexual activity, regardless of whether a condom is used
    • Failure to do this can result in prosecution especially in Scotland where there has been prosecutions for putting individuals at risk without actual transmission
  • It is also vital that all HIV positive patients be made aware post exposure prophylaxis availability for their partners in the event of a condom break
    • This is required to be initiated within 72 hours of the episode and involves taking HAART triple therapy (2 NRTI and 1 PI) for 1 month
330
Q

How do GI infections affec the developed/developing world?

A
  • Developed world
    • Large economic burden
    • Mainly associated with foodborne infection
    • Pathogens have important animal reservoirs
  • Developing world
    • High mortality
    • Particularly children <5
    • Mainly a problem of lack of clean water and poor sanitation
331
Q

How should a history be taken from a patient with a suspected GI infection?

A

Nature of diarrhoea

Timing (acute vs chronic, incubation period important)

Food history (public health - outbreak?)

Recent antibiotic usage - C diff?

Foreign travel

332
Q

List the risk factors for listerial meningitis

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Pregnancy
  • Consumption of contaminated food products
333
Q

How does the virulence of an organism affect the prosthetic joint infection that develops?

A
  • Virulence (ability to infect) of the organism will dictate presentation
  • Low virulence - low grade indolent infections which are tenacious e.g. coagulase negative staphylococci
    • Not usually pyrexical, CRP will be slightly raised
    • Joint loses mechanical function more quickly - needs replaced sooner
  • High virulence - fulminant infection or septic shock e.g. MSSA, MRSA, group A/B beta haemolytic streptococcus
  • Staphylococcus aureus infections do particularly badly
334
Q

Describe the features of the influenza A virus

A
  • Natural reservoir is aquatic birds
  • Influenza has two proteins on the surface - haemagglutinin and neuraminidase
    • Haemagglutinin - allows virus to bind and enter cells
    • Neuraminidase - allows new virus progenies to escape from cell
  • In birds - 16 different haemagglutinins, 9 different neuraminidases so many combinations
  • Influenza A in humans
    • H3N2 and H1N1 are main ones
    • Each year co-circulate, one more dominant that other
335
Q

How is HIV testing done?

A
  • 4th generation testing
    • Tests p25 antigen/HIV antibody
    • Window period 4 weeks - takes 4 weeks after exposure to be seen in test result
  • Confirmatory test (different assay)
  • Can do POC testing especially in outreach setting
  • All doctors, nurses and midwives should be able to obtain informed consent for an HIV test in the same way that they do for any other medical investigation
336
Q

Why are sexual health services important in HIV prevention?

A

Sexual health services are an opportunity for:

  • Testing
  • Education/advice
    • E.g. Undetectable = untransmittable campaign - reduce stigma
  • PEP
  • PrEP
337
Q

Describe how opportunistic infections affect immunocompromised patients

A
  • Don’t cause infections in a host with a competent immune system
  • Take advantage of compromised host
  • Coagulase negative staphylococci (usually found on skin and cause no problems - portal of entry to get in e.g. IV line allows infection to develop)
  • Aspergillus
    • Fungi, forms spores, ubiquitous in environment and usually don’t cause any problems
    • In immunocompromised people can cause severe infection with high mortality - pulmonary invasive aspergillus 70% mortality, CNS invasive aspergillus 99% mortality
338
Q

List the common viral causes of pneumonia

A
  • Influenza
  • RSV
  • Parainfluenza
  • Human metapneumovirus
  • Adenovirus
  • Rhinovirus
339
Q

Which GI infection causing pathogens are most commonly food-borne?

A

Salmonella, campylobacter, clostridium perfringens

340
Q

Describe the transmission of norovirus

A
  • Transmission through a variety of routes
    • Person to person (faecal-oral, aerolised e.g. by toilet flush, fomites)
    • Food borne
    • Water
  • Infectious dose v small (10-100 virions)
  • Can affect all ages
  • Very stable and may remain viable for long periods of time in the environment
  • 24-48 hour incubation period
    • 48hr symptom free before returning to work
  • Can shed virus for up to 3 weeks after infection
341
Q

How is vibrio cholerae transmitted?

A

Can live in fresh water

Only infects humans - asymptomatic human reservoir

Spreads via contaminated food or water

Direct person-to-person transmission uncommon

342
Q

What is an HIV viral load?

A
  • An HIV viral load is a measure of HIV RNA in the plasma
  • High in acute infection or late untreated disease with figures often >1,000,000 - usually accompanied by symptomatic disease
  • Measure of ‘infectiveness’ and also used to monitor response to antiretrovirals
    • Should be low or ‘undetectable’ if there is a good response
    • Undetectable differs with different assays (just the lower limit of the test) - <40 in Scotland
343
Q

How should CRP be used in treatment of prosthetic joint therapy?

A

Needs to be monitored over time to determine response to treatment

344
Q

Is there a vaccine available for HIV? Why?

A
  • Currently no licensed HIV vaccine but research is on-going
  • 2 approaches
    • An active vaccination approach in which a vaccine aims to induce an immune response against HIV
    • A passive vaccination approach in which preformed antibodies against HIV are administered
  • Live attenuated vaccines are highly successful against polio, rotavirus and measles, but has not been tested against HIV in humans
  • Reversion to live virus has been a theoretical safety concern that has prevented clinical development of a live attenuated HIV-1 vaccine
  • Difficult to develop because the virus mutates and the enveloped proteins are hidden
345
Q

How is immunity acquired?

A
  • Acquiring active immunity generally involves cellular responses, serum antibodies or a combination acting against one or more antigens on the infecting organism
  • Acquired by natural disease or vaccination - antibody mediated or cell mediated components
346
Q

How is MERS-CoV transmitted?

A

Carried in camels - urine, faeces, nasal secretions

Also risk to exposed healthcare workers/family

347
Q

What are the most common pathogens which cause septic arthritis?

A
  • MSSA or MRSA
    • MRSA more aggressive, produces toxins
  • Streptococci - S. pyogenes, group G strep, pneumococcus (commoner in children)
    • Children often carry strep pneumococcus in throats, growing and changing joints predispose to pathogen invasion
348
Q

What are the main causes of child mortality by region?

A

Africa - pneumonia, malaria, AIDS, meningitis, whooping cough

Europe - pneumonia, diarrhoea, other infections, more neonatal causes (e.g. congenital abnormalities)

More developed countries generally have lower child mortality, but a higher proportion of neonatal death

Therefore different interventions needed in different areas

349
Q

How is latent TB treated?

A
  • Isoniazid monotherapy for 6 months in adults/children in countries with high or low incidence
    • Rifampicin plus Isoniazid daily for 3 months offered as alternative as preventive treatment for children and adolescents aged <15 years in countries w/ high incidence
    • Rifapentine and Isoniazid weekly for 3 months may be alternative as preventive treatment for adults and children in countries w/ high incidence
    • Other alternatives in low incidence countries - 9 months Isoniazid, 3-month regimen of weekly Rifapentine plus Isoniazid, or 3-4 months of Isoniazid plus Rifampicin, or 3-4 months of Rifampicin alone
  • 4 month regimen of Rifampicin not inferior to 9-month regimen of Isoniazid
    • Patient more likely to comply if shorter course - often asymptomatic for large portion
350
Q

Define sepsis

A

Evidence of infection (including SIRS) plus organ dysfunction i.e. >2 of hypotension, confusion or tachypnoea (RR >22/minute)

351
Q

List the symptoms of salmonella infection

A
  • Watery diarrhoea
  • Vomiting common
  • Fever can occur, and is usually associated with more invasive disease
352
Q

List the methods of HIV prevention

A
  • Condoms
  • Treatment as prevention (TasP)
  • Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)
  • Post-exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)
  • Prevention of mother to child transmission (PMTCT)
  • Harm reduction measures e.g. needle exchange
  • All rely on information reaching people
353
Q

List the gastroenterological indicator conditions

A
  • AIDS defining conditions
    • Persistent cryptosporidiosis
  • Other conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Oral candidiasis
    • Oral hairy leucopaenia
    • Chronic diarrhoea of unknown cause
    • Weight loss of unknown cause
    • Salmonella, shigella or campylobacter
    • Hepatitis B infection
    • Hepatitis C infection
354
Q

Which pathogens most commonly cause meningitis in:

a) Neonates
b) 1-3 months old
c) 3 month-5 year olds
d) >6 y/o

A

a) Neonate

  • Group B streptococcus
  • E coli
  • Haemophilus influenzae type B
  • Meningococcus
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Listeria

b) 1-3 months

  • Meningococcus
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Haemophilus influenza B
  • Listeria

c) 3 months - 5 years

  • Meningococcus
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Haemophilus influenza B (rare)

d) >6 years

  • Meningococcus
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
355
Q

Describe the prevalence and presentation of neisseria meningitidis

A

Between 5-11% of adults and up to 25% of adolescents carry the bacteria without any signs or symptoms of the disease

Meningococcal infection most commonly presents as either meningitis or septicaemia, or a combination of both

356
Q

How are E. Coli infections treated?

A
  • Adequate rehydration
  • Antibiotics not indicated, and in the case of EHEC may increase risk of HUS
  • Anti-motility agents also increase HUS risk
357
Q

What is the most well known type of enterohaemorrhagic E. Coli?

A

More than 100 serotypes

Best known is E. Coli 0157:H7 - non-sorbitol fermenter

358
Q

List the risk factors for TB

A

High risk:

  • AIDS (not on anti-HIV therapy)
  • HIV (not on anti-HIV therapy)
  • Transplantation (related to immunosuppressive therapy)
  • Silicosis
  • Chronic renal failure requiring dialysis
  • Recent TB infection (<2 years)
  • Abnormal chest x-ray (upper lobe fibronodular disease typical of healed TB infection)
  • TNF-α inhibitors

Medium Risk

  • Treatment with steroids
  • Diabetes mellitus (all types)
  • Young age when infected (0-4 years)

Slightly increased risk

  • Underweight (<90% ideal body weight; BMI <20)
  • Cigarette smoker (1 pack/day)
  • Abnormal chest x-ray

Low risk

  • Infected person, normal chest x-ray, no known risk factor
359
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of enterotoxigenic E. Coli infection

A
  • Diarrhoea due to action of 1 or 2 plasmid encoded toxins
    • Heat labile (LT) - structural and functional analogue of cholera toxin
    • Heat stable (ST) - produced in addition to or instead of LT. Similar mode of action
360
Q

Describe the outbreak of MERS-CoV

A

2012 - severe respiratory illness caused by a novel coronavirus in a patient transferred to the UK from the Middle East

As of September 2019 - 27 countries have reported MERS-CoV infections

Estimated 34.5% mortality rate

361
Q

Who is tested for HIV?

A
  • Universal testing antenatally/GUM /drug addictions
  • Universal testing where the population prevalence is >2/1000
  • Essential to test if the symptoms could be HIV
    • Primary HIV
    • HIV indicator conditions
  • People in higher risk groups (don’t let absence of a ‘risk group’ put you off)
362
Q

Describe the natural history of HIV infection

A

Viral Load

  • Initial peak - seroconversion
  • Reaches plateau (different in each person)
  • If untreated gradually increases, more susceptible to opportunistic infections

CD4 Count

  • Initial dip - seroconversion
  • Small recovery
  • If untreated gradually declines, more susceptible to opportunistic infections
  • Each immune system varies - some can maintain their CD4 for longer that others
363
Q

What pre-test discussion is required prior to a HIV test?

A
  • Used to require counselling - giving diagnosis with no treatment available (life expectancy of months –> few years) - now there is successful treatment so a straightforward discussion about the test is all that is required
  • Main points to cover from the BHIVA testing guidelines are:
    • Why testing is indicated i.e. due to clinical presentation or symptoms
    • Benefits to testing i.e. if positive the success of HIV therapy, if negative the ability to concentrate on other investigations/diagnoses
    • How/when result will be available - takes 45 mins in the lab, can receive the result in a few hours if required (probably indicated in this case)
    • Although best to ask sexual history in view of other STIs and transmission assessment, shouldn’t be barrier to HIV testing
    • Insurance companies do not require to be informed of a negative test
364
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis? Describe their appearance.

A

Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus) - gram negative diplococci

Streptococcus pneumoniae - gram positive diplococci

Listeria monocytogenes - gram positive rods

Streptococci spp. - chains of gram positive cocci

365
Q

How is enterovirus D68 transmitted?

A

Spreads through close contact w/ infected person - oral secretions, stool, respiratory droplets

366
Q

How is helicobater pylori infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis by detection of faecal antigen or urea ‘breath test’, serum antibody tests mainly of use in epidemiological surveys of past/current infection

367
Q

What clinical signs may be seen on examination in a patient with a GI infection?

A

Febrile

Shock

Systemically unwell

Wasting

Neurological signs (C botulinism, campylobacter)

368
Q

Which groups are more susceptible to norovirus infection?

A

Reports have shown a link between the expression of human histo-blood group antigens (HGBAs) and the susceptibility to norovirus infection - some blood groups more susceptible (type O most at risk)

369
Q

What outcomes are seen in HSV encephalitis?

A

Mortality 14%

Neuro sequelae 22% - loss of speech, memory cognitive function etc.

370
Q

What are the benefits of molecular testing for viral infections?

A
  • Improves the diagnosis of previously under diagnosed infections
  • Rapid detection
    • Reduces unnecessary antibiotic treatment
    • Isolation or cohort groups according to result
  • Can be developed to detect now pathogens
  • Better understanding of respiratory illness
    • Informs public health
  • New treatments
371
Q

Describe secondary prevention of meningococcal infection

A
  • Meningococcal infection spreads - chemoprophylaxis used (ciprofloxacin or rifampicin)
  • Meningococcal sepsis/meningitis has been caught from someone in contact with the patient, prophylaxis needed to prevent them from infecting others (not to stop them becoming ill themselves)
  • Controls outbreaks of meningococcal disease
372
Q

What are the risk factors for complicated influenza?

A
  • Neurological
  • Hepatic
  • Renal
  • Pulmonary
  • Chronic cardiac
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Severe immunosuppression
  • Age >65 years
  • Children <6 months
  • Pregnancy (including up to 2 weeks post partum)
  • Morbid obesity (BMI >40)
373
Q

Describe the current UK immunisation schedule

A
  • 2 months
    • Dta/IPV/HiB/HepB
    • Pneumococcal vaccine
    • Rotavirus vaccine
    • Men B vaccine
  • 3 months
    • Dta/IPV/HiB/HepB (2nd dose)
    • Rotavirus vaccine (2nd dose)
  • 4 months
    • Dta/IPV/HiB/HepB (3rd dose)
    • Pneumococcal vaccine (2nd dose)
    • Men B vaccine (2nd dose)
  • 12-13 months
    • MMR vaccine
    • HiB/Men C booster vaccine
    • Pneumococcal vaccine (3rd dose)
    • Men B vaccine (3rd dose)
  • 2-8 years
    • Children’s annual flu vaccine
  • 3 years and 4 months
    • DTaP/IPV
    • MMR vaccine (2nd dose)
  • 12-13 years (girls)
    • HPV vaccine
  • 13-18 years
    • Td/IPV
    • Men ACWY vaccine

Rotavirus, MMR and intranasal influenza vaccine are live attenuated

374
Q

Describe the rates of under 5 mortality globally

A

8.8 million deaths in 2008 (10.6 million in 2000) despite increasing population

68% (6 million) due to infectious disease

375
Q

How can salmonella transmission be reduced?

A

Immunisation of poultry flocks - introduction in the UK led to a dramatic reduction in S. Enteritidis in the UK

376
Q

Describe the clinical features of emetic bacillus cereus infection

A

Incubation 30 minutes - 6 hours

Duration 12-24 hours

Profuse vomiting with abdominal cramps and watery diarrhoea

No fever

377
Q

How does local spread cause prosthetic joint infections?

A
  • Mostly organisms from skin surface
  • Direct communication between skin surface and prosthesis while fascial planes heal - path for organisms to enter
  • Usually manifests in immediate post-op period
    • Acute <4 weeks
    • Delayed/late >4 weeks (up to 50% PJIs present two or more years after surgery)
378
Q

Does immunity against rotavirus develop after infection?

A
  • Antibodies against VP7 and VP4 and secretory IgA important - develop some immunity
  • 1st infection usually severe
    • 1st infection doesn’t lead to permanent immunity
    • Subsequent infections less severe
  • Re-infection can occur at any age
  • By age 3, 90% of children have serum antibodies to one or more types
  • Young children may suffer up to 5 re-infections by age 2 years
379
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms seen in meningitis

A
  • 95% will have 2 of - headache, neck stiffness, reduced GCS or fever (cardinal features)
    • Neck stiffness/rigidity only 50% - not a specific enough feature to rule out meningitis if not present
    • Pseudo-stiffness seen with v enlarged lymph nodes
  • Confusion indicative of brain involvement - cerebritis/encephalitis
  • Rash - purpuric +/or petechial but macular early on
    • Meningococcal meningitis causes rash
380
Q

Describe the immune system of a profoundly premature baby

A
  • 26 week old baby - all aspects of immune system deficient
    • Small blood volume
    • No maternal immunoglobulins
    • Impaired/immature T cell function
    • Immature/frail mucous membranes
  • Will need lines, ventilated (no surfactant in lungs so difficult), in hospital intensive care - open to infections
  • Normally initially sterile baby gets microbial flora from contact with others (family etc.), in intensive care will be colonised by contact w/ nurses/doctors - likely to carry more resistant organisms
381
Q

How is intra-cerebral toxoplasmosis treated?

A

Sulphadiazine + pyrimethamine

Restore immune function

382
Q

How is cryptococcal meningitis diagnosed?

A

CSF - India ink, cryptococcal antigen (also blood), culture

383
Q

What effect does cryptococcal meningitis have?

A

Space occupying lesion or meningo-encephalitis (sub-acute)

Raised ICP (shunt)

384
Q

Define viral gastroenteritis

A

Viral Gastroenteritis = Inflammation of the stomach and intestines caused by virus(es) and characterised by diarrhoea and vomiting

385
Q

How are GI infections diagnosed using laboratory techniques?

A
  • So many organisms in normal flora per gram of faeces - like looking for a needle in a haystack
  • Need to use various approaches
    • Enrichment broth
      • Contains nutrients that promote preferential growth of the pathogen
    • Selective media
      • Suppress growth of background flora while allowing growth of the pathogen
    • Differential media
      • Distinguishes mixed microorganism on the same plate, uses biochemical characteristics of microorganisms growing in presence of specific nutrients combined with an indicator that changes colour
      • Best known examples are Salmonella and Shigella species which are non-lactose fermenters
386
Q

What are influenza pandemics?

A
  • Influenza pandemics are worldwide epidemics of a newly emerged strain of influenza
  • Few (if any) people have any immunity to the new virus
  • This allows the new virus to spread widely easily and to cause more serious illness
387
Q

Describe the structure of the causative organism of TB

A

= Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

  • Complex lipid laden structures containing mycolic acids
  • Cell wall composed of inner cytoplasmic membrane with proteins, phosphatidylinositol mannosides and lipoarabinomannan anchored
  • Mannose-capped LAM is a major immune stimulator during infection
  • Peptidoglycan layer above, arabinogalactans attached
  • Terminal D-arabinose residue is esterified to mycolic acids with glycolipid surface proteins
  • Lipids, glycolipid and peptidoglycolipids make up 60% of the total cell wall weight
  • Proteins interspersed throughout the cell wall and form antigens which may be used to measure previous exposure to M. tuberculosis e.g. tuberculin
388
Q

Define meningitis

A
  • Inflammation of the meninges +/- cerebrum (meningo-encephalitis)
    • Inflammatory CSF
  • Acute - bacterial or viral
  • Sub-acute - bacterial (classically TB, or listeria)
389
Q

How is phthisis pubis transmitted?

A

Close bodily contact - often between sexual partners

390
Q

Describe the clinical features of clostridium perfringens infection

A

Incubation 6-24 hours

Duration 12-24 hours

Watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps

No fever and no vomiting

391
Q

Describe the use of PrEP

A

PrEP - Pre exposure prophylaxis

  • Available from sexual health - only on NHS in Scotland
  • For people at higher risk of HIV through sexual transmission - e.g. partner with higher than undetectable VL
  • Cheap intervention
  • Also discuss condom use
  • Long-term - caution renal/bone complications
392
Q

Define enterocolitis

A

Enterocolitis = inflammation involving mucosa of both small and large intestine

393
Q

How is viral meningitis treated?

A
  • Supportive treatment
    • Fluids
    • Paracetamol
    • Rest
  • Consider acyclovir (antiviral) only if immunocompromised - no benefit in others
394
Q

Describe the pathogenesis and symptoms of scabies

A
  • Itch, especially at night
    • Caused by mite excrement which triggers hypersensitivity reaction
  • Burrows
    • Classically in web spaces, wrist, elbows, nipples
395
Q

How can the nutritional status of a child be determined? What is the effect of malnutrition on child mortality?

A
  • Weight for height - best guide for identifying acute malnutrition/wasting (months)
    • Weight for age best for chronic malnutrition/wasting
  • Malnutrition/wastage = more than 3 standard deviations from reference in weight for height
    • Associated with 10-fold increase in mortality (6x diarrhoea, 9x pneumonia)
  • Stunted growth - 4-fold increase in mortality
396
Q

How long is the incubation period of Salmonella? How long does the infection last?

A

12-72 hours

Duration 2-7 days

397
Q

How useful is swabbing a post-operative wound in diagnosing prosthetic joint infection?

A

Provides very little useful diagnostic infection about what is going on deep around the prosthesis

398
Q

List the oncological HIV indicator conditions

A
  • AIDS-defining conditions
    • Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • Other conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Anal cancer or anal intraepithelial dysplasia
    • Lung cancer
    • Seminoma
    • Head and neck cancer
    • Hodgkin’s lymphoma
    • Castleman’s disease
399
Q

What causes the clinical features of clostridium difficile infection?

A

Production of potent toxins - A and B

400
Q

What is the principal cause of morbidity/mortality in immunocompromised patients?

A

Infection

401
Q

Describe the epidemiology of helicobacter pylori infection

A

One of the most common bacterial infections in the world

70% prevalence in developing world, 30-40% in developed world

402
Q

List the common respiratory syndromes

A
  1. Common cold
  2. Pharyngitis
  3. Croup
  4. Acute bronchitis
  5. Bronchiolitis
  6. Pneumonia
403
Q

What are the consequences of malaria infection?

A

Consequences of malaria infection can be classified into uncomplicated malaria and severe malaria; the latter nearly always associated with P. falciparum infection. The clinical features of uncomplicated malaria are non-specific are common to each of the malaria species. These include fever, malaise, headache, myalgia, splenomegaly, anaemia and minor gastrointestinal symptoms.

Approximately 1-2% of uncomplicated falciparum infections progress to severe and life-threatening malaria characterised by the development of organ or tissue complications. Severe malaria has a mortality rate of between 15-50% depending on the setting. Prompt effective treatment when symptoms occur reduces the risk of progression to severe disease. Clinical features suggestive of severe disease in adults include:

  • Impaired consciousness or seizures
  • Hypoglycaemia (<2.2 mmol/l)
  • Haemoglobin <8 g/dl
  • Spontaneous bleeding or disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • Haemoglobinuria
  • Renal impairment
  • Acidosis
  • Pulmonary oedema / Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
  • Shock
  • Death
404
Q

Describe the clinical features of diarrhoeal bacillus cereus infection

A

Incubation 8-12 hours

Duration 12-24 hours

Watery diarrhoea with cramping abdominal pain, but no vomiting

No fever

405
Q

Define immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome

A

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome - immune system starts to recover but then responds to a previously acquired opportunistic infection with an overwhelming inflammatory response that makes the symptoms of the infection worse

406
Q

How is shigella infection transmitted?

A
  • Humans are only reservoir
  • Does not persist in the environment (unlike V. cholerae)
  • Person-to-person spread via faecal-oral route is most important
    • Associated with low infectious dose
  • Contaminated food and water less important
407
Q

How is viral encephalitis diagnosed?

A

Lymphocytic CSF (normal glucose), PCR - almost always positive for HSV

EEG - temporal lobe, diffuse white matter changes

MRI

408
Q

Describe the origin of the viruses which cause HIV

A
  • 2 distinct viruses - HIV-1 and HIV-2
    • HIV-1 main virus seen around the world
    • HIV-2 minority, esp. in the UK
  • HIV-1 related to viruses called Simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV) found in chimpanzees and gorillas in West Africa
  • HIV-2 is closely relates to SIV found in another primate (Sooty Mangabey)
  • HIV viruses thought to have crossed species from primates to humans in Africa in the late 19th/early 20th century
409
Q

How can the spread of staphylococcus aureus infection be prevented?

A
  • Hygienic food preparation to minimise contamination
  • Refrigerated storage
410
Q

At what time of year do salmonella outbreaks most commonly occur?

A

Seasonal peaks in summer and autumn

411
Q

How is shigella infection treated?

A

Usually self-limiting

Fluid replacement is usually sufficient

Some cases of S dysternteriae will require treatment of renal failure

412
Q

What are the consequences of mucosal barrier injury?

A
  1. Mucous membranes
  • High mitotic index - affected by chemotherapy and irradiation
  • GI lymphoid tissue responds with inflammatory response
  1. Mucositis
  2. Pain, dysphagia, xerostomia, ulceration
  • H2 antagonists, PPIs - reduced gastric acidity, more susceptible to enteric infection
  • Antibiotics, altered gut microbiome
  • Diarrhoea
  • Altered microbiome
  1. Impairment of GI function, alterations in permeability
  2. Altered nutritional status
413
Q

What is the aim of HIV treatment?

A
  • Start ASAP in all HIV+
    • Reduces risk of morbidity and mortality
    • Reduce risk of onwards transmission
      • If VL <200 for >6 months, no risk of onward transmission ‘undetectable’
  • Aim of treatment is VL suppression and CD4 recovery
414
Q

What determines the risk of infections following solid organ transplant?

A
  • Relationship between epidemiological exposure and net state of immunosuppression
    • <1 month post-SOT infections likely to be endogenous, donor derived (screened for TB, HIV, hepatitis etc.), associated w/ surgery
    • 1-6 months post-SOT infections likely to be community acquired, opportunistic
    • >6 months post-SOT 1/4 of infections opportunistic
415
Q

Describe the features of the influenza B virus

A
  • Mainly infects humans (+ sea mammals?)
  • Two lineages - Victoria and Yamagata
    • Two circulating types, circulate every year, one more predominant than the other
416
Q

How can listeria monocytogenes be identified in a clinical lab?

A

Selective culture media available for culture from suspect foods

417
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of chlamydia in heterosexual men?

A

Male urethra:

  • Majority asymptomatic
  • Discharge/dysuria/meatal discomfort
418
Q

Describe colonisation resistance

A
  • Normal microbiome causes colonisation resistance
  • E.g. gut is colonised by lots of organisms, prevents other organisms from taking over
  • Antibiotics change microbiome, organisms like C diff can take hold
419
Q

Define septic shock

A

Sepsis induced hypotension requiring inotropic support or hypotension that is unresponsive (within 1 hour) to adequate fluid resuscitation i.e. systolic BP <90mmHg or a reduction of >40mmHg from baseline

420
Q

Describe the immune system at birth - how does this develop? What effect does this have?

A
  • Immune system functionally immunodeficient at birth - move from sterile environment to pathogenic
    • Mother’s immune system needs to ignore foetal alloantigens (half of antigens being of paternal i.e. foreign origin) to prevent rejection of baby
    • ‘Immunosuppressive’ environment moving to dampened responsiveness to avoid inflammatory responses to benign/harmless antigens
    • The balance of Th1 (cell-medicate immunity) and Th2 (humoral immunity) cytokines is characterised by an initial prevalence of Th2 cytokines, followed by a progressive shift towards Th1 predominance in late gestation
  • Increased susceptibility to pathogens and reduced responses to vaccines in neonates
421
Q

Should GPs give pre-hospital antibiotic therapy in suspected meningitis?

A
  • Concerns
    • Microbe lysis pre-hospital if antibiotics administered - cytokine storm?
    • Exacerbation of sepsis and lack of supportive measures, neurological deterioration + increased mortality?
  • Advice is for GP to give antibiotics then get to hospital ASAP - reduces mortality
    • GP always carry antibiotics
422
Q

Describe the epidemiology of viral respiratory tract infections

A
  • Acute respiratory viruses most common cause of illness in otherwise healthy adults and children
  • Young children 5-9 respiratory infections per year
  • WHO state 4.5 million children <5 years age die respiratory infection
    • 20-30% caused by virus
423
Q

Why can CNS symptoms confuse diagnosis?

A

CNS ‘signs may complicate diagnosis of non-CNS infections

E.g. community acquired pneumonia, sepsis, pyelonephritis can present with acute confusion, headache, neck stiffness etc.

424
Q

Why can the nomenclature of salmonella be confusing?

A
  • Majority of human infection caused by Salmonella Enterica species
  • >2000 serotypes defined on basis of lipopolysaccharide ‘O’ antigens of the cell wall and flagellar protein ‘H’ antigens (Kauffman-White scheme)
  • Commonly referred to as if they are species in their own right e.g. Salmonella enterica serovar Dublin usually just called Salmonella Dublin
425
Q

Describe the epidemiology of listeria monocytogenes

A

Widespread among animals and the environment

Pregnant women, elderly and immunocompromised

Overall number of cases small, but mortality high

Outbreaks occur associated with contaminated ready to eat foods and produce

426
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of shigella infection

A
  • Organisms attach to and colonise mucosal epithelium of terminal ileum and colon
  • Systemic invasion is not a feature
  • S dysenteriae produces a potent protein exotoxin (Shiga toxin) which not only damages intestinal epithelium, but in some patients targets glomerular endothelium causing renal failure as part of haemolytic-uraemic syndrome (HUS)
427
Q

List the most common causes of infection in episodes of fever and neutropaenia

A
  1. Microbiologically defined infections
  • Gram +ve cocci
  • Gram -ve bacilli
  • Polymicrobial
  1. Unexplained fever
  • Infection
  • Malignancy
  • Chemotherapy
  • Transfusion
  • Antibiotics
  • Colony stimulating factors
  • Allergies
  1. Clinically defined infections

39% no cause found - if respond to antibiotics assumed to be infection

428
Q

How is HSV managed?

A
  • Advice
    • High prevalence
    • Possible future recurrence
    • Condoms reduce transmission
    • Don’t have unprotected sex w/ symptoms
  • Treatment
    • Acyclovir - cure acute episode but not virus
    • Can give long term if frequent recurrences
429
Q

Why is viral gastroenteritis an important health problem?

A
  • Affects 3-5 billion children each year
  • Accounts for 1.5-2.5 million deaths each year or 12% of all deaths of children under 5 years old
  • Most deaths in developing countries
  • In UK causes admission rates of 12-15 per 1000 per annum
  • Viruses cause 70% of acute gastroenteritis in children
430
Q

List the causes of CNS infections and the syndromes they are associated with

A
  • Bacterial
    • Syndrome - meningitis, meningo-encephalitis, abscess
    • Big 3 = meningococcus, pneumococcus, listeria
    • Also haemophilus influenzae, tuberculosis, lyme, syphillis, strep spp., anaerobes, nocardia
  • Viral
    • Syndrome - encephalitis, meningitis
    • More common than all other causes combined (in resource rich countries)
    • Most common is enterovirus, followed by HSV, VSV, HIV, mumps etc.
  • Fungal
    • Syndrome - meningo-encephalitis, mass lesion
    • Much rarer, important in some parts of the world and immunocompromised
    • Cryptococcosis most common
    • Also coccidiomycosis, aspergilloma
  • Protozoal
    • Syndrome - mass lesion, eosinophilic meningitis (in tropics)
    • Seen in immunocompromised e.g. HIV
    • Toxoplasmosis (multifocal brain lesions), Helminths (angiostrongylus, gnathostoma)
431
Q

Define severe nutritional deficiency

A

<75% ideal body weight or rapid weight loss + hypoalbuminaemia

432
Q

Describe definitive antibiotic therapy for bacterial meningitis

A
  • Meningococcal
    • IV ceftriaxone or benzyl penicillin
    • 5 days (3 days in some places)
  • Pneumococcal
    • IV ceftriaxone or benzyl penicillin
    • 10-14 days (increase duration if complications)
  • Listeria
    • IV amoxicillin (stop ceftriaxone)
    • 21 days (increase duration if complications)
433
Q

How is clostridium botulinum treated?

A

Urgent intensive supportive care due to difficulties breathing and swallowing

Antitoxin

434
Q

What complications are associated with gonorrhoea?

A
  • Epididymo-orchitis
    • Testicular pain/swelling/tenderness
  • Prostatitis
    • Pelvic pain, tender prostate
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
    • Change in discharge, fever, pelvic pain
    • Clinical diagnosis on manual examination
435
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of pharyngeal gonorrhoea?

A

Usually asymptomatic

436
Q

Describe the routes of transmission of GI infections

A
  • Faecal-oral - majority
    • Any means by which infectious organisms from human/animal faeces can gain access to GIT of another susceptible host
  • 3 F’s
    • Food
      • Contamination - farm to fork
      • Cross-contamination - distribution chain or domestic kitchen
    • Fluids
      • Water
      • Contamination juices etc.
    • Fingers
      • Importance of washing hands
        • After toileting
        • Before and/after preparing or consuming food and drinks
  • Person-to-person transmission
    • Infectious dose
    • Ability to contaminate and persist in the environment
437
Q

Describe the natural progression of TB infection

A
  1. M tuberculosis inhaled, infects lung tissue, causes lesion formation
  2. 90-95% of infected individuals - haematogenous spread, M. tuberculosis DNA detected in tissues by in situ PCR
  3. 5-10% of infected individuals - progression to cavitary TB
  4. Reactivation of TB in latent TB - for example after immunosuppression, HIV infection or smoking –> progression to cavitary TB
  5. Cavities open into the bronchi, allowing spread of M. tuberculosis through coughing

Conversion to primary TB usually happens in the first few years after exposure

438
Q

What is included in a sexual health screen?

A

Standard screen =

  • Chlamydia and gonorrhoea (NAAT)
  • Syphillis and HIV (blood test - big EDTA bottle)
439
Q

How can healthcare professionals reduce the stigma around HIV/AIDS?

A
  • Think about language
  • Don’t make assumptions
  • Inappropriate focus on how people have acquired virus - v personal and not relevant
  • Ensure you have correct information when you are speaking to patients, colleagues and friends
440
Q

How is transmission of HIV from mother to child prevented?

A
  • Risk has fallen from 20-25% to under 0.1%
  • Universal antenatal HIV screening
  • ARVs for mother during pregnancy
  • Minimise risk at delivery
  • PEP for baby
  • Avoid breast feeding - not enough evidence
441
Q

How does the immune system react to TB infection?

A
  • Cell mediated immunity crucial
    • Macrophages key controlling cell
      • TB prevents lysosome fusion in macrophage to allow survival
    • Sensitised T cell production of interferon gamma
    • Cytokines involved in this process all key
442
Q

List the types of flu vaccines which are given seasonally

A
  • Live attenuated quadrivalent vaccine
    • A/H1N1, A/H3N2, B/Victoria, B/Yamagata
  • Quadrivalent inactivated vaccine (if contraindicated to live vaccine e.g. age <2 or >50, immunocompromised, pregnant women)
    • A/H1N1, A/H3N2, B/Victoria, B/Yamagata
  • Adjuvanted trivalent inactivated vaccine - for over 65s
    • A/H1N1m A/H3N2 and 1 circulating flu B type (this year B/Victoria)
    • Adjuvant MF59
    • Allows vaccine to stay longer in bloodstream, exposed longer to immune system to increase effectiveness
443
Q

List the symptoms of influenza

A
  • Neurological
    • Fever
    • Headache
    • Confusion
  • Respiratory
    • Dry cough
    • Sore throat
    • Nasal congestion
  • Gastrointestinal
    • Nausea
    • Vomiting
    • Diarrhoea
  • Musculoskeletal
    • Myalgia
    • Fatigue

Very sudden onset

Systemic symptoms

Lasts 3-5 days (up to 7 days)

444
Q

List the most common pathogens in neutropaenic cancer patients

A
  • Gram positive aerobic bacteria
    • Coagulase negative staph
    • Staph aureus
    • Viridans strep
    • Other strep - S pyrogenes, S pneumoniae
    • Enterococcus
    • Bacillus spp.
    • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Gram negative aerobic bacteria - most serious
    • E coli
    • Klebsiella
    • Pseudomonas spp.
    • Others - proteus, enterobacter, serratia spp.
  • Anaerobic bacteria
    • Bacteroides spp.
    • Clostridium spp.
    • Fusobacterium spp.
  • Fungi
    • Candida spp.
    • Aspergillus spp.
    • Pneumocysitis jirovecii
  • Viruses
    • HSV
    • VZV
    • Respiratory viruses - influenza, RSV
445
Q

Give examples of GI pathogen which have shown evolution

A
  • E coli 055:H7 + shiga toxin encoding bacteriophage = shiga toxin positive E. coli 055:H7 –> Shiga toxin positive E. coli 0157:H7
  • Progenitor enteroaggregative EC strain + shiga toxin encoding bacteriophage = enteroaggregative shiga toxin positive EC strain
446
Q

List the gynaecological HIV indicator conditions

A
  • AIDS defining conditions
    • Cervical cancer
  • Other conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia
    • Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia Grade 2 or above
447
Q

What is the risk of infection and infection related mortality in:

a) Renal transplants
b) Heart transplants
c) Heart/lung transplants
d) Liver transplants

A

a) Renal transplants

  • 0.98 infections per patient
  • 0% infection related mortality
  • Most common site is urinary tract

b) Heart transplants

  • 1.36 infections per patient
  • 15% infection related mortality
  • Most common site is lung

c) Heart/lung transplants

  • 3.19 infections per patient
  • 45% infection related mortality
  • Most common site is lung

d) Liver transplants

  • 1.86 infections per patient
  • 23% infection related mortality
  • Most common site is abdominal/biliary tract
448
Q

What type of bacteria are vibrio cholerae?

A
  • Comma-shaped gram -ve bacilli
  • Serotypes defined on basis of ‘O’ antigens, important serotypes =
    • Serotype O1 - classical El Tor (less severe disease, more carriage, better persistence in environment)
    • Serotype O139
  • Sucrose fermenter - thiosulphate-bile sucrose selective/differential medium
449
Q

Describe the typical presentation of septic arthritis

A
  • Children and adults usually present with fever (60-80%)
  • Usually a single hot joint
    • Knee 50%
    • Hip 20%
  • Polyarticular involvement in 10-20% of patients - dissemination of organism
  • Loss of movement (expected in elderly - can make septic arthritis more difficult to diagnose)
  • Pain
450
Q

What is ‘intoxication’?

A
  • Intoxication = ‘food poisoning’
  • Bacterial pathogens grow in foods and produce toxins
  • Relatively short incubation time because of preformed toxin in food, usually few hours before symptomatic
  • Examples - bacillus cereus, staphylococcus aureus
451
Q

How can a history give clues to the aetiology of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Travel - resistance, non-endemic disease
    • Penicillin resistant pneumococcus more common in Far East, America, Southern Europe
  • Alcoholism - pneumococcal
  • IVDU - staph aureus (from skin)
  • Cochlear implants - pneumococcal
  • Pilgrimage, esp. from Hajj (Mecca) - meningococcal
  • Occupation e.g. farmers - strep suis (pigs)
  • Tuberculosis - intracerebral
452
Q

What is a CD4 count and the normal range?

A
  • CD4 count is a measure of the number of T helper cells expressing CD4 on their cell surface
  • CD4 is a glycoprotein expressed on the surface of T helper cells, as well as monocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells
  • It is involved in T cell activation and interacts with MHC II molecules on antigen presenting cells being involved in both cell mediate immunity and humoral immunity
  • Normal range 500-1000
453
Q

Define arthrodesis

A

Fusing two bones together

454
Q

Describe the causes of under 5 mortality globally

A
  • 40% in neonates, 60% in non-neonates
  • Main causes of mortality have always been diarrhoea (15%), respiratory tract infections (18%) and malaria (8%) in non-neonates
  • Significant causes of death in neonates - preterm birth complications (12%), birth asphyxia (9%) and congenital abnormalities (3%)
  • Malnutrition
    • Significant cause of mortality - 1/3 of child mortality cause
    • Never written on death certificate so underrepresented - don’t die of malnutrition die of infection acquired due to malnutrition
455
Q

How is immunological passed from mother to child? What benefits does this result in?

A
  • Immunoglobulin - IgG - predominantly in third trimester
    • Important to try to carry baby to term and prevent prematurity wherever possible
  • Breast feeding - 30-40 separate factors that offer protection to babies transferred in breast milk
    • Risk of child mortality increased 14-fold in high risk countries if not breast fed (pneumonia 15x, diarrhoea 10x)
    • Reduce significantly even by partial breast feeding
    • Encourage exclusive breast-feeding
456
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of clostridium perfringens infection

A

Organisms ingested and sporulate in large intestine with production of enterotoxin

457
Q

How can the prevention and treatment of infection in immunocompromised be strategised?

A
  • Understanding predisposing factors and aetiological agents –> prevention and treatment
  • Would be logical that a specific deficiency increases susceptibility to pathogens normally eradicated by that defence mechanism - not that straightforward
    • Basic patterns are recognisable but organisms are unpredictable
    • Isolated deficiencies are rare
    • Immune system has lots of different interdependent arms - malfunction of one part often influences another
    • Underlying disease and their treatment affect a range of mechanisms
  • Can often predict the temporal onset of various deficiencies - allows introduction of chemoprophylactic strategies
458
Q

How does splenic function contribute to the immune response?

A
  • Splenic macrophages eliminate non-opsonised microbes e.g. encapsulated bacteria
  • Site of primary immunoglobulin response
    • Specific opsonising antibody required for phagocytosis of encapsulated bacteria
    • Impairs activity of all phagocytic cells
459
Q

What colour are lactose fermenting/non-lactose fermenting colonies on MacConkey’s agar?

A

Lactose fermenting colonies (E. Coli) are pink whereas non-lactose fermenting ones (Shigella spp.) are colourless. Made more selective by addition of bile salts.

460
Q

How can infections of the central nervous system be classified?

A
  • Anatomically
  • Aetiologically
  • Primary vs secondary
461
Q

What is the treatment for trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole

462
Q

Explain the role of partner notification in HIV diagnosis

A
  • Carried out for all people following diagnosis of HIV
  • All previous partners/shared needles/children where relevant until last negative test
  • Up to 34% positive in recent study - important way of identifying people w/ HIV
  • This should be carried out by specialise HIV team
    • Potential to cause harm if not done appropriately
463
Q

Who discovered the virus which causes HIV infection?

A

Dr. Luc Montagnier discovered lymphadenopathy associated virus (LAV) 1983

Dr. Robert Gallo discovered human T-cell leukaemia virus III (HTLV-3) in 1984

1986 - causative virus agreed to be called Human Immunodeficiency Virus 1

464
Q

What measures should be used to control spread of GI infections?

A
  • Many organisms have an animal and/or environmental reservoir that cannot be eradicated
  • Control depends on ‘breaking the chain’ of infection
    • Adequate public health measures
      • Provision of safe, clean drinking water
      • Proper sewage disposal
    • Education in hygienic food preparation
      • Hand hygiene
      • Avoid cross contamination esp. raw and cooked foods
      • Cook foods properly
    • Pasteurisation of milk and dairy products
    • Sensible travel food practices
      • Wash it, peel it, cook it or forget it
465
Q

Where can GI infections manifest? What effects do they have in these locations?

A
  • Within GI tract
    • Toxin effects e.g. cholera
    • Inflammation due to microbial invasion e.g. shigellosis
  • Outwith GI
    • Systemic effect of toxins e.g. STEC
    • Invasive infection of GIT with wider dissemination e.g. metastatic salmonella infection - gallbladder, urinary tract, spine
466
Q

Describe the use of corticosteroids in bacterial meningitis treatment

A
  • Should give 10mg dexamethasone (with or prior to antibiotic) qid for 4/7 in proven bacterial meningitis - pneumococcal
  • Increase survival, reduce risk of unfavourable outcomes (e.g. disability, neurological damage)
  • If prompt medical care and good diagnostics (e.g. Europe) give corticosteroids to adults with suspected BM
  • Reduced benefit when presentation is delayed, untreated HIV is common and other life-threatening CNS infections are endemic (e.g. Resource poor nations)
467
Q

Which prognostic indicators give higher risk of adverse outcomes in bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Pneumococcus
    • Higher mortality, more adverse events, neurological damage
  • Reduced GCS
  • CNS signs
  • Older age (>60 years)
    • Older patients with meningococcal meningitis behave like pneumococcal disease
  • CN palsy (pneumococcal)
  • Bleeding (meningococcal)
468
Q

What are the symptoms of mycoplasma genitalium?

A

Some people get symptoms of urethritis/PID

469
Q

How can the transmission of clostridium perfringens be controlled?

A
  • Rapid chilling/freezing of bulk-cooked foods
  • Thorough re-heating before consumption
470
Q

Describe the anatomical classification of CNS infections

A
  • Meningitis
    • Inflammation of the meninges
    • Bacterial, viral
  • Encephalitis
    • Inflammation of the brain substance
    • Meningo-encephalitis - inflammation of the brain and meninges
    • Viral, bacterial
  • Mass lesion (abscess - e.g. sub-dural empyema, infection of collection/clot)
  • Myelitis
    • Inflammation of the spinal cord
471
Q

How long is the incubation period of staphylococcus aureus? How long does the infection last?

A

Incubation period 30 minutes - 6 hours

Duration 12-24 hours

472
Q

Which less common pathogens can cause septic arthritis?

A
  • H influenzae - commoner in children
    • Used to be more common, now children receive the haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) vaccine
  • Kingella
    • Gram -ve
    • Outbreaks can occur e.g. in nurseries, spread person-to-person - infection control measures should be taken
    • Predisposition to travel to joints
  • N meningitidis - disseminates, can present with joint infection
  • N gonorrhoeae - history will suggest gonorrhoea, usually with other symptoms
  • E coli, P aeruginosa
    • Become bacteraemic due to bowel event/post-bowel intervention e.g. appendectomy
    • Translocation of bacteria from gut
  • Salmonella species
    • Particularly in elderly patients
    • Can reside in gallbladder and disseminate to cause abscesses in other parts of body e.g. joints
473
Q

List the haematological HIV indicator symptoms

A
  • Conditions where HIV testing should be offered
    • Any unexplained blood dyscrasia including:
      • Thrombocytopaenia
      • Neutropaenia
      • Lymphoma
474
Q

How effective is the rotavirus vaccine?

A
  • Protects against gastroenteritis due to rotavirus serotypes G1P(8), G2P(4), G3P(8), G4P(8) and G9P(4), some efficacy against uncommon rotavirus genotypes G8P(4) and G12P(6)
  • Vaccine is over 85% effective at protecting against severe rotavirus gastroenteritis in the first two years of life
  • Caused reduction in laboratory reports of rotavirus and absence of the seasonal peak
  • Also reduction in rotavirus in unvaccinated children, which suggests indirect herd immunity due to the vaccine
475
Q

Describe the presentation of intra-cerebral tuberculosis

A
  • Sub-acute (weeks)
  • Often associated with TB in other sites
  • May be ‘unmasked’ during TB treatment
  • CN lesions usual - III, IV, VI, IX
    • Lower motor neuron palsy
476
Q

List immunocompromised patient groups

A

Cancer (chemotherapy/irradiation therapy), previous transplant (solid organ or stem cell), high dose corticosteroid therapy (e.g. prednisolone >15mg/day for >2 weeks), taking other immunosuppressive agents (e.g. anti-TNF agents, cyclophosphamide etc.) or primary immunodeficiency

477
Q

Describe the treatment and prevention of RSV infection

A
  • Ribivirin (oral, IV, aerosolised) has been used but benefit unclear
    • Side effects - flu-like illness, anaemia, sleep disorders
  • IV immunoglobulin case studies
  • Prophylactic monoclonal antibody is available - for children under age two with severe immunodeficiency (Palivizumab/Synagis)
    • Targets fusion (F) protein of virus
    • Half life of 18-21 days, given IM monthly
      • Given in flu season, starting in October
  • Can reduce hospitalisation of high risk infants by 45%
  • Expensive
478
Q

What percentage of prosthetic joint infections are caused by haematogenous spread?

A

20-40%

479
Q

How is campylobacter infection treated?

A

Fluid replacement sufficient in most cases

Clarithromycin/erythromycin for severe/persistent disease

Quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin) or aminoglycoside (e.g. gentamicin) for invasive disease

480
Q

What is P. Jiroveci (PCP)?

A
  • Opportunistic infection
  • Caused by P. Jiroveci, a fungus causing infection in immunocompromised individuals
    • Fungus with cyst, merozoite and trophozoite morphology
    • Extracellular pathogen causing interstitial plasma cell pneumonia with ‘foamy’ exudates in the alveoli
  • Causes progressive and disproportionate SOB, fever, dry cough with failure to respond to usual antibiotic regimens
  • Usually few signs on examination or CXR, although classically causes perihilar interstitial shadowing in moderate disease, can cause white out in severe disease
  • Diagnosed via induced sputum (50-90%), BAL (90-95%), biopsy (>95%), PCR of sample performed
  • Complications include respiratory failure, pneumothorax
  • First line treatment is cotrimoxazole 120mg/kg TDS and steroid therapy
481
Q

How prevalent is HSV?

A

75% antibody prevalence by age 25

482
Q

Describe the social dimensions of HIV/AIDS

A
  • High prevalence in many countries with low GDP
    • Provision of ARV and clinical monitoring
  • Often affects people from marginalised populations
    • At risk of further marginalisation
  • High rates of psychological ill health in people living with HIV
  • Stigma and isolation
483
Q

Is there a vaccine available for rotavirus?

A
  • 2013 - Rotarix was introduced into the childhood immunisation schedule
  • Live attenuated vaccine derived from a virus isolated from a 15-month-old child, attenuated by serial cell culture passage
    • Causes immunity but don’t get unwell
484
Q

How does neutropaenia develop?

A

Cytotoxic chemotherapy/therapeutic irradiation –> reduced proliferation of haemopoietic progenitor cells –> depletions of marrow reserves = neutropaenia

485
Q

Give examples of new emerging respiratory infections

A
  1. Severe acute respiratory syndrome-corona virus (SARS-CoV)
  2. Middle Eastern repiratory syndrome-corona virus (MERS-CoV)
  3. Enterovirus D68
486
Q

Describe the reduction of child mortality in Niger - how was this acheived?

A
  • Mortality rate annual decline of 5-1%
  • Wasting declined by about 50% with the largest decrease in children <2 years
  • Attributable % of lives saved 2009
    • Insecticide-treated bednets (25%)
    • Improvements in nutritional status (19%)
    • Vitamin A supplementation (9%)
    • Treatment of diarrhoea with oral rehydration salts and zinc and care-seeking for fever, malaria or childhood pneumonia (22%)
    • Vaccinations (11%)
487
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of trichomonas vaginalis?

A
  • Up to half of male and female cases asymptomatic
  • Females
    • Vaginal discharge - classic frothy yellow
    • Significant vulval itch
    • Dysuria
    • Offensive odour
    • ‘Strawberry cervix’ - in 2% (very rare)
  • Males
    • Usually asymptomatic
    • Urethritis
488
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of gonorrhoea in heterosexual men?

A
  • Male urethra
    • >90% symptomatic
    • Urethral discharge - purulent yellow/green
    • Dysuria
489
Q

Describe the antibiotic treatment used in prosthetic joint infections

A
  • In vitro sensitivities are only a guide
  • Antibiotic chosen needs to penetrate to bone (cephalosporins, tazocin, carbapenems, fusidic acid, doxycycline, rifampicin, linezolid, trimethoprim, ciprofloxacin, clindamycin)
  • Oral antibiotics unlikely to suppress infection if a prolonged course of IV therapy has not already been given and the CRP hasn’t begun to normalise or treating a virulent organism
  • Combination therapies which include rifampicin have greater success in chronic staphylococcal osteomyelitis (rifampicin and ciprofloxacin)
490
Q

Why should infections in children be approached with clinical caution?

A
  • Functionally immunocompromised
  • Wider range of pathogens
  • Infections disseminate more easily
  • Poor responses to vaccines
  • Unable to communicate/localise
  • Unable to tolerate oral meds
  • ? Correct dose of meds

Therefore - the younger the age, the more cautious the approach

491
Q

How does neutropaenia effect the risk of infection?

A
  • Most important risk factor for infection
    • Risk of infection increases with degree of neutropaenia, duration and rate of fall e.g. allograft - neutropaenic for 2 weeks
    • After 10-12 weeks 100% of neutropaenic patients will get an infection
492
Q

Why is adherence important in HIV treatment?

A

Taking HIV medicines every day and exactly as prescribed reduces the risk of drug resistance

493
Q

Describe the outbreak of enterovirus D68

A

6 small outbreaks from 2005-2011 in the Philippines, Japan, Netherlands and USA

494
Q

Which GI infection causing pathogens are most commonly water borne?

A

Vibrio cholerae

Also (to a lesser extent) - Escheria coli (ETEC), salmonella, campylobacter

495
Q

List the types of influenza virus

A

4 types of influenza virus - A, B, C, D

  • A + B - most important
  • C - cause disease in cattle only
  • D - mild, in children
    • So mild labs don’t usually test for
496
Q

How is chlamydia treated?

A

Some people self-clear infection - don’t need treatment

Doxycycline 100mg BD 7/7

No longer using azithromycin - driving drug resistance to other STIs

497
Q

Why do national statistics show a smaller number of cases of gastrointestinal infections than the actual number of cases?

A

People in the community with IID > People who go to their GP with IID and are asked to provide a sample > People who provide faeces sample requested by GP > Positive laboratory test results > Data appearing in national statistics

498
Q

Why are the current diagnostic techniques for GI infections lacking? What is the future of GI infection diagnosis?

A
  • Current
    • Even if a stool sample is sent diagnostic yield is <50%
    • Reliant on differential/selective media
      • Lack sensitivity
      • Not available for many organisms/pathotypes
    • Expensive, demanding and slow
  • Future
    • Rapid expansion of molecular diagnostics
      • Target ‘generic’ pathogen groups e.g. salmonella
      • Target pathogenicity genes e.g. shiga-like toxins
    • Rapidly screen for range of pathogens simultaneously
      • Bacteria
      • Viruses
      • Protozoa
    • Transform our ability to understand and control GI infections
    • Becoming available now
499
Q

Describe the influenza pandemics which have occurred in recent history

A
  • 1918 - H1N1
    • Influenza pandemic ‘Spanish flu’
    • Estimated number of deaths 25-50 million
  • 1957 - H2N2
    • H2N2 reassorted
  • 1968 - H3N2
  • 1977 - H1N1
    • Re-emerged
    • Only affected young people/children - older had already been exposed
  • 2009 - H1N1
    • Multiple reassortment event - avian, human, swine combination
500
Q

How does the chance of successful treatment of infection vary with each revision performed?

A

Each time a revision is performed the chances of success and cure of infection reduce dramatically due to anatomical distortion and infection becomes harder to suppress making amputation a possibility.

501
Q

What complications can arise as a result of influenza?

A
  • Neurological
    • Febrile convulsions
    • Reyes syndrome
    • Meningitis/encephalitis
    • Transverse myelitis
    • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • Cardiac
    • Pericarditis
    • Myocarditis
    • Exacerbation of cardiovascular disease
  • Respiratory
    • Otitis media
    • Croup
    • Sinusitis/bronchitis/pharyngitis
    • Pneumonia (viral or secondary bacterial)
      • Viral - patient gets progressively worse systemic symptoms (fever, hypoxia, cyanosis) high mortality rate
      • Bacterial - initial flu symptoms improve, then 4-14 days later develop systemic symptoms again (fever, cough, sputum, consolidation on X-ray)
502
Q

Describe the causative organisms in osteomyelitis

A

Similar to septic arthritis but also include anaerobes (oxygen deprived)

503
Q

Describe the aetiology and prevalence of anogenital warts

A
  • Most common STI
  • Caused by the human papillomavirus
  • Most common types causing warts = 6, 11
504
Q

Describe the epidemiology of gonorrhoea

A
  • 3233 episodes in Scotland in 2018
    • 2536 in 2017
    • Rising - not related to PrEP
  • 72% were in males
  • Groups of higher risk
    • MSM
    • Afro-Caribbean
    • Urban areas with deprivation
  • ‘Super-gonorrhoea’ = drug resistant
505
Q

List the symptoms of intra-cerebral toxoplasmosis

A

Headache, seizures, focal CNS signs

506
Q

Describe the side effects/drug interactions in TB treatment

A

Rifampicin – enzyme inducer (drug interactions e.g. OCP, Warfarin); turns bodily secretions orange; flu-like illness

Isoniazid – liver injury

Ethambutol – toxic optic neuropathy (test vision before treatment)

Pyrazinamide – live injury, raised lactate

507
Q

How is latent TB diagnosed?

A

Mantoux

IGRA

508
Q

Which activities allow HIV transmission?

A
  • Activities that allow HIV transmission
    • Unprotected anal or vaginal intercourse (oral sex not an efficient route of transmission but possible)
      • In the genitals and rectum, HIV may infect the mucous membranes directly or enter through cuts and sores which occur during intercourse (many of which would be unnoticed) - high risk practice
      • Mouth is an inhospitable environment for HIV (in semen, vaginal fluid or blood) meaning the risk of HIV transmission through the throat, gums and oral membranes is lower than through vaginal or anal membranes. There are documented cases of oral HIV transmission but low risk practice
    • Injecting drugs and sharing equipment
    • Mother-to-child transmission (before/during birth, or through breast milk)
    • Transmission in healthcare settings
    • Transmission via donated blood or blood clotting factors
  • HIV cannot be transmitted through day-to-day activities such as shaking hands, hugging or casual kissing
  • You cannot become infected from a toilet seat, drinking fountain, or sharing food or eating utensils with someone who is positive
  • Cannot get HIV from mosquitoes
509
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of chlamydia in women?

A

Most asymptomatic

Intermenstrual/post-coital bleeding

Change in discharge

Pelvic pain

510
Q

How is salmonella infection treated?

A
  • Fluid replacement is sufficient in most cases
  • Antibiotics reserved for severe infections and bacteraemia, typhoid
    • Beta-lactams, quinolones or aminoglycosides may be used
  • Antibiotics and antimotility agents prolong excretion of salmonellae in the faeces
511
Q

List the symptoms of enterohaemorrhagic E. Coli infection and the associated complications

A
  • Bloody diarrhoea with abdominal pain and vomiting
  • No associated fever
  • Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (5-10% of cases)
    • Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
    • Thrombocytopaenia
    • Acute renal failure
  • Commonest cause of acute renal failure in children in the UK
512
Q

Describe the clinical features of clostridium botulinum infection

A

Neuromuscular blockage results in flaccid paralysis and progressive muscle weakness

Involvement of muscles of chest-diaphragm causes respiratory failure

High mortality if untreated

513
Q

Describe the aetiology of trichomonas vaginalis

A
  • Protozoon
  • Found in vagina, urethra or para-urethral glands
514
Q

What is a Ghon complex?

A

Ghon complex = lesion in lung caused by TB, fibrosis + calcification of lung tissue

Retains viable bacteria, source of long-term infection which may reactivate and trigger secondary TB later in life

515
Q

Should antibiotics be started prophylactically in prosthetic joint infections?

A

No - limits potential to culture samples and identify causative agents (and therefore target future antibiotic therapy), unless patient has a life threating infection

516
Q

How is septic arthritis treated?

A
  • At least 2 weeks IV antibiotics
  • Often 3 weeks IV antibiotics followed by 3 weeks oral
    • Long term therapy needed due to lack of vascular supply to joint and potential for biofilm to build up on articular surfaces
  • Monitor response by CRP and clinical
  • Debate about length of treatment
    • Used to say 2-4 weeks IV with no IV to oral switch
    • Now changing to narrower spectrum, shorter treatments, higher doses and switch to oral
517
Q

Describe the epidemiology of trichomonas vaginalis

A

90% diagnoses in females, disproportionately affects black females

518
Q

Describe the normal GIT flora and its role

A
  • Lower GIT has very rich microbial flora (microbiome)
  • Each gram of faeces contains 100,000,000,000 microbes
  • 1kg in weight of bacteria in the gut - 99% anaerobes
  • Still many important facultative organisms particularly Enterobacteriales e.g. E. coli, Proteus spp
  • Protective and metabolic function
    • Dysbiosis = microbial imbalance e.g. in C. diff (usually due to prior antibiotic exposure which allows C. diff to multiply)
519
Q

What effect does neutropaenia have in terms of neutrophil function?

A

Cytotoxic drugs/irradiation/steroids –> reduced chemotaxis, phagocytic activity and intracellular killing

520
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of a maculopapular rash?

A
  • Acute HIV infection
  • Infectious monoculeosis
  • Secondary syphillis
  • Drug rash
  • Other viral infections e.g. CMV, influenza
521
Q

How does vertebral discitis usually present?

A

Present with fever, back pain - common symptoms, discitis can be missed

522
Q

What is analysed in the CSF collected from a lumbar puncture?

A
  • Cell count
  • Cell types
  • Protein
  • Glucose (compared with blood glucose)
  • PCR for bacterial, viral or tuberculosis
  • Fungal - cryptococcal antigen test or India ink
523
Q

How is enterohaemorrhagic E. Coli transmitted?

A

Large animal reservoir (esp. cattle and sheep)

Persistent in environment

Consumption of contaminated food, water and dairy products and direct environmental contact with animal faeces e.g. petting zoos

Secondary person-to-person spread important (associated with low infectious dose)

524
Q

What is the effect of humoral deficiency/hyposplenism?

A

Increased susceptibility to strep. Pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae type b or neisseria meningitidis infection

525
Q

Describe the prevalence of phthirus pubis

A

Incidence decreasing

526
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of salmonella infection

A
  • Diarrhoea due to invasion of epithelial cells in the distal small intestine, and subsequent inflammation
  • Bacteraemia can occur (extremes of age, immunocompromised)
  • Distant organs may become seeded to establish metastatic foci of infection e.g. osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, meningitis etc.
527
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of rectal gonorrhoea?

A
  • Usually asymptomatic
  • Anal discharge, pain or discomfort
528
Q

How is intra-cerebral tuberculosis diagnosed?

A

Sample widely - bronchoalveolar lavage, early morning urine

CSF may be normal

529
Q

How is clostridium botulinum diagnosed in a clinical lab?

A

Laboratory diagnosis based upon toxin detection

530
Q

Describe the features of RSV

A
  • Paramyxovirus
  • Incubation period 3-5 days
  • Can survive on surfaces for 4-7 hours
  • Most children infected by 2 years of age
    • Reinfections common but less severe
  • Increasing evidence of an association with development of asthma
  • Significant burden in immunocompromised, adults with chronic lung disease, elderly
531
Q

How does haematogenous spread cause prosthetic joint infections?

A
  • Presents later
  • Intact surrounding connective tissue often limits infection to bone/cement interface
  • Can be any organisms - metal has no immune function
    • Oral organisms
    • Pyrogenic skin sepsis
    • Genitourinary or gastrointestinal instrumentation
532
Q

How long is the incubation period of enteropathogenic E. Coli? How long does the infection last?

A

Incubation 1-2 days

Duration 1-several weeks

533
Q

How are seasonal flu epidemics controlled?

A

Seasonal Vaccination:

  • In the Northern Hemisphere the WHO announces the predicted flu virus strain for the next flu season in February
    • Predict based on the previous season and patterns in the Southern Hemisphere
  • From February - vaccine production, testing, packing and shipping and vaccination begins in October/November
534
Q

How is infection in solid organ transplantation treated?

A
  • Early diagnosis and prompt, aggressive treatment ensures good clinical outcomes
    • Empirical therapy used
      • Choice of therapy complex - toxicities/interactions (polypharmacy)
      • Antibiotic resistance is common
  • Focus on prevention - anti-bacterial/fungal/viral prophylaxis
  • Pre-emptive therapy - CMV, fungal infection
535
Q

How is gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A
  • NAAT testing
    • Male - urine
    • Female - self-taken vaginal swab
    • High sensitivity/specificity
  • Urethral sample microscopy (usually performed in males in sexual health service)
  • Culture plate
    • Drug resistance