Week 12 - Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the connections of the dural venous sinuses

A
  • The superior and inferior sagittal sinuses anastomose with the straight sinus at the confluence of the sinuses - The transverse sinus comes from the confluence and goes on to form the sigmoid sinuses - The sigmoid sinuses drain into the IJV as they leave the cranium via the jugular foramina
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2
Q

List the layers of the meninges

A
  1. Dura mater 2. Arachnoid mater 3. Pia mater
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3
Q

Describe the signs seen in upper and lower motor neurone lesions

A
  • Lower motor neurone lesion - damage to the peripheral nerve that supplies the muscle
    • Wasting
    • Weakness
    • Fasciculations
    • Loss of tone
  • Upper motor neurone lesion
    • Weakness
    • Increased tone - loss of inhibition of motor neurone for relaxation
    • Need stimulation of motor neurons contracting and inhibition of opposite motor neurone for relaxation
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4
Q

Describe the arrangement of the arteries which supply the brain

A

Terminal branches of the vertebral and internal carotid arteries form an anastomotic circle called the Circle of Willis, which gives off branches to supply the majority of the brain

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5
Q

Describe the position of the central sulcus

A

Separates the frontal and parietal lobes

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6
Q

Describe the structural features of sacral vertebrae

A

Fused, facets for articulations w/ pelvis at sacroiliac joint

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7
Q

What does a loss of stretch reflexes indicate?

A

Loss of reflexes - sign of loss of info to spinal cord to say there has been stretch (sensory) and/or signal back to muscles to tell them to contract (motor)

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8
Q

List the suggested mechanisms for LB formation

A
  • Oxidative stress
  • Mitochondrial failure
  • Excitotoxicity
  • Protein aggregation - alpha synuclein, ubiquitin
  • Interference with DNA transcription
  • Nitric oxide
  • Inflammation
  • Apoptosis
  • Trophin deficiency
  • Infection
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9
Q

What is the purpose of cognitive assessment?

A
  1. Does this patient have cognitive impairment?
  2. If so, what cognitive domains are involved?
  3. What is the likely pathological process?
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10
Q

Describe the epidemiology of stroke

A
  • Affects 150,000 people per year
  • Leading cause of disability, cognitive impairment, and death in the developed world
  • Accounts for 5% of NHS budget
    • Mostly hospital (esp. LOS) and post-stroke costs - long rehabilitation
    • Appropriate use of acute Rx reduces long-term cost
  • By 2030 3-4% of the UK population over the age of 18 is projected to have had a stroke
  • Between 2012 and 2030, total direct stroke-related medical costs are expected to more than double
  • Effective treatment is crucial to relieve this huge burden
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11
Q

List cortical signs associated with large vessel strokes

A
  • Right brain
    • Right gaze preference
    • Neglect
      • Loss of one side of sensorium
      • L sided neglect - no sensory input from L side
      • No specific test
      • Inattention is a milder form of neglect - attend to stimulus when applied unilaterally to bad/good side
        • Stimulus on each side separately - can detect both sides
        • Stimulus on both sides together - preference to undamaged side, can’t detect damaged side
  • Left brain
    • Left gaze preference
    • Aphasia - speech hemispheres, language difficulty
  • Patient looks towards side of damage
    • Stroke on R side, L visual field disrupted - look towards R side
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12
Q

How is the function of the trigeminal nerve tested clinically?

A
  • Sensory
    • Light touch in all 3 areas (forehead, cheek, jaw) w/ wisp of cotton wool
  • Motor
    • Clench teeth - palpate temporalis and massester muscles
    • Open mouth - deviation shows weakness of pterygoid muscles
    • Jaw jerk reflex
  • Corneal reflex - touch cornea with wisp of cotton wool while looking away, normal response is blinking (sensory innervation)
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13
Q

When is an LP done in suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • If scans do not confirm diagnosis but clinical signs of subarachnoid haemorrhage present
  • If signs of raised ICP LP contraindicated
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14
Q

Describe prophylactic therapy in migraines

A
  • Lifestyle advice, triggers
  • Identify and treat medication overuse
  • Prophylaxis if >4-5 disabling headaches per month
  • Use headache diaries
  • For each medication, determine efficacy at 3 months (30-50% reduction in headache days?)
  • If ineffective, wean medication and try another one
  • If effective, continue 6-12 months
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15
Q

Describe the arrangement of the vertebrae in the vertebral column

A

33 vertebrae separated by intravertebral discs

  • 7 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 (fused) sacral
  • 4 (fused) coccygeal
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16
Q

Describe the structural differences between normal veins and the dural venous sinuses

A

The dural venous sinuses lack smooth muscle and valves

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17
Q

How is primary progressive MS diagnosed in comparison to secondary progressive MS?

A
  • Primary progressive MS
    • At least 1 year of disease progression
    • MRI scan supports diagnosis of MS
    • Oligoclonal bands support diagnosis of MS
  • Secondary progressive MS
    • RRMS in past but now progressive disease without relapses or inflammation on scan
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18
Q

What imaging should be done in strokes?

A
  • CT scan
    • Non-contrast CTH remains the most widely used modality as it’s quick, cheap, available and shows and IVH and ICH - shows bleeding well, less sensitive for infarcts (shows bruising which develops with time)
    • CT with contrast may help identify aneurysms, AVMs or tumours buts is not at the moment required to determine whether or not the patient is a tPa candidate
  • MRI
    • Superior for showing underlying structural lesions
    • Better for acute changes
    • Contraindications

Multimodal Imaging:

  • Multimodal CT
    • Typically includes non-contrast CT, perfusion CT, and CTA
    • Two types of perfusion CT
      • Whole brain perfusion CT
      • Dynamic perfusion CT
  • Multimodal MRI
    • Standard MRI sequences (T1 weighted, T2 weighted, and proton density) are relatively insensitive to changes in cerebral ischaemia
    • Multimodal adds diffuse-weighted imaging (DWI) and PWI (perfusion-weighted imaging)
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19
Q

Describe the function of the olfactory nerve

A

Smell

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20
Q

List causes of length dependent axonal neuropathy

A
  • Diabetes
  • Alcohol
  • Nutritional - folate/B12/thiamine/B6 deficiency
  • Immune mediated - RA, lupus, vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa
  • Metabolic/endocrine - renal failure, hypothyroidism
  • Drugs - isoniazid, cisplatin, amiodarone, gold
  • Infectious - HIV, hepatitis B & C
  • Inherited - Charcot-Maria-Tooth, hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsy (HNPP)
  • Neoplastic - myeloma
  • Paraneoplastic
  • Critical illness
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21
Q

Describe the function of the facial nerve

A
  • Motor (derivatives of 2nd pharyngeal arch)
    • Muscles of facial expression
    • Posterior belly of digastric muscle
    • Stylohyoid muscle
  • Sensory
    • Area around concha
  • Special sensory
    • Taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue (chorda tympani)
  • Parasympathetic
    • Submandibular and sublingual salivary glands (chorda tympani)
    • Nasal, palatine and pharyngeal mucous glands
    • Lacrimal glands
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22
Q

Describe the presentatin of posterior circulation strokes

A

Brainstem Stroke Syndromes

  • Rarely presents with an isolated symptom - hard to identify origin
  • Usually a combination of cranial nerve abnormalities, and crossed motor/sensory findings such as
    • Double vision
    • Facial numbness and/or weakness
    • Slurred speech
    • Difficultly swallowing
    • Ataxia
    • Vertigo
    • Nausea and vomiting
    • Hoarseness
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23
Q

Describe the phases of a migraine

A
  • Prodrome (hours - days)
    • Yawning, polyuria, depression, irritability, food cravings, poor concentration, sensitivity to light and sound, poor sleep
  • Aura (5 - 60 minutes)
    • Visual, sensory, language, motor
    • Positive and negative elements
    • Fully reversible
  • Headache (4-72 hours)
    • Throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, photophonophia, worse with activity
  • Postdrome (24 - 48 hours)
    • Depression, euphoria, poor concentration, fatigue
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24
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A
  • Sustained seizures e.g. due to non-compliance to medications
  • Seizures have low risk of causing harm to brain, heart etc. until they persist
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25
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of a neuropathy

A
  • Depends on the type and distribution of affected fibres
  • Motor
    • Weakness/muscle atrophy
  • Sensory
    • Large (myelinated) fibres - sensory ataxia, loss of vibration sense +/- numbness and tingling
    • Small (thinly myelinated/unmyelinated) fibres - impaired pin prick, temperature, painful burning, numbness and tingling
  • Autonomic
    • Postural hypotension, erectile dysfunction, GI disturbance, abnormal sweating
  • Tendon reflexes may be reduced or absent
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26
Q

Describe the treatment of vestibular schwannomas

A

Surgery

  • Risks of damaging vestibulocochlear nerve and causing loss of hearing
  • Also risk damaging surrounding structures e.g. facial nerve
  • Use retrosigmoid approach (from behind sigmoid sinuses) to try to preserve hearing

Radiation

Observation - if small and slow growing

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27
Q

How is the function of the accessory nerve tested clinically?

A

Raised shoulders and turn cheek against resistance

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28
Q

List the nuclei of the basal ganglia

A
  1. Caudate nucleus
  2. Lentiform nucleus - globus pallidus + putamen
  3. Substantia nigra
  4. Subthalamic nucleus
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29
Q

Describe examination of a patient with headaches

A
  • Blood pressure, urine dipstick, pregnancy test, temperature, weight
  • GCS, mental status examination
  • Palpation - skull, neck, greater occipital nerves, TMJ, temporal arteries, nuchal rigidity
  • Eyes
    • Acuity, visual fields (blind spot), fundi, assessment for papilloedema and spontaneous venous pulsation, movements
    • Presence or absence of Horner’s 3rd, 6th nerve palsies
  • Autonomic features if during an attack
  • Cranial nerves, routine neurological examination
  • Skin exam (rashes), cervical lymphadenopathy, tympanic examination
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30
Q

List the symptoms/signs of cerebellar stroke

A
  • Ipsilateral ataxia
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31
Q

Where does the glossopharyngeal nerve exit the cranium?

A

Jugular foramen

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32
Q

What can be seen on examination of the optic disc during fundoscopy?

A
  • Normal optic disc - orange/pink colour, regular clear edges
  • Papilloedema
    • Edges of optic disc blurred, hyperaemia
    • Swelling of optic nerve related to increased ICP
  • Optic atrophy
    • Pale, bright optic disc
    • E.g. in optic neuritis (possible MS)
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33
Q

List factors that can affect consciousness

A
  • Trauma
  • Elevated ICP
  • Fever
  • Hypothermia
  • Seizure
  • Hypotension/severe hypertension
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypercapnia
  • Sepsis
  • Metabolic
  • Medications (e.g. sedatives)
  • Etc.
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34
Q

List the functions of the peripheral nervous system

A
  • Sensory input to CNS
  • Motor output to muscles
  • Innervation of viscera

Incoming sensory information enters spinal cord via posterior root

Motor infection exits spinal cord via anterior root

Collections of nerve cell bodies in PNS known as ganglia

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35
Q

Where does the vagus nerve exit the cranium?

A

Jugular foramen

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36
Q

Which anatomical landmark marks the confluence of the sinuses

A

Internal occipital protuberance

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37
Q

How can syncope be distinguished from seizures?

A
  • Trigger
    • Syncope - common
    • Seizure - rare (lights, hv)
  • Prodrome
    • Syncope - almost always
    • Seizure - common
  • Onset
    • Syncope - gradual (mins)
    • Seizure - usually sudden
  • Duration
    • Syncope - 1-30 secs
    • Seizure - 1-3 mins
  • Convulsive jerks
    • Syncope - common (brief)
    • Seizure - common (prolonged)
  • Incontinence
    • Syncope - uncommon
    • Seizure - common
  • Lateral TB
    • Syncope - very rare
    • Seizure - common
  • Colour
    • Syncope - very rare
    • Seizure - pale (CPS) red, blue
  • Post-ictal confusion
    • Syncope - rare
    • Seizure - common (in amb)
  • Recovery
    • Syncope - rapid
    • Seizure - slow (confused)
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38
Q

List the fibre types of the peripheral nervous system

A
  • Large fibres (myelinated)
    • Motor nerves
    • Proprioception, vibration and light touch
  • Thinly myelinated fibres
    • Light touch, pain and temperature
  • Small fibres (unmyelinated)
    • Light touch, pain and temperature
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39
Q

List the symptoms/signs of cerebellar haemorrhage

A
  • Vomiting (more common in ICH than SAH or ischaemic CVA)
    • Haemorrhages associated w/ worse headache - feel nauseated
  • Ataxia
  • Eye deviation toward the opposite side of the bleed
  • Small sluggish pupils
  • Altered mental status
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40
Q

Describe the function of Broca’s area and the affect of a lesion to Broca’s area

A
  • Broca’s - thoughts to motor speech
    • Non fluent, can comprehend
    • Left posterior inferior frontal gyrus (weak limbs) - next to limb strip so almost always have limb involvement
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41
Q

Describe induction therapy vs escalation therapy in MS treatment

A

Alemtuzumab is licenced as a first line therapy and some specialist centres use it as an ‘induction’ therapy for aggressive MS instead of starting with weaker treatments and ‘escalating’

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42
Q

Describe the path of the vertebral arteries

A
  1. Ascend the posterior aspect of the neck through the transverse foramen of the cervical vertebrae 2. Enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum 3. Give off branches 4. Converge to form the basilar artery which gives of branches to supply the pons and cerebellum 5. Basilar artery terminates by bifurcating into posterior cerebral arteries
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43
Q

Describe the general venous drainage of the brain

A

Veins empty into dural venous sinuses which eventually empty into the internal jugular veins

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44
Q

Describe the mechanism of action and use of MOA-B inhibitors in Parkinson’s disease

A
  • E.g. Selegiline, Rasagiline
  • Prevents dopamine breakdown by binding irreversibly to monoamine oxidase
  • Can be prescribed as monotherapy in early disease or as adjunct in later disease
  • Well tolerated
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45
Q

Describe the appearance of DATSCAN SPECT in Parkinson’s disease

A
  • Normal DATSCAN SPECT - uptake highest in middle slices of striatum (light up)
  • In PD - dopamine neurones are lost, less uptake (dark patches)
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46
Q

Describe the location of the dura mater

A

Outer layer of the meninges, lies directly under the bones of the skull and the vertebral column

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47
Q

What are the most common causes of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Trauma - most common cause
  • Spontaneous SAH most commonly due to aneurysm
    • Localised dilatation of artery
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48
Q

What is seen on clinical examination in an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Photophobia
  • Meningism
  • Subhylaoid haemorrhages
    • Between vitreous and retina, boat shaped
  • Monocular blindness - bleed in vitreous
  • Raised ICP - double visioin (CN VI/III affected - enlarging basilar tip)
  • Vitreous haemorrhages (Terson’s syndrome)
  • Speech and limb disturbance
  • Pulmonary oedema
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49
Q

What are oligoclonal bands? How are they used in the diagnosis of MS?

A
  • Immunoglobulin bands seen in blood and spinal fluid after protein electrophoresis
  • Presence of bands in CSF but not blood suggests immunoglobulin production in CNS
  • Supports diagnosis of MS but can be seen in other conditions
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50
Q

List the types of headaches

A
  • Primary
    • Migraine
    • Trigeminal autonomic cephalgias
  • Secondary
    • Thunderclap headaches
    • High pressure headaches
    • Low pressure headaches
    • The neuralgias
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51
Q

What investigations should be done in Parkinsonism?

A
  • Bloods
    • If tremor present - thyroid function tests, copper/caeruloplasmin
  • Structural imaging
    • CT/MRI brain normal in PD
    • Abnormal in vascular parkinsonism, Parkinson plus disorders
  • Functional imaging
    • Imaging of presynaptic dopaminergic function using DAT SPECT is abnormal in degenerative parkinsonism
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52
Q

Describe the anatomy and function of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A
  • Sensory
    • Nucleus location - medulla
    • Function - taste, proprioception for swallowing, blood pressure receptors
    • Structures innervated - posterior 1/3 of tongue, pharyngeal wall and carotid sinuses
  • Motor
    • Nucleus location - medulla
    • Function - swallow and gag reflex, lacrimation
    • Structures innervated - pharyngeal muscles, lacrimal glands
  • Parasympathetic
    • Function - saliva production
    • Structure innervated - parotid glands
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53
Q

What is the clinical significance of the sphenoid emissary vein

A

Root of spread of infection from the upper teeth to the cranial cavity

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54
Q

Describe the anatomy of visual processing

A
  • Dorsal stream
    • Where?
    • Position of object in space (dyspraxia)
    • Picking an object from a scene
  • Ventral stream
    • What?
    • Object recognition (visual agnosia)
    • Facial recognition (prosopagnosia)
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55
Q

List the major white matter bundles of the cerebrum

A

Internal capsule, corpus callosum

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56
Q

When does the foetal brain start functioning?

A
  • 3 weeks gestation - functioning brain, electrical activity
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57
Q

What is the function of the grey matter structures of the cerebrum?

A

Processing and cognition

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58
Q

Compare endovascular coiling to neurosurgical clipping

A
  • Endovascular coiling
    • Introduce platinum coil into aneurysm using microcatheter, helps blood clot
    • Seal off the aneurysm, reduce pressure on outer wall - prevent rupture
    • Better for reducing long term morbidity
  • Neurosurgical clipping
    • Requires craniectomy
    • Close the base of the aneurysm with a clip
  • Decision as to which technique is employed is made on the bases of aneurysm morphology, patient characteristics and local experience
    • Longer-term morbidity and mortality better in endovascular coiling
    • Open surgical clipping may be favoured in cases that also require clot evacuation or decompressive surgery
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59
Q

Describe the cognitive domains

A
  • Frontal lobe - executive function/language
  • Temporal lobe - memory, language
  • Parietal lobe - visuospatial, praxia
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60
Q

Describe the sections of the glasgow coma scale

A
  • 3 subscales
    • Eye
    • Verbal
    • Motor
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61
Q

What assessment should be done when faced with an unconscious patient?

A
  1. Is the environmental safe for me to enter?
  2. How much time do I have to think?
  • A-B-C-DEFG and what is the story behind it?
    3. If all is safe - where is the problem?
  • Assess GCS (response to environment, eyes, speech, movement)
  • Moving?
  • Neurological deficit?
  • Bloods - U&Es, ABGs, glucose, LFTs (? + tox screen)
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62
Q

Where does the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull?

A

Foramen ovale

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63
Q

Describe the parts of the globus pallidus

A

Internal and external segments

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64
Q

List the symptoms/signs of ACA stroke

A
  • Leg > arm weakness, grasp
  • Cognitive: muteness, perseveration, abulia
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65
Q

What is transverse myelitis?

A
  • Inflammation of the spinal cord
  • Weakness
  • Sensory loss
  • Incontinence can be only symptom
  • Many other causes than MS
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66
Q

Describe the structural features of lumbar vertebrae

A
  • Largest - big bodies for weight bearing
  • Short spinous body - point less inferiorly
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67
Q

How is the function of the vagus nerve tested clinically?

A
  • With the glossopharyngeal nerve
  • Speech - hoarseness/difficulty pronouncing sounds (dysphonia)
  • Swallowing (dysphagia)
  • Position of palate and uvula (deviation = lesion on opposite side to deviation)
  • Gag reflex - not usually done
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68
Q

What is the function of the white matter structures of the cerebrum?

A

Connect the grey matter areas

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69
Q

Describe the anatomical course of the facial nerve

A
  1. Arises in pons - large motor and small sensory root
  2. Roots travel through internal acoustic meatus in temporal bone
  3. Enter facial canal (Z-shaped), roots fuse to give facial nerve, forms geniculate ganglion and gives off the greater petrosal nerve, nerve to stapedius and chorda tympani
  4. Exits cranium via stylomastoid foramen
  5. Gives off branches - posterior auricular nerve, nerve to posterior belly of digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle
  6. Motor root continues to parotid gland, splits to form 5 terminal branches
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70
Q

Describe the structures which form the walls of the lateral ventricles

A
  • L and R ventricles separated medially by the septum pellucidum
  • Roof formed by the body of the corpus callosum
  • Floor formed by the rostrum of the corpus callosum
  • Lateral wall formed by the caudate nucleus
  • Anterior wall formed by the genu of the corpus callosum
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71
Q

What is a stretch reflex?

A

Signal - stretch of muscles, spinal cord sends signal to muscles to contract to correct

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72
Q
A
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73
Q

Where is the supracristal line?

A

At the level of the iliac crest, marks the location of L4

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74
Q

List the main peripheral nerves of the lower limbs

A
  • Anterior thigh – femoral nerve (quadricep)
    • Some hip flexion, mostly knee extension
    • Runs alongside femoral a/v
  • Sciatic nerve – hamstrings (posterior m in thigh)
    • Bottom of leg splits into 2 – tibial nerve posteriorly (calf), peroneal nerve round back of fibula (exposed to injury – muscles in front of shin, inability to bring foot up towards you = foot drop, common neuropathy, sensory problems over lateral shin and top of foot)
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75
Q

Describe the arterial supply of the dura mater

A
  1. Anterior meningeal artery - branch of ethmoidal a
  2. Middle meningeal artery - branch of maxillary a
  3. Posterior meningeal artery - branch of ascending pharyngeal a
  4. Accessory meningeal artery - branch of maxillary a
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76
Q

Describe the function of the ophthalmic nerve

A

Sensory innervation of the scalp, forehead and nose

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77
Q

How is the oculomotor nerve tested clinically?

A

With the trochlear and abducens nerves

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78
Q

What should be done if AEDs are ineffective in epilepsy management?

A
  • Minimise side effects
  • Minimise seizure severity
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79
Q

What is the recurrence risk after 1 seizure? After 2 seizures?

A
  • Recurrence risk after 1 seizure
    • Low risk
    • Medium risk
    • High risk
  • Recurrence risk after 2 seizures
    • 50-60%, start treatment
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80
Q

Describe the origins and path of spinal nerves

A
  • Each spinal cord segment gives rise to 2 spinal nerves - L and R
  • C1-7 pass through their intervertebral foramen above the level of the corresponding vertebral body
  • C8 onwards exit below the level of the vertebral body
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81
Q

What can cause olfactory nerve dysfunction?

A

Neurodegenerative disorder - loss of sense of smell e.g. Alzheimer’s

Traumatic brain injury - shear olfactory nerve from cribiform plate

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82
Q

How is myasthenia gravis managed?

A

Managed with pyridostigmine (anti-acetylcholine esterase) and immunosuppressive therapies (e.g. steroids and IV immunoglobulin

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83
Q

Describe the function of the meninges

A
  • Provide supportive framework for cerebral and cranial vasculature - Act with CSF to protect the CNS from mechanical damage
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84
Q

Describe the endosteal layer of the dura mater

A

Lines the inner surface of the cranial bones, only present around the brain (not in the vertebral column)

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85
Q

What is Uthoff’s phenomenon?

A

Symptoms are worse with exercise (heat) which is Uthoff’s phenomenon - seen in demyelination

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86
Q

What are the consequences of an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Acute cerebrovascular event
  • Devastating effects on CNS
  • Profound impact on several other organs
  • Course of disease may be prolonged
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87
Q

Which clinically isolated syndromes are associated with MS?

A
  • Single episode of neurological disability due to focal CNS inflammation
  • Can include optic neuritis and transverse myelitis
  • May be a first attack of MS
  • Can happen after infection and not be related to MS
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88
Q

What should be done following a first seizure?

A
  • Clinical diagnosis
  • Investigation
    • Same imaging as epilepsy
    • EEG only useful for prognosis of first seizure
  • Calculate recurrence risk
    • Abnormal scan/EEG, presence of risk factors - risk of recurrence 60%
    • Normal scan/EEG, no risk factors - risk of recurrence 20%
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89
Q

Describe the impact of migraines on society

A
  • Migraine is 3rd most common disease in the world
  • Migraine most disabling disorder worldwide in 15-49 y/o, 2nd overall
  • Affects 1 in 7 people (females > males)
  • £150 million per year by NHS
  • £3.4 billion lost per year in productivity
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90
Q

Describe the function of the vestibulocochlear nerve

A
  • Vestibular fibres - balance
  • Cochlear fibres - hearing
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91
Q

List the causes of Parkinsonism other than Parkinson’s disease

A
  • Degenerative
    • Dementia with Lewy bodies
    • Progressive supranuclear palsy
    • Multiple system atrophy
    • Corticobasal degeneration
  • Secondary
    • Drug-induced - chronic use of dopamine antagonists
    • Cerebrovascular disease
    • Toxins e.g. carbon monoxide, organophosphates, MPTP
    • Post-infectious
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92
Q

What is the impact of migraines on individuals?

A
  • 5 or more headache days per month - 37%
  • Need for bed rest - 53.7%
  • Attack related impairment - 92.8%
  • At least one day of activity restriction over 3 months - 35.1%
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93
Q

Describe the risk of hydrocephalus following a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Imbalance in CSF within the ventricular system
    • Obstruction due to clots, underdrainage due to inflammatory change
    • Increase in size of ventricles
    • Can complicate management of SAH
  • LP, EVD
  • Shunt
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94
Q

Describe the functions of the occipital lobe

A
  • Primary visual cortex
  • Visual association area - vision
  • Visual interpretation
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95
Q

List the major gyri of the cerebrum and their functional significance

A
  • Precentral gyrus - primary motor cortex
  • Postcentral gyrus - primary somatosensory cortex
  • Superior temporal gyrus - inferior to lateral sulcus, primary auditory cortex
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96
Q

What is the half life of L-Dopa?

A

90 minutes

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97
Q

List the branches given off by the vertebral arteries and describe their functions

A
  1. Meningeal branch - supplies falx cerebri
  2. Anterior and posterior spinal arteries - supplies spinal cord
  3. Posterior inferior cerebellar a - supplies cerebellum and pons
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98
Q

How is MS diagnosed?

A
  • Multiple Sclerosis is diagnosed when there is evidence of 2 or more episodes of demyelination disseminated in space and time
  • There is no definitive diagnostic test for MS
  • Clinical diagnosis is based on weight of evidence from history, examination and investigation
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99
Q

Describe the structural features of cervical vertebrae

A
  • C2-C6/7 spinous processes bifurcate
  • Transverse foramina transmit vertebral arteries to brain
  • C1/2 are unique (atlas/axis) - odontoid peg
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100
Q

What is visuo-spatial function? What suggests a defect in visuo-spatial function from a history?

A
  • Visual processing - where? What?
  • Accurately localise objects
  • From history
    • Inability to recognise faces or common objects or to find objects in direct view despite good acuity, inability to operate simple implements, or orient clothing to the body
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101
Q

What is a partial seizure?

A
  • Area of abnormality in otherwise normal brain
  • Symptoms related to the area of the brain of focal starting point
    • Positive motor phenomenon e.g. twitch, spasm
    • Negative motor phenomenon e.g. weakness
    • Positive sensory phenomenon e.g. burning, itching
    • Negative sensory phenomenon e.g. numbness
    • Positive visual phenomenon e.g. colours, shapes, memories
    • Negative visual phenomenon e.g. blind spots
  • Can spread across brain and lead to bilateral convulsive seizure
    • Partial/localised/focal epilepsy can cause secondarily generalised seizures
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102
Q

Where can lesions arise that cause cranial nerve abnormalities?

A
  • Communicating pathways to and from the cortex, cerebellum and other parts of brainstem
  • Nerve nucleus
  • Nerve
  • Neuromuscular junction disorders
  • Muscle
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103
Q

Describe the beginning and end of the spinal cord

A
  • Begins as continuation of medulla oblongata, ends at conus medullaris
  • Becomes cauda equina
  • Cord terminates at L3/4 in newborns, L1/2 in adults - vertebral column lengthens more than spinal cord during development
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104
Q

List the cranial nerves

A
  1. Olfactory nerve
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Oculomotor nerve
  4. Trochlear nerve
  5. Trigeminal nerve
  6. Abducens nerve
  7. Facial nerve
  8. Vestibulocochlear nerve
  9. Glossopharyngeal nerve
  10. Vagus nerve
  11. Accessory nerve
  12. Hypoglossal nerve
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105
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of AEDS which reduce post-synaptic activity

A
  • Perampanel blocks AMPA receptors
  • Felbamate has weak affinity for NMDA receptors
  • Topiramate binds both AMPA and kainate receptors
  • Benzodiazepines, barbiturates, felbamate and topiramate increased the GABA A receptor activity (reduced neuronal excitability)
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106
Q

List the main types of strokes

A
  • Ischaemic stroke
    • Clot occluding artery - 85%
  • Intracerebral haemorrhage
    • Bleeding into brain - 10%
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
    • Bleeding around brain - 5%
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107
Q

Where do the internal carotid arteries originate?

A

At the bifurcation of the L and R common carotid arteries, at the level of C4

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108
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the abducens nerve

A
  • Motor
  • Function - eyeball movement
  • Nucleus - pons
  • Structure innervated - lateral rectus muscles
    • Abducts eye in horizonal plane
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109
Q

Describe supportive therapy in stroke management

A
  • Glucose management
    • Infarction size and oedema increase with acute and chronic hyperglycaemia
    • Hyperglycaemia is an independent risk factor for haemorrhage when stroke is treated with tPA
  • Blood pressure management
    • In ICH, consider treatment if SBP over 150
    • Higher threshold in ischaemic stroke (about 180-200)
    • Labetalol or GTN used, but not much evidence
    • Senior advice
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110
Q

Compare L-Dopa and dopamine agonists

A

Dopamine agonists

  • Longer half-life than L-dopa
  • Associated with fewer motor complications than L-dopa
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111
Q

Describe the use of oral treatments in MS

A
  • Fingolimod
    • Daily tablet
    • Less effective than natalizumab or alemtuzumab
    • Risk of infections
    • May slow heart rate
  • Dimethyl Fumarate
    • Twice daily tablet
    • Less effective than fingolimod
    • Low white cell counts
    • Risk of infections
  • Cladribine
    • Old chemotherapy drug
    • Two short courses of tablets (8 days) over two years
    • Targets B-cells
    • May stop MS activity for many years
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112
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for strokes

A
  • Migraine
  • Seizure
  • Hypoglycaemic, or other metabolic/toxic states
  • Tumour or other space occupying lesion (onset typically more insidious)
  • Cerebral metastases (can present acutely, especially if there is a bleed into a metastasis)
  • Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
  • Inflammatory lesions such a demyelination (onset is not usually abrupt as in this case)
  • Peripheral neuropathy and entrapment neuropathy (there is clear cortical deficit in this man, so neuropathy is not the diagnosis)
  • Cardiovascular/syncope
  • Functional weakness
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113
Q

Describe the use of stem cell transplants in MS management

A
  • Autologous haemopoeitic stem cell transplant
  • Approved in UK for very aggressive RRMS that has been treated with stronger drugs but activity ongoing
  • Limited trial data
  • Will not repair disability
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114
Q

List the causes of intracerebral haemorrhage

A
  • Trauma
  • Non-traumatic
    • 36% - hypertension
    • 36% - aneurysm
    • 11% - AV malformation
    • 17% - other
      • Bleeding into tumour, hypocoagulable state, haemorrhagic infarction, iatrogenic
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115
Q

Describe the diagnostic criteria for cluster headaches

A
  • At least five attacks fulfilling criteria B-D
  • Severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15-180 minutes (when untreated)
  • Either or both of the following
    • At least one of the following symptoms or signs, ipsilateral to the headache
      • Conjunctival injection and/or lacrimation
      • Nasal congestion and/or rhinorrhoea
      • Eyelid oedema
      • Forehead and facial sweating
      • Forehead and facial flushing
      • Sensation of fullness in the ear
      • Miosis and/or ptosis
    • A sense of restlessness or agitation
  • Occurring with a frequency between once every other day and 8 per day
  • Not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 diagnosis
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116
Q

Describe the location of the internal capsule

A

Separates the caudate nucleus and thalamus from the putamen and globus pallidus (Lentiform nucleus)

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117
Q

List the features of length dependent axonal neuropathy

A
  • Diffuse involvement of peripheral nerves
  • Age >50 years
  • Length dependent - starts in toes/feet
  • Symmetrical
  • Slowly progressive
  • No significant sensory ataxia
  • Any weakness is distal and mild
  • Most common peripheral neuropathy
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118
Q

Describe the use of alemtuzumab in MS management

A
  • Two short courses over a year then further treatment if needed
  • Stops relapses in 40% of patients
  • High risk of secondary autoimmune problems (thyroid, ITP, good pastures)
  • May improve disability
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119
Q

List the drugs used for prophylaxis in migraines

A
  • Beta blockers e.g. Propranolol - start at 20mg bd, target 80mg bd NNT
  • Anti-emetics e.g. Topiramate - start at 15 or 25mg daily, target 50mg bd
  • Tricyclics e.g. Amitriptyline - start at 10mg, target 50mg
    • Helps w/ comorbidities e.g. depression, sleep problems
  • Candesartan - start at 4mg, target 16mg
  • Flunarazine - 10mg
  • Pizotifen - start at 1.5mg, target 3mg-4.5mg
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120
Q

List the side effects of dopamine agonists

A

Dopaminergic side effects +, somnolence, impulse control disorders (e.g. pathological gambling, hypersexuality) and nightmares

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121
Q

Where does the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull?

A

Superior orbital fissure

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122
Q

Describe the adverse effects of L-Dopa

A
  • Peripheral - nausea, vomiting, postural hypotension
  • Central - confusion, hallucinations
  • Longer term - approx. 50% of patients develop motor complications after 5 years L-dopa
    • Fluctuation in motor response
    • Dyskinesia - most commonly choreiform movements at peak dose
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123
Q

Does ACE diagnose dementia?

A
  • Overall score = 100
  • <88/100 excludes dementia
    • Sensitivity 83%, specificity 71%
  • >83/100 supports dementia
    • Sensitivity 82%, specificity 96%
  • Always consider not only score and pattern but any potential confounders
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124
Q

Why should regular opioid analgesia or combination analgesia (e.g. co-codamol) be avoided in migraines?

A

Regular opioid analgesia or combination analgesia (e.g. co-codamol) should be avoided in migraine due to potential for developing medication overuse headache (MOH) - common cause of chronic daily headache, stopping medication results in improvement in severity and frequency of headache

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125
Q

Describe the clinical significance of the lumbar cistern

A

Site for epidural injections and lumbar punctures

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126
Q

How is the corneal reflex tested? What does it show?

A
  • Lightly touch cornea with cotton wool
    • Afferent - V
    • Efferent VIII
  • Test of pontine function
    • Bilateral blinking = intact corneal response
    • Patients who use contact lenses can denervate cornea
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127
Q

What investigations should be done in a patient presenting with headaches?

A
  • Blood pressure
  • ECG
  • Urinalysis
  • Bloods e.g. CRP, ESR, FBC, U&Es, thyroid function
  • Ct brain/MRI brain
  • Lumbar puncture (opening pressure, blood products, other constituents)
  • CT angiogram/MR angiogram
  • CT venogram/MRI venogram
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128
Q

Describe the contents of the internal capsule

A
  • Contains ascending and descending axons, going to and from the cerebral cortex
  • Large part is cortiospinal tract - carries motor information from the primary motor cortex to lower motor neurons in the spinal cord
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129
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of migraines

A
  • Interaction between primary afferent nociceptive neurones/trigeminovascular system/brainstem/thalamus/hypothalamus/cortex i.e. brain disorder
  • Calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP)
  • NOT a primary vascular problem
  • Attacks probably due to dysfunction within sensory brainstem nuclei
  • Pain results from interactions between components of the trigeminovascular system
    • Pain-sensitive cranial blood vessels
    • Trigeminal nerve fibres that innervate them
    • The cranial parasympathetic outflow
  • Functional MRI studies have shown that the aura phase of migraine is associated with reduction blood flow in hemispheric regions contralateral to affected symptoms
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130
Q

Describe the position of the cerebellar falx

A

Partially divides the cerebellar hemispheres

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131
Q

Describe the preparations of dopamine agonists

A
  • Prescribed as monotherapy in early disease or in combination with L-dopa
  • Longer-acting oral, transdermal and subcutaneous preparations available
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132
Q

How can an upper and lower motor neuron lesion affecting the face be distinguished?

A

Upper motor neuron e.g. stroke shows forehead sparing due to bilateral innervation of the forehead

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133
Q

Describe the function of the vagus nerve

A
  • Sensory - external ear, larynx, pharynx and thoracic/abdominal viscera
  • Taste from epiglottis region of tongue
  • Smooth muscle of pharynx, larynx and most of GI tract
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134
Q

When should you consider a thunderclap headache?

A
  • First and worst headache
  • Severe headache
  • Sudden onset
  • Typically maximum at onset within 1 minute (but can be several minutes - SIGN and NICE define as 5 minutes)
  • Typical duration >1h (dogged adherence to this rule unreliable)
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135
Q

What is the function of the mandibular nerve?

A
  • General sensory of anterior 2/3 of tongue, skin over mandible, lower teeth
  • Motor - muscles of mastication
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136
Q

How is the GCS performed in children?

A

Verbal scale not appropriate in non-verbal children

GCS (modified for young children)

Best verbal response (1-5)

1 - none

2 - restless, agitated

3 - persistently irritable

4 - consolable crying

5 - appropriate words, smiles, fixes/follows

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137
Q

List the ligaments of the vertebral column

A
  • Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligament (run full length of vertebral column)
  • Ligamentum flavum
  • Interspinous/supraspinous ligaments
  • Intertrasverse ligaments
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138
Q

Describe the appearance of an eye with a trochlear nerve lesion

A

Torsional (rotational) diploplia, compensatory tilted head

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139
Q

Describe the function of Wernicke’s area

A

Sensory language area - lexical processing

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140
Q

List the lobes of the cerebum

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • Temporal
  • Occipital
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141
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the facial nerve

A
  • Motor
    • Nucleus location - pons
    • Function - muscles of expression
  • Sensory
    • Nucleus location - medulla
    • Function - taste
    • Structure innervated - anterior 2/3 of tongue
  • Parasympathetic
    • Nucleus location - medulla
    • Function - salivation and lacrimation
    • Structure innervated - salivary and lacrimal glands
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142
Q

What is the significance of the falx cerebri when considering the dural venous sinuses

A

The falx cerebri between the L and R cerebral hemispheres (in the longitudinal fissure) contains the superior and inferior sagittal and straight sinuses

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143
Q

Describe the risk of rehaemorrhage following a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Incidence highest immediately following initial bleed
  • 5-10% over 1st 72 hours
  • Higher in poor grade patients
  • Larger aneurysms
  • Immediate repair reduces rebleeding risk
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144
Q

Describe the structure of vertebrae

A
  • Anterior vertebral body
    • Weight bearing
    • Lined by hyaline cartilage
    • Separated by IVD
  • Posterior vertebral arch
    • Forms vertebral foramen, line up to give vertebral canal which spinal cord travels through
    • Spinous processes - posterior
    • Transverse processes - in thoracic articulate with ribs
    • Articular processes - join one vertebra to its corresponding vertebrae superiorly/inferiorly
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145
Q

Describe the segmentation of the spinal cord

A
  • 8 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 1 coccygeal
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146
Q

Describe the pathological progression of Alzheimer’s

A
  • Classically starts in temporal lobe - episodic memory (mild stage)
  • Spreads to parietal and frontal lobes
    • Moderate stage - visuo-spatial
    • Severe stage - language
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147
Q

How is an MS relapse treated?

A
  • Not all relapses need treatment
  • Important to discuss side effects of high dose steroids with patient
  • Steroids may speed up recovery from relapse with no effect on progression of disease
  • Steroids should not be given if any evidence of infection
  • If appropriate patient should get physiotherapy +/- occupational therapy
  • Sometimes in RRMS there may be a plan to organise MRI with contrast to look for active disease and change treatment
  • If patient is on treatment for RRMS the MS nurses should be informed - patient may be eligible for new treatment
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148
Q

Describe language disorders and how language is tested in the ACE

A
  • Language =
    • Speech (aphasia), reading (alexia), writing (agraphia)
  • Example of disorders
    • Progressive non-fluent aphasia (variant FTD), dominant MCA territory infarction
  • Testing using ACE-r
    • Naming
    • Repetition
    • 3 stage command (comprehension)
    • Reading
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149
Q

List the main peripheral nerves of the upper limbs

A
  • Radial nerve - spirals round humerus, supplies extensors of arm
    • Not much sensation (back of hand – snuffbox)
  • Deltoid contraction – axillary n
  • Median nerve – forearm flexors, some muscles in hand
    • Muscles in hand (LOAF)
    • Sensation – lateral part of hand
  • Ulnar nerve – fine motor movements of hand, forearm/wrist flexion minorly
    • All muscles except LOAF – adduction and abduction etc.
    • Sensation – rest of hand not supplied by median
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150
Q

Why is it important to consider the eye in facial nerve palsy?

A

Orbicularis oculi muscle supplied by temporal/zygomatic branches of the facial nerve, facial nerve palsy results in inability to close the eye properly, leads to drying of the cornea and damage

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151
Q

List the dural venous sinuses

A

Superior sagittal sinus, inferior sagittal sinus, straight sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus

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152
Q

Which genes are associated with parkinsonism?

A
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153
Q

List the motor clinical features of Parkinsonism

A
  • Bradykinesia
    • Slowness in initiation of voluntary movement with progressive reduction in speed and amplitude of repetitive actions
  • And at least one of the following
    • Muscular rigidity
    • 406 Hz resting tremor
    • Postural instability
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154
Q

How should a patient who is suspected to have had a stroke be assessed in the ED?

A
  • Airway, breathing, circulation, blood glucose
  • History - should not delay clinical assessment and investigations
    • Probably won’t get history from patient - important to get focused history from witnesses
      • Time of onset or last time seen well - need time window for reperfusion therapies
      • Description of what happened, including evidence of seizure activity
    • Review of PMH - susceptibility to haemorrhage, contraindications for reperfusion therapy or ischaemia
    • Current medication including oral anti-coagulants
    • Social history
  • Examination
    • Airway, breathing and circulation stable?
    • Focus on key deficits commonly found in stroke
    • Should be nil by mouth until a formal speech and language therapy review is man
    • When IV access is obtained, blood tests should be performed
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155
Q

Describe the older treatments for MS

A
  • Injected daily, several times week or weekly
  • Beta interferon, copaxone
  • Less effective than fingolimod or monoclonal antibodies
  • Patients often do not like injections
  • Work well for some people
  • May prolong life in some patients (long term data up to 16 years available)
  • Less people disabled over 20 years
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156
Q

List the causes of a thunderclap headache

A
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
    • Approx. 15% of thunderclap headaches presenting to ED
  • Other causes
    • Intracerebral haemorrhage
    • Arterial dissection (vertebral or carotid)
    • Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
    • Ischaemic stroke
    • Bacterial meningitis
    • Spontaneous intracranial hypotension
    • Pituitary apoplexy
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157
Q

What is the input and output for posture and voluntary movement?

A
  • Input - cortex
  • Output - cortex and brainstem
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158
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the spinal accessory nerve

A
  • Motor
  • Function - head rotation and shoulder shrugging
  • Nucleus location - medulla
  • Structures innervated - sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
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159
Q

Describe the mechanism of action and use of COMT inhibitors in Parkinson’s disease

A
  • E.g. entacapone, tolcapone
  • Inhibiting catechol-o-methyltransferase results in longer L-dopa half-life/duration of action
  • Co-prescribed with L-dopa (available as combined table - Stalevo) in later disease
  • Side effects - dopaminergic and diarrhoea
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160
Q

List the causes of low CSF pressure headaches

A
  • Post-lumbar puncture
    • Affects up to 1/3 cases
    • 90% develop within 3 days
    • Most resolve spontaneously
  • Spontaneous intracranial hypotension
    • Results from spontaneous dural tear
    • Can occur following Valsalva
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161
Q

Describe the prevalence of relapse in epilepsy

A
  • Of 780 patients
    • 276 patients no remission
    • 504 patients (64.6%) >12 months remission
      • 399 patients (52%) no relapse
      • 105 patients (13%) some relapse
        • 63 patients (8%) regained remission
        • 42 patients (5%) no regained remission
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162
Q

Describe the function of the basal ganglia

A
  • Motor - movement
  • Oculomotor - eye movement control
  • Lateral orbito-frontal - social behaviour
  • Dorsolateral prefrontal loop - executive functions/working memory

Basal ganglia have role in maintaining posture and initiating voluntary movement.

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163
Q

How is the olfactory nerve tested clinically?

A

Smell tested in each nostril separately, stimuli should be non-irritating and easily identifiable e.g. cinnamon, toothpaste

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164
Q

Describe the features of the dura mater

A

Thick, tough, inelastic

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165
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Idiopathic inflammatory demyelinating disease of the CNS
  • Acute episodes of inflammation are associated with focal neurological deficits
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166
Q

Describe resuscitation following an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Bed rest
  • Volume depleted
    • Fluids - 2.5-3.0L normal saline
  • Anti-embolic stockings (considered pro-thrombotic)
  • Nimodipine - 60mg q 4Hr oral/NG or 2.5-10ml/Hr IV via central line
    • Calcium channel antagonist - reduce risk of developing late ischaemia (microcirculation going into spasm)
  • Analgesia
  • Doppler studies
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167
Q

Describe the function of the optic nerve

A

Visual acuity and visual fields

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168
Q

What can be done in an ED when a patient who has had a stroke is approaching in an ambulance?

A
  • In general ambulance crews now issue a pre-alert for all cases of hyperacute stroke (within the first few hours) - teams assessing patients w/ stroke can prepare for the arrival of the patient
    • Methods of alert vary between sites and health services
  • Once alerted, stroke team mobilise to the ED
  • Prioritisation of acute stroke over TIA assessment
  • All professionals who will be involved in the hyperacute management should be alerted
    • Radiographers
    • Radiologists
    • Anaesthetists (id there is a thrombectomy service)
  • Sometimes if sufficient clinical details, request for imaging can be submitted before the patient arrives in hospital - reduce waiting time for scan
  • Designated area for assessing the patient should be cleared before they arrive
    • Bay in resuscitation room or an area in the acute stroke unit
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169
Q

Describe the anatomy and function of the oculomotor nerve

A
  • Motor
    • Nucleus location - midbrain (oculomotor)
    • Function - movement of eyeball and lens accommodation
    • Structure innervated - inferior oblique, superior, medial and inferior recti muscles, levator palpebrae superioris (all extraocular muscles except superior oblique and lateral rectus)
  • Parasympathetic
    • Nucleus location - midbrain (Edinger Westphal)
    • Function - pupil constriction
    • Structure innervated - ciliary muscle and pupillary constrictor muscles
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170
Q

List the risk factors for small vessel stroke

A
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Tobacco use
  • Sleep apnoea
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171
Q

List the typical sites for hypertensive ICH

A
  • Basal ganglia
  • Cerebellum
  • Pons
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172
Q

How can lacunar stroke present?

A
  • Pure motor stroke/hemiparesis
  • Ataxic hemiparesis
  • Dysarthria/clumsy hand
  • Pure sensory stroke
  • Mixed sensorimotor stroke
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173
Q

List clinical features of raised intracranial pressure

A
  • Papilloedema on fundoscopy
  • Constriction of visual fields
  • Enlargement of the blind spots
  • Unilateral or bilateral VI nerve palsy may be a false localising sign of in raised ICP
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174
Q

How is the patient assessed using the GCS?

A
  • Glasgow Coma Scale
    • Patient fully resuscitated
    • Best motor, verbal and eye response
      • If flex and extend give highest score
  • Pain -
    • Supraorbital press
    • Trapezius pinch
    • Sternal rub - risk damage to skin with repeated
  • Distinguish between flexion and extension
  • Can monitor changes in GCS over time to identify deterioration/improvement
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175
Q

List the main symptoms of multiple sclerosis

A
  • Central
    • Fatigue
    • Cognitive impairment
    • Depression
    • Unstable mood
  • Visual
    • Nystagmus
    • Optic neuritis
    • Diplopia
  • Speech
    • Dysarthria
  • Throat
    • Dysphagia
  • Musculoskeletal
    • Weakness
    • Spasms
    • Ataxia
  • Sensation
    • Pain
    • Hypoesthesias
    • Parasethesias
  • Bowel
    • Incontinence
    • Diarrhoea or constipation
  • Urinary
    • Incontinence
    • Frequency or retention
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176
Q

Describe the arrangement of white and grey matter in the spinal cord

A
  • Inner grey matter
    • Dorsal horn (sensory)
    • Intermediate horn
    • Ventral horn (motor)
  • Outer white matter
    • Dorsal funiculus
    • Lateral funiculus
    • Ventral funiculus
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177
Q

What are the consequences of demyelination in multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Demyelination results in loss of neurological function
    • Weak leg
    • Visual loss
    • Urinary incontinence
  • These deficits usually develop gradually, last for more than 24 hours and may gradually improve over days to weeks
  • Later in untreated disease patients may become progressively more disabled
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178
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • UK prevalence - 180 per 100,000
    • Approx. 12,000 patients in Scotland
    • Prevalence 1.5x higher in men
  • Prevalence rises exponentially >60 years
    • 300-500 per 100,000 in >80 years
  • Mean duration from diagnosis to death - 15 years
  • Primarily a sporadic disorder
  • Monogenic causes of PD account for about 6% of UK cases
  • Significant economic burden
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179
Q

Describe the risk of seizures following a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • 1-7% patients may suffer seizures after initial aneurysm rupture
  • Often a manifestation of re-rupture
  • Short course (3-7d) may be useful in patients with heavy blood load, parenchymal clots, infarcts or >65 undergoing surgery
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180
Q

What are visual evoked potentials? How are they used in the diagnosis of MS?

A
  • Measure conduction of nerve signals in optic nerve to look for subclinical optic neuritis
  • Conduction will be slower if a patient has had optic neuritis in the past
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181
Q

Describe the components and drainage of the superficial venous system

A
  • Primarily drains the cerebral cortex - Cortical veins - superior, middle and inferior groups - Drain into the superior sagittal sinus
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182
Q

What causes Horner’s syndrome?

A
  • Results from ipsilateral disruption of cervical/thoracic sympathetic chain
    • Congenital
    • Brainstem stroke
    • Cluster headache
    • Apical lung tumour - Pancoast tumour
    • Multiple sclerosis
    • Carotid artery dissection
    • Cervical rib
    • Syringomyelia
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183
Q

Describe the organisation of the spinal cord

A
  • Sensory tracts
    • Dorsal columns
      • Light touch, vibration, proprioception
      • Crosses in lower brainstem
    • Spinothalamic tract
      • Pain and temperature
      • Crosses as soon as spinal cord
  • Motor tracts
    • Corticospinal tracts
      • Cross in brainstem, descends in spinal cord on side of limb being supplied
      • Anything above nerve root exit - upper motor neurone changes on that side (synapses with LMN before exits spinal cord)
    • Corticobulbar tracts
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184
Q

Describe the pathological progression of parkinson’s disease

A
  • 1-2 = medulla/pons and olfactory nucleus
    • Presymptomatic or pre-motor e.g. loss of smell
  • 3-4 = midbrain - substantia nigra pars compacta
    • Parkinsonism only becomes evident after extensive nigral damage
  • 5-6 = neocortex involvement
    • Development of PD dementia
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185
Q

How is semantic memory tested in the Addenbrookes Cognitive Evaluation

A
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186
Q

What DVT prophylaxis should patients recieve following a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • SAH induces a prothrombotic state
  • DVT in SAH 2-18%
  • Highest incidence in poor grade SAH
  • Timing of DVT prophylaxis in relation with aneurysm occlusion is controversial
  • Probably safer to use sequential compression devices initially then LMWH after aneurysm secured
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187
Q

Which medications should be started to reduced risk of further ischaemic stroke?

A

Antiplatelets

  • Guidelines from SIGN/NICE/European Stroke Organisation are broadly consistent
  • Local guidance may vary
  • Acutely - evidence that aspirin effective
  • If the patient received thrombolytic therapy, then the patient should not receive this treatment for at least 24 hours, and not until a 24 hour CT scan has excluded significant haemorrhage
  • Should be given at 300mg daily until day 14, or discharge - whichever is sooner
  • Antiplatelets should be given for secondary prevention after
    • Clopidogrel 75mg once daily regimen
    • Aspirin 75mg and dipyridamole (modified release at 200mg bd) can be considered if the patient is intolerant to clopidogrel
  • If evidence of arterial dissection or atrial fibrillation consider full anti-coagulation
  • Combination of antiplatelet and anticoagulant not recommended for secondary prevention of stroke

Statins

  • Prevent further stroke
  • SIGN guidelines allow consideration of all statins including atorvastatin 80mg and simvastatin 40mg
  • Benefit seen regardless of baseline cholesterol

Antihypertensives

  • Lower BP to <140/85mmHg
  • Started when patient is stable, generally not in the acute period
  • Consider starting ACE inhibitor e.g. perindopril and a thiazide diuretic e.g. indapamide together
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188
Q

Where does the optic nerve exit the skull?

A

Optic canal

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189
Q

What is biotin? How is it used in MS?

A
  • Dietary supplement
  • High dose vitamin
  • May lead to some symptom relief and mild improvement power
  • Ongoing large clinical trials
  • Gives energy to damaged nerve cells
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190
Q

Describe the appearance of an eye with an oculomotor nerve lesion

A

Ptosis, down and out deviation, fixed and dilated pupil

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191
Q

Describe the underlying pathophysiological process in ischaemic strokes

A
  • Large vessel strokes usually due to vessel occlusion by thrombus
    • Sources of thrombus e.g. embolism from plaques on atheromatous large vessels such as the carotid artery or aorta, or from a cardiac source
  • Size of arterial occlusion depends on size of thrombus
  • Occlusion impedes passage of blood, reducing cerebral blood flow to the brain territories distal to the clot
  • When blood flow drops below a critical threshold, a cascade of events is set motion which may ultimately result in cell death, which occurs may 5 major mechanisms
    • Exotoxicity
    • Peri-infarct depolarisation
    • Oxidative stress
    • Inflammation
    • Apoptosis
  • Tissue does not die immediately but instead there is a time window when the tissue is compromised to reduced blood flow but is still potentially salvageable if there is reperfusion in a timely fashion
  • In this case, can infer that thrombolytic therapy has led to recanalisation of the artery and reperfusion of the ischaemic penumbra
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192
Q

List the symptoms of muscle disease

A
  • Proximal limb weakness
    • Difficulty raising harms above head, arising from seated position
  • Facial weakness
    • Characteristic myopathic facies
    • Drooling
  • Eyes
    • Ptosis
    • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Bulbar
    • Dysarthria
    • Dysphagia
  • Neck and spine
    • Head drop
    • Scoliosis
  • Respiratory
    • Breathlessness (especially on lying flat)
  • Myocardial
    • Exercise intolerance, palpitations
193
Q

Describe the use of the glasgow outcome scale

A
  • Impact
    • Consistent strong associated between motor score and 6-month GOS across all studies
    • Eye and verbal components were also strongly associated with GOS
  • Crash
    • GCS and 14 day mortality is linear
    • GCS and 6 month poor outcome is linear
194
Q

Describe the structure of the coccyx

A
  • Articulates w/ apex of sacrum
  • Lack of vertebral arch - no spinal cord
195
Q

What is tPa?

A
  • Tissue plasminogen activator
  • ‘Clot buster’
196
Q

How is a lumbar puncture used in the diagnosis of MS?

A
  • CSF oligoclonal bands (need matched blood sample)
  • CSF cell counts - exclude mimics
  • CSF glucose (matched blood sample)
  • CSF protein
197
Q

How is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve tested clinically?

A

With the vagus nerve

198
Q

Describe the preparations and dosing of L-Dopa

A
  • Strategies to improve pharmacokinetics of L-dopa (e.g. oral liquids, controlled-release preparations) have limited benefit
  • Available in 2 common preparations
    • L-dopa + carbidopa = Sinemet
    • L-dopa + benserazide = Madopar
  • Dosing 200-1000mg per day
199
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

A tendency to have recurrent unprovoked seizures - usually more than one event.

Majority are paroxysmal - intermittent seizures with periods of no issues in between

200
Q

Describe the anatomy of the circle of willis

A
201
Q

Describe the path of the internal carotid arteries

A
  1. Move superiorly through the neck in the carotid sheath 2. Enter brain via foramen lacerum (carotid canal), 3. Pass anteriorly through cavernous sinus 4. Give off branches 5. Continue as middle cerebral arteries
202
Q

Describe the location of Brocca’s area

A
  • Inferior frontal gyrus (pars opercularis and pars triangularis)
  • Most commonly in L hemisphere (dominant in 90%)
203
Q

List the main arteries which supply the brain

A
  1. Vertebral arteries 2. Internal carotid arteries
204
Q

How does Guillain Barre syndrome present?

A

Ascending flaccid tetraparesis - medical emergency

205
Q

How are seizures seen on an EEG?

A

PDS on EEG manifests as a spike or sharp wave

206
Q

List the spinal reflexes which are tested clinically and the spinal nerves which supply them

A
  • Knee = L3, 4
  • Ankle = L5
  • Biceps = C5, 6
  • Triceps = C7
  • Brachioradialis = C5, 6
207
Q

List the branches given off by the internal carotid arteries and describe their functions

A
  1. Ophthalmic artery - supplies structures of the orbit 2. Posterior communicating artery - connects the circle of Willis posteriorly 3. Anterior choroidal artery - supplies structures in the brain responsible for motor control and vision 4. Anterior cerebral artery - supplies anterior parts of the cerebrum
208
Q

What are the signs of optic neuritis?

A
  • Red desaturation
  • Relative afferent papillary defect
  • Optic disc pallor implying optic atrophy
209
Q

Describe the prognosis of SAH

A
  • 50% mortality before hospital
  • 30-40% mortality at 30 days
  • Significant morbidity – around 50% of patients unable to return to work post-SAH
  • Predictors of poor outcome:
    • Focal neurological deficit or reduced GCS at presentation
    • Rebleeding
    • Vasospasm
    • Hydrocephalus
210
Q

Describe the general function of the basal ganglia

A

Initiate and maintain appropriate motor output

211
Q

Describe the functions of the parietal lobe

A
  • Postcentral gyrus - primary somatosensory area
  • Sensory association areas
  • Body orientation
  • Motor feedback
  • Primary gustatory cortex - taste
212
Q

What treatment should be started in epilepsy?

A
  • Localised onset - Lamotrigine, carbamazepine, levetiracetam
  • Generalised onset - valproate, levetiracetam, lamotrigine
    • Valproate has effect on foetal IQ and increases risk of congenital malformations - avoid in women of reproductive age
213
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of myasthenia gravis

A
  • Autoimmune disorder - antibodies to acetylcholine receptor at post synaptic NMJ
  • Association with other autoimmune disorders
  • May be associated with thymic hyperplasia or thymoma
  • Affects young women in 20s in older men in 70s
  • Fatiguable weakness of ocular, bulbar, neck, respiratory and/or limb muscles
214
Q

How much CSF is produced/circulates?

A

500ml produced per day, about 140ml circulates

215
Q

What lifestyle advice is given to those with migraines?

A
  • Diagnosis explained and discussed with patient
  • Avoid triggers identified
  • Reduce caffeine
  • Reduce alcohol
  • Good sleep management
  • Regular meals
216
Q

Where are the most common sites for cerebral aneurysm formation?

A

90% of aneurysms in anterior cerebral circulation, most commonly at the bifurcation of the anterior communicating artery and the anterior cerebral artery, the internal carotid artery and the posterior communicating artery and at the middle cerebral artery bifurcation

217
Q

Describe how facial nerve function is tested clinically

A

Motor - raise eyebrows, tightly close eyes, puff out cheeks, purse lups, show teeth

Corneal reflex (motor innervation)

Sensory - change in taste/hearing

218
Q

Describe the features of the arachnoid mater

A
  • Middle layer - Layers of connective tissue, avascular, no innervation - Subarachnoid space underneath, contains CSF - Projections of arachnoid mater into dura (arachnoid granulations) allow CSF to re-enter the circulation via dural venous sinuses
219
Q

Describe the position of the lateral ventricles

A

One per cerebral hemisphere (L + R)

220
Q

Describe the risk of hyponatraemia following a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Brain already insulted by SAH
    • Hyponatraemia problem - fluid shits from ECM –> ICM, cerebral oedema (can cause seizures etc.)
    • Sodium maintains transmembrane potential - cells easily fire action potential (siezures)
  • CWS vs SIADH
  • Establish volume status
  • Hypertonic saline
  • Fludrocortisone
  • Other causes of hyponatraemia
    • Drugs, anaemia, hypothyroidism, chronic kidney disease - exclude
221
Q

Describe the venous drainage of the dura mater

A

Dural venous sinuses -> IJV

222
Q

Describe the arterial supply of the spinal cord

A
  • 3 longitudinal arteries
    • Anterior spinal arteries - from branches of vertebral arteries, run in anterior median fissure
    • 2 posterior spinal arteries - from vertebral or posteroinferior cerebellar arteries, anastomose in pia
    • anterior and posterior segmental medullary arteries - small vessels, enter with nerve roots
      • Largest anterior segmental medullary artey = artery of Adamkiewicz (from inferior intercostal or upper lumber arteries, supplies inferior 2/3 of spinal cord)
223
Q

Describe the location of the dural venous sinuses in relation to the layers of the meninges

A

Between the outer (endosteal/periosteal) and inner (meningeal) layers of the dura mater

224
Q

Why should irritating substances not be used when testing the function of the olfcatory nerve?

A

Irritants would stimulate the trigeminal nerve as well as the olfactory nerve, giving a false result

225
Q

How is a history taken in the diagnosis of epilepsy?

A
  • History of presenting complaint
  • History of eye witness
  • History of past medical problems etc.
    • E.g. alcohol withdrawal/drug use, abnormality of cerebral cortex predisposes to epilepsy
226
Q

How is visuospatial-parietal lobe function tested in the ACE?

A
  • Pentagons
  • Cubes
  • 3D letters
  • Dots counting
  • Other tests
    • Assess higher motor control, deficit result in impairment of purposeful motor skills (praxia)
    • Pantomime gestures to command
    • Appropriate use of everyday objects e.g. toothbrush
    • Copying meaningless gestures
227
Q

Describe the management of facial nerve palsy

A
  • Most return to normal sponanteously
  • Eye care - drops, tarsorrhaphy
  • Oral steroids
228
Q

Describe the guidelines for investigation of a thunderclap headache

A
  • SIGN 107
    • Treat as medical emergency - same day specialist assessment
    • NCCT ASAP, preferable within 12 hours of onset
    • If CT normal, lumbar puncture (for blood products - oxybilirubin)
    • No other investigations suggested
  • CT/LP normal consider other investigations
    • MRI
    • MR/CT venogram
    • MR/CT angiogram
229
Q

What outcomes are seen in patients following subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A
  • Affects 7000pts/yr UK
  • Approx. 3500 pts dead or severe disability/yr
  • Combined mortality and morbidity 50%
  • 1/3 survivor dependent
230
Q

List the terminal branches of the facial nerve

A
  1. Temporal
  2. Zygomatic
  3. Buccal
  4. Marginal mandibular
  5. Cervical
231
Q

Which aspects of memory can be assessed at the bedside?

A

Episodic and semantic memory

232
Q

Describe the function of the globus pallidus

A

Inhibiting muscular activity and reducing muscle tone

233
Q

How is progressive MS treated?

A
  • No licensed DMT at present
  • Focus on treating symptoms
  • Hope that treating RRMS will reduce progression to SPMS
  • Potential treatment for PPMS - ocrelizumab
  • Potential treatment for SPMS - siponimod
234
Q

Describe the risk of delayed ischaemia following a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Day 3-10
  • Progressive deterioration in LOC associated with new deficit
    • Neurologic deficit, progressively drowsy
  • Angiographic spasm, microcirculation shuts down
  • Fluid management (CVP, colloid infusions)
  • Nimodipine
  • Inotropes
  • Angioplasty (balloon angioplasty, intra-arterial Nimodipine)
    • Balloon segments in spasm
235
Q

What is a radiologically isolated syndrome in MS?

A
  • MRI scan performed in patients who do not have symptoms or signs of MS
  • Incidental finding that looks like MS
  • May develop MS (but may not)
  • Can cause unnecessary distress for patient
236
Q

Why is it important to carry out a neurological exam in a patient presenting with migraines?

A
  • Neurological examination normal - in keeping with migraine
  • Focal neurological deficit would suggest a secondary cause for headache
237
Q

What are the cranial nerves?

A
  • 12 pairs of nerves that emerge from brainstem and supply head and neck
  • Sensory, motor and parasympathetic activity
  • Numbered I-XII in descending anatomical order
238
Q

What is the role of the filum terminale?

A

Fibrous tissue which extends from conus medullaris to sacrum - stops movement of the cauda equina

239
Q

When should you suspect MS?

A
  • Neurological symptoms that develop over a few days
  • A history of transient neurological symptoms that have lasted for more than 24 hours and spontaneously resolved
  • Hidden relapses
    • Optic neuritis/visual disruption
    • ‘Bell’s palsy’ (what do you mean by Bell’s palsy?)
    • Labyrinthitis
    • Sensory symptoms
    • Bladder symptoms in young man/woman without children
240
Q

What is the aim of drug treatment in Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Pharmacological aim - restore dopamine levels
  • Clinical aim - improve motor symptoms/improve QOL
  • No evidence of neuro-protective effect
241
Q

List large vessel stroke syndromes

A
  • Middle cerebral artery
  • Anterior cerebral artery
  • Posterior cerebral artery
  • Cerebellum
242
Q

How does CSF travel from the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle?

A

Through the interventricular foramen of Monro

243
Q

How are attention/orientation assessed in the Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Assessment?

A
244
Q

What is normal in cognitive impairment?

A
  • Occasional memory loss
    • 18% of 35 y/o controls report memory problems
      • 13% need to take notes to help remember
        • Names of colleagues/friends
        • Retaining telephone numbers, new pin
        • Infrequently used factual information
        • Occasionally misplacing things
    • College students (17-26 y/o)
      • 27% word finding lapses
      • 14.5% mental decline
      • 10% memory gaps
245
Q

Which nerves control the direct and indirect pupillary reflexes?

A
  • Sensory CN II
  • Parasympathetic response (pupil constriction) CN III
246
Q

What is a generalised seizure?

A

Generalised - brain with a genetically driven change in neurotransmission, receptor pharmacology etc.

  • 20% of adult epilepsy (majority are localisation related)
  • Brain fires all at once, without warning, emerges simultaneously in brain
247
Q

What is the consequence of an optic tract lesion?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (loss of L or R visual field in both eyes)

248
Q

How is memory assesed in the Addenbrookes Cognitive Assessment?

A

249
Q

Describe the production of CSF

A

Filtrate of blood produced by the choroid plexus in the ventricular system of the brain

250
Q

What are the common symptoms and how are they managed in progressive MS?

A
  • Fatigue
    • Common symptom and may be due to the disease itself, medication side effects, sleep problems, increased muscular effort due to weakness or to depression
    • If due to depression should be treated
    • If disease related, modafinil/amantadine may benefit
  • Urinary symptoms
    • In MS may be due to spinal disease
    • Storage dysfunction due to detrusor hyperreflexia will manifest as urgency, frequency, nocturia and incontinence
      • Should respond to anti-cholinergic agents such as oxybutynin
      • A urologist may consider injecting the bladder wall with Botox
    • Emptying dysfunction due to diminished detrusor contractility and sphincter hypertonia will manifest as dribbling, hesitancy, urgency, incontinence and frequency - may be treated with self-catheterisation and drugs such as tamsulosin for sphincter hypertonia
    • Combined storage and emptying dysfunction may be treated with a combination of self-catheterisation and anti-cholinergics.
  • Spasticity
    • Common in MS
    • Patients should see physiotherapy and OT
    • Therapies include baclofen, tizanidine, dantrolene, benzodiazepines, gabapentin (for generalised spasticity) and Botox (for focal spasticity)
251
Q

Describe common patterns of sensory loss

A
  • Length dependent neuropathy - glove and stocking distribution
    • Process affecting sensory nerve function - affects longest first, legs then arms
  • Numbness affecting waist and trunk downwards - distal to lesion in spinal cord
  • Sensory roots
  • Single dorsal column lesion
  • Transverse thoracic spinal cord lesion
  • Central cord lesion
  • Mid-brain stem lesion
  • Hemisphere (thalamic) lesion
  • Unilateral cord lesion (Brown-Sequard)
    • Loss of dorsal column function on one side and spinothalamic function on other side
      • Paralysis and loss of proprioception on ipsilateral side
      • Loss of pain and temperature on contralateral side
    • Caused by lesion affecting one half of spinal cord i.e. a hemisection of the spinal cord
252
Q

What is attention/orientation? Describe the assessment of attention/orientation

A
  • Component of consciousness which allows filtering of information to allow one to focus on a particular stimuli
  • Essential for all aspects of cognition
  • Pathological process - delirium (depression)
  • Testing ACEr
    • Orientation
    • Serial 7s
    • Working memory facet of attention/concentration e.g. Digit span
  • Meaningful cognitive testing is difficult with impaired attention/concentration
253
Q

How is a cognitive history taken?

A
  • Memory
    • Impaired ability to acquire and remember new information - symptoms include; repetitive questions or conversations, misplacing personal belongings, forgetting events or appointments, getting lost on a familiar route
  • Executive function - impairment often seen in associated with behavioural changes
    • Impaired reasoning and handling of complex tasks, poor judgement - symptoms include: poor understanding of safety risks, inability to manage finances, poor decision-making ability, inability to plan complex or sequential activities
  • Visuospatial
    • Impaired visuospatial abilities - symptoms include: inability to recognise faces or common objects or to find objects in direct view despite good acuity, inability to operate simple implements, or orient clothing to the body
  • Language
    • Impaired language functions (speaking, reading, writing) - symptoms include: difficulty thinking of common words while speaking, hesitations, speech, spelling and writing errors
254
Q

Describe the main functions of the frontal lobe

A
  • Precentral gyrus = primary motor area (movement)
  • Motor association area - movement
  • Primary olfcatory area - smell
  • Broca’s area - motor speech production
  • Cognitive thought and memory
  • Control of voluntary movements
255
Q

How should suspected MS be investigated?

A
  • MRI brain and cervical spine with gadolinium contrast
  • It is possible to make the diagnosis of MS with one scan
  • Evidence of demyelination in 2 regions (e.g. periventricular and spinal cord) can indicate dissemination in space
  • If enhancing and non-enhancing areas of demyelination are seen this can indicate dissemination in time
256
Q

Describe the function of Brocca’s area

A

Motor aspect of speech

257
Q

Where does the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull?

A

Foramen rotundum

258
Q

Describe the anatomy and function of the olfactory nerve

A
  • Sensory
  • Function = smell
  • Tract - olfactory cells of nasal mucosa –> olfactory bulbs –> pyriform cortex
259
Q

Describe the use of tPa in stroke management

A
  • IV tPa window 4.5 hours
  • Alteplase is the currently licensed thrombolytic drug
    • Administered intravenously
    • Effective up to 4.5 hours post stroke, clinical outcome better the earlier the treatment is given - patient assessment should be prompt in all cases
  • Perfusion MRI scan - shows areas still alive but with reduced blood flow
    • Can see potentially viable brain which can be saved w/ treatment
  • Disability risk reduced by 30% despite 5% symptomatic ICH risk
260
Q

Describe the verbal section of the GCS

A

Verbal response

  1. None
  2. Incomprehensible sounds
  3. Inappropriate
  4. Confused
  5. Oriented - time, place, person
261
Q

Describe the formation of an aneurysm

A
  • Haemodynamic stress - branch point in BVs (maximal stress)
  • Extensive inflammatory and immunological reactions are common in unruptured intracranial aneurysms and may be related to aneurysm formation and rupture
  • Repair processes hold aneurysm - if overwhelmed rupture
  • Aneurysms close to pia can break through to the subarachnoid space, close to arachnoid can cause subdural haemorrhage
262
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of anti-epileptic drugs which affect the pre-synaptic excitability and neurotransmitter release

A
  • Carbamazepine, lamitrigine, oxcarbazepine etc. inhibit voltage-gated Na+ channel (increases excitability and drives action potentials)
  • Retigabine increases activity of voltage gated K+ channel (reduces neuronal excitability)
  • Levetiracetam inhibits SV2A (required for release of neurotransmitter from vescicles)
  • Pregabalin and gapapentin inhibit voltage gated Ca2+ channel (drives neurotransmitter release)
263
Q

List the major sulci of the cerebrum

A
  • Central sulcus
  • Lateral sulcus
  • Luneate sulcus
  • Calcarine sulcus
264
Q

Describe the cardiopulmonary complications associated with subarachnoid haemorrhages

A
  • Sympathetic stimulation and catecholamine release can lead to myocardial injury (‘stunned myocardium’)
  • Non-specific T wave changes
  • Elevations of troponin I can occur in 35%
  • Arrythmias (35%)
  • Wall motion abn (25%)
  • Can be associated with sudden death (12%)
  • Myocardial function usually returns to normal in 1-3 days
265
Q

What is Kernig’s sign?

A
  • Positive when hip and knee flexed at 90 degrees and subsequent extension at the knee is painful
  • Headache, photophobia, neck stiffness and a positive Kernig’s sign suggest meningism (irritation of the meninges)
266
Q

Describe the risk of bleeding in tPa therapy

A
  • Risk of bleeding 1 in 20
    • Gut from ulcer
    • Into brain
267
Q

How are CN IX/X assessed?

A
  • Gag reflex not done in conscious patients
  • Swallow assessment - drink and observe swallow
  • Uvula should be central - deviates away from side of lesion
268
Q

Describe the parts of the caudate nucleus

A

Has an anterior head which is wider, then tapers to a body and posterior tail, with a ‘knee’ (genu) between

269
Q

What causes acute inflammatory demyelinated neuropathy (Guillain Barre syndrome)?

A

Post-infectious autoimmune aetiology (e.g. campylobacter, CMV, EBV)

270
Q

Describe the components of memory

A
  • Implicit memory
  • Declarative (explicit) memory
    • Episodic - personally experienced events, specific to time/place
    • Semantic - long-term memory that processes ideas and concepts not drawn from personal experience e.g. general knowledge (not specific to time and place)
    • Working - temporarily holds information available for processing
271
Q

What is the difference between surgical and medical 3rd nerve palsy?

A
  • Surgical 3rd nerve palsy
    • Pupil fixed and dilated
    • Parasympathetic fibres (pupil constriction) on the outside of the nerve, first to be affected by compression resulting in a fixed and dilated pupil
    • ‘Surgical’ causes e.g. tumour, aneurysm, trauma cause compression and affect the parasympathetic fibres
  • Medical 3rd nerve palsy
    • Pupil sparing
    • Caused by ischaemia e.g. diabetic neuropathy, hypertension, hyperlipiaemia
    • Outer parasympathetic fibres not affected
272
Q

How is the hypoglossal nerve function assessed?

A
  • Look at tongue as it rests in mouth then stick out tongue
  • Deviates towards side of lesion
  • Wasting and fasciculations of tongue
    • LMN
    • Motor neurone disease
273
Q

Describe the motor section of the GCS

A
  1. None
  2. Extension
  3. Abnormal flexion
  4. Normal flexion
  5. Localises pain
  6. Obeys command

N.B. cannot be assessed if patient has received muscle relaxants, also spinal injury

274
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the trigeminal nerve

A
  • Sensory
    • Nucleus location - pons and medulla
    • Structure innervated - face (ophthalmic, mandibular and maxillary divisions) and anterior 2/3 of tongue
  • Motor
    • Function - mastication (close jaw)
    • Nucleus location - pons
    • Structure innervated - masseter, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoids
275
Q

Give examples of dopamine agonists

A

Examples - Ropinirole, Pramipexole, Rotigotine, Apomorphine

276
Q

Describe the shape of the lateral ventricles

A
  • C-shaped structure - Inferior horn (in temporal lobe) -> body (in parietal/frontal lobe) -> interventricular foramen - Posterior horn projects backwards into the occipital lobe - Anterior horn projects further into frontal lobe - Triangular area between occipital and temporal lobes = trigone
277
Q

Where is the insular cortex found?

A

Part of cerebral cortex folded deep within the lateral sulcus, lateral to lentiform nucleus

278
Q

What pathological processes affect semantic memory?

A

Semantic dementia (variant frontotemporal dementia)

279
Q

Describe management of an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Surgical clipping
  • Endovascular (coils, stents and glue)
  • Conservative - only a very small number of patients don’t benefit from treatment, managed conservatively
280
Q

Describe the management of Meniere’s disease

A
  • No cure, manage symptoms
    • Dietary changes, salt restriction, diuretics
    • Gentamicin injection - risk of hearing loss
    • Pressure pulse treatment
    • Surgery - cut nerve (rare)
281
Q

What is the consequence of a superior optic radiation lesion?

A

Contralateral inferior quadrantopia

282
Q

What is the clinical significance of Baston’s plexus?

A
  • Anastomose closely with venous drainage of abdominal/pelvic organs
  • Major route of spread of cancer from deep pelvic regions
  • Valveless
283
Q

Describe the eye section of the GCS

A

Eye opening

  1. None
  2. To pain
  3. To verbal command
  4. Spontaneous

N.B. - cannot be assessed if eyes are swollen

284
Q

Describe the structure of the corpus callosum

A

4 parts - splenium (posterior), body, genu and rostrum (anterior)

285
Q

Describe the connections and contents of the corona radiata

A
  • White matter sheet that continues ventrally as the internal capsule
  • Sheet of ascending and descending axons to and from the cerebral cortex
  • Fibres radiate out from cortex and come together in the brainstem
  • Associated w/ corticopontine, corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts
286
Q

Describe the pathology of a vestibular schwannoma

A
  • Benign, usually slow growing tumour that develops through overproduction of schwann cells around the vestibular/cochlear nerves
  • Causes damage to nerves through compression - hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo
  • Can also affect
    • Trigeminal nerve - loss of face sensation
    • Facial nerve - weakness/paralysis of muscles of facial expression
    • Glossopharyngeal/vagus nerves - swallowing difficulties, loss of gag reflex
287
Q

Where does the trochlear nerve exit the skull?

A

Superior orbital fissure

288
Q

Define dementia

A
  • Progressive cognitive decline
    • Interfere with the ability to function at work or usual activities, and
    • Represent a decline from previous levels of functioning and performing, and
    • Is not explained by delirium or major psychiatric disorder
    • The cognitive or behavioural impairment involves a minimum of two of the following domains
      • Memory
      • Executive function
      • Language
      • Apraxia/visuospatial
  • Severe, acquired and must involve more than one brain region
289
Q

Where are the luneate and calcarine sulci found?

A

In the occipital lobe, calcarine sulcus marks the position of the primary visual cortex

290
Q

What is typically found on examination in raised pressure headaches?

A
  • Optic disc swelling - papilloedema
  • Impaired visual acuity/colour vision
  • Restricted visual fields/enlarged blind spot
  • 3rd nerve palsy
  • 6th nerve palsy (false localising sign)
  • Focal neurological signs
291
Q

How effective are anti-epileptic drugs?

A
  • Seizure control is common but not invariable
    • 47% patients seizure-free monotherapy, 1st AED
    • 13% patients seizure-free monotherapy, 2nd AED
    • 1% patients seizure-free monotherapy, 3rd AED
    • 3% patients seizure-free polytherapy
    • 36% patients not seizure-free, all regimens attempted
      • Some will have very mild seizures, some frequent/severe seizures (major cortical change)
292
Q

What are the consequences of a CN IV palsy?

A
  • Difficulty looking down, diplopia when looking down
    • Double vision always when looking in direction of action of muscle affected
293
Q

What are the risk factors for subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Non-modifiable
    • Age
    • Gender - female
    • Previous SAH
    • Polycystic kidney disease
    • Connective tissue disorders - Ehlers Danlos, Marfan’s
    • AVM
    • Family history - 2+ primary relatives
  • Modifiable
    • Hypertension
    • Smoking
    • Alcohol
    • Sedentary lifestyle
294
Q

What would be the effect of damage to Wernicke’s area

A

Receptive aphasia, extremely poor comprehension of speech

295
Q

How is executive function tested?

A
  • Proverbs
  • Verbal fluency - ACEr - verbal letter > category fluency
  • Estimates
  • Planning
296
Q

What is the function of the insular cortex?

A

Involved in the emotional response to pain

297
Q

Describe the location of the caudate nucleus

A

Forms the lateral wall of the lateral ventricles, separated from putamen by white matter fibres (internal capsule)

298
Q

List the causes of facial nerve palsy

A
  • Middle ear pathology - tumour/infection
  • Parotid gland pathology - tumour, parotitis, surgery
  • Idiopathic (Bell’s palsy) - viral, diabetes mellitus, pregnancy
  • Ramsey-Hunt syndrome
299
Q

How are the cervical and lumbar spinal segments structurally distinct? Why?

A

Have large ventral and dorsal horns - innervate limbs so need high sensory and motor output

300
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hypertensive ICH

A

Spontaneous rupture of a small artery deep in the brain due to excessive pressure

301
Q

Where does the oculomotor nerve exit the skull?

A

Superior orbital fissure

302
Q

What are arterial venous malformations?

A
  • Direct fistula between arteries and veins
  • Lots of haemodynamic stress on vessels supplying AVM
  • Associated with aneurysms
303
Q

What is the outcome like for patients with MS?

A
  • Many patients live fairly normal lives and work
  • A significant proportion become progressively more disabled with time
  • Difficult to prognosticate with the emergence of modern treatments for MS over past decade
  • May present to general medicine with neurological deterioration or with other medical problems
  • Seldom admitted to acute neurology units
304
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the vagus nerve

A
  • Sensory
    • Nucleus location - medulla
    • Function - chemoreceptors, pain receptors (dura), sensation
    • Structures innervated - blood oxygen concentration, carotid bodies, respiratory and digestive tracts, external ear, larynx and pharynx
  • Motor
    • Nucleus location - medulla
    • Function - heart rate and stroke volume, peristalsis, air flow, speech and swallowing
    • Structures innervated - pacemaker and ventricular muscles, smooth muscles of the digestive tract, smooth muscles in bronchial tubes, muscles of larynx and pharynx
  • Parasympathetic
    • Structures innervated - smooth muscles and glands and the same areas innervated by motor component, as well as thoracic and abdominal areas
305
Q

List the diagnostic criteria for a tension type headache

A
  • At least 10 episodes of headache occurring on <1 day/month on average (<12 days/year) and fulfilling criteria B-D
  • Lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days
  • At least two of the following four characteristics:
    • Bilateral location
    • Pressing or tightening (non-pulsating) quality
    • Not aggravated by routine physical activity such as walking or climbing stairs
  • Both of the following
    • No nausea or vomiting
    • No more than one of photophobia or phonophobia
  • Not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 diagnosis
306
Q

Where does CSF drain to after leaving the 4th ventricle?

A
  1. Central spinal canal - bathes the spinal cord 2. Subarachnoid cisterns - bathes brain, between arachnoid and pia mater (where CSF is reabsorbed back into the circulation)
307
Q

List the stages in a seizure

A
  • Paroxysmal depolarising shift
  • Tonic phase - brain floods with inhibitory neurotransmitters to stop discharge (increases muscle tone)
    • During a seizure, there is failure of adequate inhibitory mechanisms and no hyperpolarisation following the PDS occurs
    • This prolonged depolarisation with action potentials corresponds to the tonic phase of the seizure
  • Clonic phase - intermittent activity, jerking
    • When inhibition is reinitiated, there are brief periods of depolarisation followed by hyperpolarisation - corresponds to the clonic phase of the seizure
308
Q

What is the consequence of an optic chiasm lesion?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia (loss of temporal visual field in each eye - nasal retinal fibres cross at optic chiasm)

309
Q

Describe the future of MS treatment

A
  • Modern treatments are effective and hopefully getting better
  • Potential treatment to slow progression in PPMS and SPMS over next few years - ocrelizumab and siponimod
  • Currently treatments will reduce relapses but nothing that will repair a lot of damage yet
310
Q

Describe the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A
  • General sensation to posterior 1/3 tongue, external ear, middle ear, carotid body and sinuses
  • Taste from posterior 1/3 tongue
  • Parotid gland - parasympathetic innervation
  • Motor - stylophyaryngeus muscle
311
Q

List the divisions of the trigeminal nerve

A
  1. Ophthalmic
  2. Maxillary
  3. Mandibular
312
Q

How is the patient’s airway managed in stroke patients?

A
  • Most likely related to decreased level of consciousness (LOC), dysarthria, dysphagia
  • GCS < 8 - INTUBATE
  • Avoid hyperventilation or hypoventilation
  • NBM until swallow assessment complete - high aspiration risk (risk of aspiration pneumonitis)
  • Begin mobilisation as soon as clinically safe
313
Q

Describe the position of the 3rd ventricle

A

Between the L + R thalamus

314
Q

What is Meniere’s Disease?

A
  • Inner ear disorder
  • Causes tinnitus, vertigo, partial deafness
  • No definitive cause known - excess fluid in inner ear
315
Q

What causes MS?

A
  • We don’t know
  • Genetic factors
  • Sunlight/vitamin D exposure
  • Viral trigger - possibly EBV
  • Multifactorial - smoking
316
Q

What is the function of the abducens nerve?

A

Innervates the lateral rectus muscle

317
Q

Describe the curvature of the spine

A
  • Cervical lordosis
  • Thoracic kyphosis
  • Lumbar lordosis
  • Sacral kyphosis
318
Q

Describe the function of the hypoglossal nerve

A

Innervates the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue (except the palatoglossus)

319
Q

Describe the gross structure of the cerebrum

A
  • Largest part of the brain
  • 2 cerebral hemispheres - L + R, separated by the falx cerebri of the dura mater
  • Separated from cerebellum by tentorium cerebelli
320
Q

What are primary vs secondary headaches?

A
  • Primary headaches
    • Not associated with an underlying pathology
    • Include migraine, tension-type and cluster headache
  • Secondary headaches
    • Result from an underlying pathological disorder that may be vascular, neoplastic, infectious or related to disturbances in CSF pressure
321
Q

How is Guillain Barre syndrome treated?

A
  • Treated with IV immunoglobulin or apheresis
  • CIDP - chronic form (steroid and IVIG responsive)
322
Q

Describe the location of Wernicke’s area

A

Usually in posterior area of superior temporal gyrus, most commonly in L hemisphere

323
Q

Describe the anatomy and function of the optic nerve

A
  • Sensory
  • Function = vision
  • Tract - retinal ganglion cells –> optic chiasm –> thalamus –> primary visual cortex in occipital lobe
  • Has its own meningeal covering and blood supply
324
Q

Describe the function of the oculomotor nerve

A

Innervates 4 extrinsic eye muscles, levator palpebrae superioris muscle and the pupillary sphincter

325
Q

What investigations should be done in myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Antibodies to AChR present in 85% of cases
  • Single fibre EMG and repetitive nerve stimulation also abnormal
326
Q

Describe the structure of intravertebral discs

A
  • Fibrocartilaginous cylinder, between vertebrae
  • Allows flexibility of spine, acts as shock absorber
  • Wedge shaped in lumbar and thoracic
  • Two parts - nucleus pulposus (gelatinous) and annulus fibrosis (tough, collagenous, surrounds nucleus pulposus)
327
Q

List the cranial nerves

A

I - Olfactory

II - Optic

III - Oculomotor

IV - Trochlear

V - Trigeminal

VI - Abducens

VII - Facial

VIII - Vestibulocochlear

IX - Glossopharyngeal

X - Vagus

XI - Spinal accessory

XII - Hypoglossal

328
Q

What is executive function?

A
  • Facet of frontal lobe function
  • Behaviour, social awareness (orbitofrontal)
  • Working memory, cognitive estimates, planning (dorsolateral prefrontal cortex)
  • Motivation (anterior cingulate)
329
Q

Describe the external structure of the cerebrum

A
  • Folded to give sulci (grooves) and gyri (ridges)
  • Divided into 2 hemispheres by the longitudinal fissure - runs in median sagittal plane
330
Q

What is the risk of recurrence of strokes?

A
  • Risk of further stroke highest early on
  • After TIA/minor stroke the risk is as high as 10% at 1 week and 18% at three months
  • Average annual risk after the first year is 4-5%
  • Can use figures to emphasise need for compliance with secondary prevention strategies
331
Q

How is the optic nerve examined?

A
  • Optic discs with ophthalmoscope
  • Pupillary response - 2nd/3rd CN
    • Direct and indirect pupil constriction
    • Swinging flashlight test for RAPD
    • Accommodation reflex
  • Visual acuity (using Snellen chart)
  • Visual fields and blind spot (tested by confrontation)
332
Q

What factors predispose to an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Smoking
  • Female sex
    • F:M 1.5:1
  • Hypertension
  • Positive family history
  • ADPCK, Ehlers Danlos, Marfan’s syndrome, coarctation of the aorta
333
Q

What is an MS relapse vs a psuedo-relapse?

A
  • A relapse usually involves a new neurological deficit that lasts for more than 24 hours in the absence of pyrexia or infection
  • A pseudo-relapse is the reemergence of previous neurological symptoms or signs related to an old area of demyelination in the context of heat or infection
  • If evidence of infection this should be treated
334
Q

Describe the patterns of aphasia

A
  • Semantic variant
    • Poor confrontation naming
    • Impaired single word comprehension
    • Poor object/person recognition, surface dyslexia, spared repetition
  • Semantic dementia
    • Logopenic variant
    • Impaired single word retrieval
    • Impaired repetition, speech sound errors (phenomic)
    • Spared object/person recognition, single word recognition
    • Alzheimer’s dementia
  • Non-fluent variant
    • Effortful, halting speech
    • Phenomic errors
    • Spared object/person recognition, single word recognition
    • Progressive non-fluent aphasia
335
Q

List the causes of muscle disease

A
  • Muscular dystrophies
    • Dystrophinopathies (Duchenne/Becker), fascioscapulohumeral (FSH) dystrophy, limb girdle, oculopharyngeal
  • Metabolic muscle disorders
    • Glycogen storage diseases, defects of fatty acid metabolism
  • Mitochondrial disorders
  • Myotonic dystrophies
  • Inflammatory muscle disorders
    • Polymyositis, dermatomyositis, inclusion body myositis
  • Neuromuscular junction disorders
    • Myasthenia gravis, Lambert Eaton syndrome
336
Q

List the drugs used for chronic migraines

A
  • Onabotulinum toxin A
    • Chronic migraine, >15 headache days per month, 8 of which are migraine days, MOH previously addressed, failed on at least 3 prophylactics
    • Approved for restricted use by SMC based on economic benefit
  • CGRP inhibitors (monoclonal antibodies)
    • Erenumab approved for restricted use in Scotland
337
Q

What is the function of CSF?

A

Provides mechanical and immunological protection to the brain and spinal cord

338
Q

Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome

A
  • Unilateral facial palsy caused by Herpes Zoster virus, reactivation of Varicella zoster virus from geniculate nucleus
  • Severe ear pain, facial palsy, vertigo, hyperaccusis, tinnitus
  • Vessels of concha, anterior 2/3 tongue, soft palate become visible
339
Q

What is the consequence of a lesion of the optic nerve?

A

Ipsilateral monocular vision loss

340
Q

How can upper and lower motor neurone facial weakness be distinguished?

A
  • Upper motor neurone lesion - weakness of inferior facial muscles
  • Lower motor neurone lesion - weakness of superior and inferior facial muscles
341
Q

What is consciousness?

A
  • Reflects
    • Level of arousal (RAS)
    • Presence of cognitive behaviour (cerebral hemispheres)
342
Q

List the symptoms/signs of pontine haemorrhage

A
  • Pin-point but reactive pupils
  • Abrupt onset of coma
  • Decerebrate posturing or flaccidity
  • Ataxic breathing pattern
343
Q

Describe the function of the trochlear nerve

A

Innervates the superior oblique muscle

344
Q

Describe the management of secondary progressive MS

A
  • No disease modifying treatment for secondary progressive MS
  • Most treatment is aimed at rehabilitation
  • Control of symptoms
    • Bladder
    • Fatigue
    • Mood
    • Spasticity
    • Mobility
345
Q

How is herpes zoster ophthalmicus treated?

A

Oral aciclovir

346
Q

How is the hearing function of the vestibulocochlear nerve tested?

A
  • Rinne test
    • Bone vs air conduction
      • Bone > air - conductive hearing loss
      • Air > bone - normal or sensorineural hearing loss
  • Weber test
    • Louder in normal ear in sensorineural hearing loss
    • Louder in defective ear in conductive hearing loss
347
Q

Describe the function of the putamen

A

Reinforcement and coordination of learned motor skills

348
Q

How is the trochlear nerve tested clinically?

A

With the oculomotor and abducens nerves

349
Q

Describe the appearance of the substantia nigra

A

Dark appearance due to neuromelanin

350
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of dopamine agonists

A

Act directly on post-synaptic striatal dopamine receptors (D2 subtype)

351
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of L-Dopa

A
  • Taken up by dopaminergic neurones and decarboxylated to dopamine within presynaptic terminals
  • Prescribed with dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor
352
Q

Describe the structures of the internal capsule

A
  • V shaped
  • 3 parts -
    • Bend in V = genu
    • Anterior limb
    • Posterior limb
353
Q

List the non-motor symptoms of Parkinsonism

A
  • Neuropsychiatric
    • Dementia
    • Depression
    • Anxiety
  • Autonomic
    • Constipation
    • Urinary urgency/nocturia
    • Erectile dysfunction
    • Excessive salivation/sweating
    • Postural hypotension
  • Sleep
    • REM sleep behaviour disorder
    • Restless legs syndrome
  • Other
    • Reduced olfactory function
    • Fatigue
    • Pain and sensory symptoms
354
Q

Describe the internal structure of the cerebrum

A
  • Grey matter - surface of cerebral hemispheres (cortex)
  • White matter - deeper parts of brain
355
Q

What is examined in the Addenbrookes Cognitive Assessment?

A
  1. Memory
  2. Attention/concentration
  3. Language
  4. Visuospatial
  5. Executive function
356
Q

What would be the effect of damage to Brocca’s area?

A

Expressive aphasia, non-fluent, slow speech

357
Q

List the differential diagnoses for Parkinson’s disease

A
  • Diagnosis of PD is largely clinical
  • Diagnostic certainty improves with follow-up
  • Disorders commonly mistaken for PD
    • Benign tremor disorders e.g. essential tremor
    • Dementia with Lewy bodies
    • Vascular parkinsonism
    • Parkinson plus disorders (e.g. progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy)
    • Drug-induced parkinsonism/tremor
358
Q

What generic history should be taken in a cognitive assessment?

A
  • Presenting complaint
  • Background history
    • Vascular disease including stroke, trauma, cancer, major mental health issues
  • ‘Drug’ history
    • Prescribed drugs (care anti-cholinergic elderly), illicit drugs, alcohol
  • Family history

Take history from patient and always from next of kin

359
Q

List the risk factors for strokes

A
  • High BP
    • Appropriate treatment reduces stroke risk by 50%
  • Atrial fibrillation
    • 5x risk of stroke
    • 1 in 10 people at 70 y/o
    • Atrium fibrillating - blood stagnant in L atrial appendage, clot formation, travels to brain
  • Diabetes
    • Increased risk of all CV disease, esp. if poorly managed
  • Smoking
  • Poor diet, hypercholesterolaemia
    • Cholesterol - bigger effect on heart disease, more likely to die of MI but also increases risk of stroke
  • Excess alcohol consumption
    • Binge drinking esp. in young people increases risk of stroke
360
Q

List the dural reflections

A
  1. Falx cerebri 2. Tentorium cerebelli 3. Cerebellar falx 4. Sellar diaphragm
361
Q

Give examples of common triggers for seizures

A
  • Generalised - sleep deprivation, excess alcohol
  • 20% triggered by flashing lights - usually generalised
  • Patients can often identify their own individual triggers
  • Important to keep medication intake stable
362
Q

Describe the function of the accessory nerve

A

Innervation of the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles

363
Q

List the types of seizures

A
  • Bilateral convulsive seizure (generalised tonic-clonic seizure) - previously referred to as ‘grand mal’
  • Partial seizures - stay in one part of brain (discharge restricted by brain)
    • With loss of awareness
    • With motor phenomena
    • With sensory phenomena
    • With psychological phenomena
    • With cognitive phenomena
364
Q

Where is behaviour/judgement controlled?

A

Frontal lobes

  • Orbitofrontal lobe - behaviour, social awareness
  • Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex - working memory, cognitive estimates, planning, understanding proverbs
365
Q

What is Hoffman’s sign?

A
  • Hoffman’s sign is an upper motor neurone (UMN) sign and parallels the extensor plantar sign in the lower limb
    • Positive when there is flexion of the ipsilateral thumb after tapping the nail bed of the third finger
366
Q

What are the contraindications to tPa therapy?

A
  • Haemorrhage
  • SBP >185 or DBP >110
  • Recent surgery, trauma or stroke
  • Coagulopathy
  • Seizure at onset of symptoms
  • NIHSS >21
  • Age?
  • Glucose <2.2
367
Q

Where does the accessory nerve exit the cranium?

A

Jugular foramen

368
Q

What is optic neuritis? What is the risk of developing MS following optic neuritis?

A
  • Painful visual loss that comes on over a few days
  • May resolve after a few weeks
  • 30% develop MS by 5 years
  • 50% develop MS by 15 years
  • Risk of MS depends on MRI scan and oligoclonal bands
369
Q

What are the features of Horner’s syndrome?

A
  • Miosis
  • Ptosis
  • Apparent enophthalmos
  • Anhidrosis
370
Q

What is internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A
  • Disorder of conjugate gaze
    • Failure of adduction of affected eye with nystagmus on lateral gaze in contralateral eye
  • Can be unilateral or bilateral
  • Results from lesion of medial longitudinal fasciculus (connects 3rd and 6th nerve nuclei)
  • Commonly seen in multiple sclerosis
371
Q

Where does the abducens nerve exit the skull?

A

Superior orbital fissure

372
Q

List the symptoms/signs of PCA stroke

A
  • Hemianopia - contralateral half of vision lost
  • Cognitive: memory loss/confusion, alexia
373
Q

How does CSF travel from the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle

A

Through the cerebral aqueduct

374
Q

Define a coma

A
  • Inability to
    • Obey commands
    • Speak
    • Open eyes to pain
375
Q

Describe bedside cognitive assessment

A
  • A good bedside assessment - quick, easy and reproducible
  • During the test consider - what domains are involved?
  • Simple bedside cognitive assessment may allow evaluation of cognitive function
  • Large number of assessments available
  1. Folstein MMSE (30)
  2. Addenbrookes cognitive assessment (100)

Testing evaluates both the extent of the problem and also the pattern of impairment.

376
Q

Describe the location of the subthalamic nucleus

A

Inferior to thalamus, above substantia nigra

377
Q

Describe the use of surgery to treat epilepsy

A
  • Surgery beneficial if
    • There is a single lesion
    • The lesion can be reached
    • The removal will not cause a neurological deficit by damaging surrounding areas
  • Less than 2% of patients with epilepsy candidates for surgery
  • Corpus callostomy
    • Split anterior 2/3 of corpus callosum (communication between L and R hemisphere)
    • Reduce seizure severity in some patients - reduced spread of electrical activity through brain
    • Often connections reform
378
Q

List the most common underlying causes of first ‘seizures’

A
  • Ictal (epileptic) 52%
  • Syncope 30%
  • Psychiatric 7%
  • Unknown 3%
  • Non-epileptic attack disorder (NEAD) 3%
  • Reflex anoxic seizure (RAS) 2%
379
Q

Describe the features of low CSF pressure headaches

A
  • Headache worse on sitting/standing up and relieved by lying down
  • Results from CSF leakage
    • Loss of CSF volume causes traction on meninges, cerebral/cerebellar veins and CN V, IX and X
380
Q

Describe the diagnosis of migraines

A

ICDH-3 Criteria

  • At least five attacks fulfilling criteria B-D
  • Headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours (when untreated or unsuccessfully treated)
  • Headache has at least two of the following four characteristics
    • Unilateral location
    • Pulsating quality
    • Moderate or severe pain intensity
    • Aggravation by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity (e.g. walking or climbing stairs)
  • During headache at least one of the following
    • Nausea and/or vomiting
    • Photophobia and phonophobia
  • Not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 diagnosis
381
Q

Describe the meningeal layer of the dura mater

A

Lines the endosteal layer, only layer present in the vertebral column

382
Q

Describe the procedure and used of epidural injections

A
  • Injection into epidural space, doesn’t penetrate the meninges
  • Done at L3/4 or L4/5 vertebral level
  • Used to administer analgesia - block sensory fibres to prevent pain
383
Q

Describe the procedure and use of lumbar punctures

A
  • Penetrates dura to access CSF
  • Diagnostic - withdraw and test CSF or test pressure of CSF
  • Therapeutic - antibiotic administration, route for chemotherapy
  • L3/4 or L4/5 vertebral level - cauda equina won’t be damaged
384
Q

How can the location of a stroke be determined?

A
  • Large vessel
    • Look for cortical signs
  • Small vessel
    • No cortical signs on examination
  • Posterior circulation
    • Crossed signs
    • Cranial nerve findings
385
Q

List the excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters which affect neurones

A

Excitation

  • EAA - excitatory amino acids e.g. glutamate, aspartate
  • Action on NMDA/AMPA/Kainate
  • Na+/Ca2+ influx

Inhibition

  • GABA/glycine
  • Action on GABA-R
  • Cl- influx
386
Q

Why is the cerebrum folded?

A

To give a larger surface area to volume ratio

387
Q

What are the clinical consequences of facial nerve palsy?

A
  • Weakness/paralysis of muscles of facial expression
  • Depending on location of lesion
    • Chorda tympani - reduced salivation, loss of taste on ispilateral posterior 2/3 of tongue
    • Nerve to stapedius - ipsilateral hyperaccusis (hypersensitive to sound)
    • Greater petrosal nerve - ipsilateral reduced lacrimal fluid production
388
Q

List the mechanisms of drug action of anti-epileptic drugs

A
  1. Affect pre-synaptic excitability and neurotransmitter release
  2. Affect the GABAergic system
  3. Reduce post-synaptic activity
389
Q

Describe the drainage and connections of the cavernous sinus

A

Cavernous sinus is anterior, receives blood from the ophthalmic vein and empties into the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses which drain into the sigmoid sinuses (-> IJV)

390
Q

Describe the path of CSF in the ventricular system

A

Lateral ventricles –> 3rd ventricle –> 4th ventricle

391
Q

Describe the steroid regime used for MS relapses

A
  • 1g of IV methylprednisolone for 3 days
  • OR 500mg of oral methylprednisolone for 5 days and PPI for gastroprotection
  • Ideally prescribe at 9AM to avoid sleep disruption
392
Q

Which pathological processes affect episodic memory?

A

Early Alzheimer’s disease, limbic encephalitis

393
Q

List the layers of the dura mater

A
  1. Endosteal/periosteal layer 2. Meningeal layer
394
Q

What symptoms can be seen in posterior circulation strokes?

A
  • Cranial nerve palsy (ipsilateral) with contralateral motor/sensory defect
  • Bilateral motor or sensory defect
  • Eye movement disorder
  • Cerebellar signs
  • Isolated homonymous hemianopia
395
Q

Describe the electrical activity and corresponding movement of ions seen during a seizure

A
  • Paroxysmal depolarising shift, a large and prolonged depolarisation with generation of action potential spikes
  • Horizontal bars represent the period during which the particular channel is open (sodium, calcium and potassium - conductance of ions across the membranes), the beginning of the bar indicated the opening of the channel and the end of the bar its closure
  • At the onset of the PDS, the AMPA channel opens, which allows Na+ to enter the cell and begin the process of depolarisation
  • The NMDA channel then opens allowing both Na+ and Ca2+ to enter
  • Following depolarisation, there is opening of the K+ and activation of GABA channels with Cl- entering the cell
  • Both the influx of Cl- and efflux of K+ lead to hyperpolarisation of the cell (corrective for depolarisation)
396
Q

What is the time window for mechanical thrombectomy?

A

6 hours

397
Q

Describe blood thinning strategies following strokes

A
  • High risk TIA (ABCD2 or 4 or more) or minor ischaemic stroke (NIH 3 or less)
    • DAPT for 10-21 days
  • Low risk TIA or other ischaemic stroke in SR
    • Aspirin 300mg od until discharge then clopidogrel
  • Ischaemic stroke or TIA in AF
    • NOAC (or warfarin)
  • Cerebral haemorrhage
    • No (murder)
398
Q

What is the function of the maxillary nerve?

A

Sensory innervation of the cheeks, lower eyelid, nasal mucosa, upper lip and teeth and palate

399
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of AEDs on the GABAergic system

A
  • Tiagabine inhibits the GABA transporter (removes GABA from the synapse - elevate GABA levels)
  • Vigabatrin and valproate inhibit GABA metabolism (degrades GABA - elevate GABA levels)
400
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the hypoglossal nerve

A
  • Motor
  • Function - speech and swallowing
  • Nucleus location - medulla
  • Structure innervated - tongue
401
Q

How is a Snellen chart used?

A
  • Standard from 6m
  • Each eye separately
  • Tests visual acuity
402
Q

How are subarachnoid haemorrhages graded?

A

WFNS Grades I-V

  • GCS 15 - grade I
  • GCS 13-14 without deficit - grade II
  • GCS 13-14 with deficit - grade III
  • GCS 7-12 - grade IV
  • GCS 3-6 - grade V

Higher WFNS grade - worse outcome

403
Q

Describe the position and attachment of the falx cerebri

A

Between L + R hemispheres of the cerebrum in the longitudinal fissure Attached anteriorly to the crista galli of the ethmoid bone and posteriorly to the tentorium cerebelli

404
Q

What investigations should be done in the diagnosis of epilepsy?

A
  • Imaging
    • CT - good visualisation of brain
    • MRI - better at picking up cortical abnormalities with seizures
  • Electroencephalography - sometimes abnormal in epilepsy but shouldn’t be used as screening
    • ‘Brainwaves’
      • Normal
      • Epileptiform
        • Seen in 5-10% of young people, esp. with a family history of epilepsy
405
Q

List the syndromes that may develop into MS

A
  • Optic neuritis
  • Clinically isolated syndromes
  • Transverse myelitis
  • Radiologically isolated syndromes
406
Q

Describe the appearance of a glossopharyngeal palsy

A

Deviation of uvula away from side of lesion

407
Q

Describe the dorsal and ventral striatum

A

Dorsal striatum = caudate nucleus + putamen

Ventral striatum = olfactory tubercle + nucleus accumbens

408
Q

What investigations should be done in a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • CT
    • Confirms diagnosis
    • Clues to aetiology
    • Identifies complications - infarction, haematoma, hydrocephalus
    • Prognostic - Fisher grade
      • Thickness of blood in basal cisterns, thicker = worse prognosis
    • High sensitivity/specificity esp. first few hours after SAH (90% first 24 hours)
  • LP - xanthochromia, bilirubin vs oxyhaemoglobin
    • Yellowing of CSF, due to blood breakdown products
    • Blood cells lyse - oxyhaemaglobin –> bilirubin by haem oxygenase
    • Bilirubin only present after 10-12 hours, indicates bleed
    • Lots of red cell contamination, oxyhaemoglobin can mask bilirubin
  • CTA
  • MRA
  • DSA - stroke, diabetics
    • Gold standard for aneurysm imaging
  • Hyponatraemia
  • ECG changes
  • Elevated troponin levels - not as high as in MI
  • Echocardiography - tako tsubo cardiomyopathy
409
Q

Describe the signs/symptoms of Guillain Barre syndrome

A
  • Progressive (ascending) weakness over days
  • Flaccid, quadriparesis with areflexia
  • +/- respiratory/bulbar/autonomic involvement
410
Q

What is a perimesencephalic SAH?

A

Patients who have non-traumatic SAH in whom an aneurysm cannot be found are described as perimesencephalic SAH (10-15% of SAH). In general, these patients have a more benign presentation and an improved outcome. No intervention indicated.

411
Q

How is the function of the hypoglossal nerve tested clinically?

A

Stick tongue out - check for deviation (deviates to weak side if lesion)

412
Q

Describe the functions of the temporal lobe

A
  • Primary auditory area - hearing
  • Auditory association area - hearing
  • Wernicke’s area - speech comprehension
  • Learning and memory (retrieval)
  • Emotions
413
Q

Describe the typical history of raised pressure headaches

A
  • Worse on lying flat, improved on sitting/standing up
  • Worse in the morning
  • Persistent nausea/vomiting
  • Worse on Valsalva (e.g. coughing, laughing, straining)
  • Worse with physical exertion
  • Transient visual obscurations with change in posture
414
Q

How does a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation affect stroke prevention?

A
  • AF is significant risk factor for stroke
  • Consider oral anticoagulation if no contraindications
  • When oral anticoagulation is started, antiplatelet agent should be stopped
  • For non-valvular atrial fibrillation, either Warfarin (target INR 2-3) or the direct oral anticoagulants (e.g. dabigatran, apixaban) should be considered
  • DOACs have benefit of more stable anticoagulation without the need for monitoring, associated with less intracranial haemorrhage
    • Higher rates of GI bleeding than warfarin (especially dabigatran and rivaroxaban)
    • Use more limited in renal impairment
    • Should not be used in patients with valvular AF e.g. prosthetic valves
415
Q

List the symptoms/signs of MCA stroke

A
  • Supplies most of cortex
  • Arm > leg weakness
  • LMCA cognitive: aphasia
  • RMCA cognitive: neglect, topographical difficulty, apraxia, constructional impairment, anosognosia
416
Q

Describe the Oxfordshire Community Stroke Project Classification (OCSP)

A
  • Total anterior circulation stroke - large cortical stroke in middle/anterior cerebral artery areas
    • Diagnosis, all 3 of the following
      • Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face, arm and leg
      • Homonymous hemianopia
      • Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
  • Partial anterior circulation syndrome - cortical stroke in middle/anterior cerebral artery areas
    • Diagnosis, two of
      • Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face, arm and leg
      • Homonymous hemianopia
      • Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
  • Posterior circulation syndrome
    • Diagnosis, one of
      • Cerebellar or brainstem syndromes
      • Loss of consciousness
      • Isolateral homonymous hemianopia
  • Lacunar syndrome - subcortical stroke due to small vessel dis., no evidence higher cerebral dysfunction
    • Diagnosis, one of
      • Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) or face and arm, arm and leg or all three
      • Pure sensory stroke
      • Ataxis hemiparesis
417
Q

Describe tako tsubo cardiomyopathy

A
  • Heart looks like lobster pot
  • Rarely seen following subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Self-limiting
  • 2-3 days
  • Can be associated with pulmonary oedema
418
Q

How is status epilepticus treated?

A
  • Is it a seizure - if yes
    • Immediate measures - secure airway, oxygen administration, assess pulse, BP, respiration
  • Seizure continues >5 minutes
    • Assess
      • Blood glucose/BM stick
      • Oximetry
      • Bloods - FBC, U&Es, LFTs, Ca
      • Clotting screen
      • AED levels
      • Arterial blood gases
      • Cardiac monitor
    • Initial therapy
      • Treat seizure - secure IV access, administer benzodiazepine (lorazepam IV, diazepam IV/rectal, mizaloam buccal, as per local prtocols)
      • Treat potential cause - IV glucose if potential hypoglycaemia, IV thiamine if potential alcohol abuse or poor nutrition
  • Seizure continue for further 5 minutes
    • Repeat BDZ dosing
    • Administer usual AEDs where indicated (nasogastric tube or IV as necessary)
  • Seizures continue
    • IV dosing with phenytoin or valproate
  • Seizures continue
    • Admit to ITU
    • Monitor using EEG
    • Sedation with general anaesthetic
    • Refer for specialist advice
419
Q

Describe the appearance of an eye with an abducens nerve lesion

A

Reduced abduction, eye positioned laterally

420
Q

Describe acute therapy for migraines

A
  • Avoid opiates and restrict acute medication to 2 days a week
    • Simple analgesics aspirin 900mg or ibuprofen 400-600mg
    • Triptans
      • Sumtriptan 50-100mg is first choice
      • All oral triptans are gastrically absorbed, so may not work if patient vomiting
      • Triptans only work once headache starts
      • General efficacy is to work for 2 out of 3 attacks
  • Early or persistent vomiting
    • Add anti-emetic - metoclopramide 10mg or prochloperazine 10mg
    • Consider nasal zolmitriptan or subcutaneous sumatriptan
  • No response
    • Try other triptans
    • Try triptan and NSAID combinations
421
Q

What is a small vessel stroke? What are the consequences of small vessel stroke?

A
  • Small vessel (Lacunes <1.5cm)
    • Damage to tiny blood vessels of brain, supply white matter and some of brainstem
    • Pure motor, pure sensory or sensorimotor - no cortical involvement
422
Q

Describe the function of the caudate nucleus

A

Sub-control of voluntary movement

423
Q

Describe the classification of head injury

A
  • No accepted uniform classification
    • Reflects the heterogenicity
  • GCS
    • Minor = 14-15
    • Moderate = 9-13
    • Severe = <8
424
Q

How can the type of dementia be determined from ACE?

A
  • Episodic memory deficit - Alzheimer’s
  • Semantic memory deficit - Semantic dementia (variant FTD)
  • Attention/concentration deficit - Delirium
  • Naming/fluency deficit - progressive non-fluent aphasia (variant FTD)
  • Visuospatial - PD plus syndrome or variants AD
425
Q

Describe the use of natalizumab in MS management

A
  • Monthly infusions
  • Very effective treatment for relapses
  • Serious risk of fatal PML is infected with JC virus
426
Q

Define dural reflections

A

Areas where infolding of the dura mater occurs, partitioning the cranial cavity

427
Q

Describe the venous drainage of the spinal cord

A
  • 3 anterior and 3 posterior spinal veins - valveless, form anastomosing network on surface of spinal cord + radicular veins
    • Drain into internal and external venous plexus, which drain to the systemic segmental veins
    • Internal vertebral plexus drain to dural venous sinuses superiorly
  • Epidural space contains Baston’s veins/plexus
  • Also subarachnoid veins
  • Veins exit at segmental levels
428
Q

Describe the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis

A
  • Scotland has highest incidence and prevalence of MS in world
  • Approximately 1 in 600 people in Scotland have MS
  • Highest prevalence in Orkney Islands (1 in 243)
    • Lanarkshire - 1 in 421
  • Lower prevalence near the equator
  • Still seen in places like Spain or India
  • Rare disease China
429
Q

Describe the origins of the vertebral arteries

A

L and R from subclavian artery

430
Q

What are the basal ganglia?

A

Collection of nuclei strongly associated with the cerebellum, brainstem and cerebral cortex

431
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the trochlear nerve

A
  • Motor
  • Function - moves eyeball down
  • Nucleus location - midbrain (inferior colliculus)
  • Structure innervated - superior oblique muscles
  • Depresses the adducted eye and intorts the abducted eye
  • Longest intracranial course
  • II and IV are the only nerves to decussate to contralateral side
432
Q

What additional investigations can be done in suspected MS?

A
  • Lumbar puncture
  • Bloods - exclude other conditions
  • Visual evoked potentials
  • CXR - exclude sarcoidosis
433
Q

What blood tests can be done in the diagnosis of MS?

A
  • Mainly to exclude other causes of presentation
    • B12/folate
    • Serum ACE
    • Lyme serology
    • ESR/CRP - should be normal
    • ANA/ANCA/Rheumatoid factor
    • Aquaporin 4 antibodies (if transverse myelitis/optic neuritis)
434
Q

Describe the position of the tentorium cerebelli

A

Between the occipital lobe of the cerebrum and the cerebellum, divides the cranial cavity into supratentorial and infratentorial areas

435
Q

How is the olfactory nerve examined?

A
  • Don’t routinely examine olfactory
  • Ask patient about noticing change in sense of smell (or family members)
  • Slow loss harder to identify
436
Q

What problems are associated with advanced Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Motor
    • Motor complications
      • ‘On/off’ fluctuations
      • L-dopa induced dyskinesia
    • Poor balance/falls
    • Speech/swallowing disturbance
  • Cognitive
    • Dementia
437
Q

Where does CSF circulate?

A

In the subarachnoid space of the brain and spinal cord

438
Q

Describe the position of the lateral sulcus

A

Separates frontal/parietal lobes from the temporal lobe

439
Q

What are the complications of management of an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Rehaemorrhage
  • Delayed ischaemia
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Hyponatraemia
  • ECG changes, LVF (Tako-tsubo cardiomyopathy)
  • LRTI, PE, UTI
440
Q

What therapies should a patient recieve for rehabilitation following a stroke?

A

Depending on the deficit the patient has, consider:

  • Physiotherapy
  • Speech therapy
  • Occupational therapy
  • Smoking cessation
  • Dietician
441
Q

What is the consequence of a visual cortex lesion?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

442
Q

Describe the signs of abducens nerve palsy

A
  • Horizontal diplopia
    • Two images separated, look to side more separated
  • Can be sign of raised intracranial pressure
443
Q

How are the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nerves tested clinically?

A
  • Observe normal position of eye (deviation/strabism) and look for spontaneous movements (nystagmus)
  • Eye movements - draw H shape with finger, movement should be free and coordinated
444
Q

Describe the components and drainage of the deep venous system

A
  • Drains the thalamus, hypothalamus, internal capsule, septum pellucidum, choroid plexus, corpus striatum and white matter - Deep cerebral veins = subependymal, medullary - Drain into the trasverse, straight and sigmoid sinuses
445
Q

How should a history be taken from a patient with headaches?

A
  • History adapted to lesion
  • HPC
    • Personal history of migraine or tendency (previous migraines, perimenstrual HA, undeserved hangovers, motion sickness, FH of migraines)
    • How many HA type
    • For each HA type
      • Age of onset
      • Chronic HA, episodic (define pattern), constant, new type of HA
      • Premonitory symptoms
      • Onset - time to peak
      • Progression
      • Location
      • Character
      • Intensity - use visual analogue scale 0-10
      • Precipitating factors
      • Exacerbating or relieving factors (features of high or low pressure)
      • Associated symptoms
      • What they do during an attack?
  • Impact
  • Concerns, expectations
  • PMH
    • Immunosuppression
    • Cancer
    • Foreign travel
    • Cardiac, cerebrovascular, renal, hepatic, psychiatric, gastric disease
  • DH
    • Medications that cause HA
    • Drug-drug interactions for potential therapy
  • FH
    • Migraine
    • Tumour
  • SH
    • Sleep
    • Meals
    • Exercise
    • Caffeine
    • Illicit drugs, alcohol (falls?)
    • Gas appliances
446
Q

Describe the multi-disciplinary team which patients with Parkinson’s disease have access to

A
  • GP
  • Neurologist/care of the elderly physician
  • Parkinson’s disease nurse specialist
  • Physiotherapist
  • Speech and language therapist
  • Psychiatrist
  • Psychologist
  • Occupational therapist
  • Palliative care team
  • Neurosurgeon
447
Q

Describe the typical clinical presentation of hypertensive ICH

A

Patient typically awake and often stressed, the abrupt onset of symptoms with acute decompensation and smooth progression

448
Q

Describe the function of Wernicke’s area and the affect of a lesion to Wernicke’s

A
  • Wernicke’s - decodes spoken word into meaningful language, checks that what you say makes sense
    • Fluent, can’t comprehend
    • Posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus
    • Located on the dominant side (left) of the brain
    • Next to Wernicke’s - angular gyrus, responsible for interpreting written language
      • With Wernicke’s angular gyrus also usually affected, usually can’t read
449
Q

List the subtypes of MS

A
  • Relapsing remitting MS
    • Unpredictable attacks which may or may not leave permanent defects followed by periods of remission
  • Primary progressive MS
    • Steady increase in disability without attacks
  • Secondary progressive MS
    • Initial relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis that suddenly begins to have decline without periods of remission
  • Benign MS
  • Progressive-relapsing MS
    • Steady decline since onset with super-imposed attacks
450
Q

Where does the olfactory nerve exit the skull?

A

Cribiform foramina of the cribiform plate

451
Q

What is a seizure?

A
  • A sustained and synchronised electrical discharge in the brain causing symptoms or signs
    • Burst/discharge of electrical activity in brain - sustained/prolonged
    • Change in neurone - potassium/sodium/neurotransmitters
452
Q

List the causes of seizures

A
  • Unknown - 57%
  • Vascular - 11%
  • Hippocampal sclerosis - 7%
  • Infection - 6%
  • Trauma - 6%
  • Other - 5%
  • MCD - 3%
  • Tumour - 2%
  • Degenerative - 2%
453
Q

Describe the structural features of thoracic vertebrae

A
  • Articulate with ribs
  • Spinous processes point inferiorly + posteriorly
454
Q

Describe the anatomical course of the vestibulocochlear nerve

A
  • Vestibular branch from vestibular nuclei complex in pons/medulla, cochlear branch from ventral + dorsal cochlear nuclei in inferior cerebellar peduncles
  • Combine in pons, exits cranium via internal acoustic meatus
  • Splits in distal internal acoustic meatus, vestibular branch to vestibular organs of inner ear, cochlear to cochlea of inner ear, forming the spiral ganglion
455
Q

List the disease modifying therapies in RRMS

A
  • Very powerful drugs with lots of side effects
    • Alemtuzumab
    • Natalizumab
  • Less powerful drugs with fewer side effects - oral treatments
    • Fingolimod
    • Dimethyl Fumarate
    • Cladribine
  • Need careful monitoring, only prescribed by MS specialists
456
Q

What is the typical history in an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Sudden onset headache - thunderclap headache
    • Sudden onset, rises to crescendo, ‘worst headache I’ve ever had’
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • LOC, seizures, visual, speech and limb disturbance
  • Sentinel headache
    • Precedes SAH by days-weeks
    • Sudden, intense, persistent
457
Q

Describe the location and function of the corpus callosum

A
  • Wide, thick white matter nerve tract
  • Spans part of longitudinal fissure, connecting the cerebral hemispheres
  • Forms part of walls of lateral ventricles
458
Q

Describe the position of the 4th ventricle

A

Lies within the brainstem, at the junction of the pons and the medulla oblongata

459
Q

Describe the signs of a complete left oculomotor nerve palsy

A
  • Down and out deviation
  • Ptosis
  • Pupil dilation
460
Q

Describe the position of the sellar diaphragm

A

Forms a partial roof over the hypophysial fossa, covers the pituitary fland, aperture for passage of the infundibulum of the pituitary

461
Q

Describe the pathology of Parkinson’s disease

A

PD is a common slowly progressive asymmetrical neurodegenerative disorder predominantly affecting the elderly.

  • Loss of dopaminergic neurones within substantia nigra
  • Surviving neurones contain Lewy bodies
  • PD manifests clinically after loss of approximately 50% of dopaminergic neurones
462
Q

Describe mechanical retrieval in stroke management

A
  • Big clots - distal internal carotid, middle cerebral artery
  • Catheter into artery, stent in, open stent to trap clot, remove stent with clot
  • Often used with tPa
  • Effective - reduces symptoms post-stroke, more likely to have good outcome
463
Q

Describe the clinical importance of the anterior spinal artery

A

Anterior spinal artery syndrome - loss of urinary and/or faecal continence, impaired motor function in legs/spasticity

464
Q

Describe the prevalence of epilepsy/seizures

A

Common - 0.5% prevalence active epilepsy

Any age - 5-10% risk single seizure

465
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Circle of Willis is a collateral network of large arteries situated at the base of the brain within the subarachnoid space, surrounded by CSF
  • SAH occurs when blood extravasates into this space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater
  • Most common reason for SAH is trauma
  • 85% of spontaneous/non-traumatic SAH result from saccular or berry aneurysms
    • Outpouchings of the intimal layer through the muscular wall of artery
    • Congenital weakness within muscular layer, later vulnerable to effects of smoking/hypertension, responsible for development of Berry aneurysms
    • Rare cases - polycystic kidney disease and connective tissue disease (e.g. Ehlers Danlos syndrome, Marfan syndrome)
466
Q
A
467
Q

How is the function of the vestibulocochlear nerve tested clinically?

A
  • Hearing
    • Whisper voice test - each ear individually, need 3/6 to pass
    • Audiometry
    • Rinne test - air vs bone conduction, normal = air > bone, abnormal suggests conductive hearing loss
    • Weber test - test symmetrical inner ear function, press tuning fork against forehead
  • Balance
    • March on spot with eyes closed - turn to side of lesion
    • Test vestibulocochlear reflex - turn head quickly
468
Q

Describe the function and anatomy of the vestibulocochlear nerve

A
  • Sensory
    • Function - balance
    • Nucleus - pons and medulla
    • Structure innervated - nerve endings within semi-circular canals –> cerebellum and spinal cord
  • Sensory
    • Function - hearing
    • Nucleus - pons and medulla
    • Structure innervated - cochlear –> auditory cortex in the temporal lobes
469
Q

Give examples of multiple cranial nerve syndromes

A
  • Cavernous sinus - CN III, IV, V (1st and 2nd divisions), VI Horner’s syndrome
  • Superior orbital fissure - III, IV, V (1st division), VI
  • Cerebellopontine angle - V, VII, VIII
  • Jugular foramen - IX, X (and XI)
  • Bulbar/pseudobulbar palsy - IX, X, XI (and XIII)
470
Q

When should you suspect something other than MS?

A
  • Sudden onset
  • Peripheral signs - areflexia, glove and stocking distribution, muscle wasting, fasciculations
  • Major cognitive involvement
  • Reduced level of consciousness
  • Prominent seizures
  • Pyrexia/evidence of infection
  • Normal MRI scan
471
Q

How is dementia diagnosed?

A
  • Relevant investigations
    • MRI (CT), SPECT, CSF etc.
  • Cognitive assessment
  • History including functional status
  • Physical examination - often less relevant
472
Q

Which headache patients should be imaged?

A

SSSNOOPPP

  • Systemic symptoms
  • Secondary risk factors
  • Seizures
  • Neurological symptoms
  • Onset
  • Older
  • Progression (including change in attack frequency, nature)
  • Papilloedema
  • Precipitated by cough, exertion, sleep, Valsalva

CSF

  • Change in nature of headache (or new headache)
  • Systemic symptoms or signs
  • Focal neurological deficit

Image those in whom a primary headache cannot be diagnosed.

473
Q

How is the function of the optic nerve tested clinically?

A
  • Visual field - cover one eye, move finger in all 4 quadrants
  • Peripheral fields - move fingers in upper and lower quadrants at periphery, say which finger moves
  • Visual acuity - cover one eye and read letters from Snellen chart (start at 6m away, wear glasses if needed)
  • Pupil reflexes - direct and consensual responses, swinging flashlight test
474
Q

List the classes of drugs used in the managment of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • L-dopa
  • Dopamine agonists
  • MAO-B inhibitors
  • COMT inhibitors
475
Q

Describe the features of the pia mater

A
  • V thin, tightly adhered to surface of brain/spinal cord - Follows contours of brain gyri/sucli - Highly vascularised, BVs perforate through to supply the underlying neural tissue - Anchored to brain by processes of astrocytes (glial cells) - Unicellular membrane
476
Q

Where does the hypoglossal nerve exit the cranium?

A

Hypoglossal canal

477
Q

What is the ischaemic penumbra?

A

Area of potentially salvageable tissue, damaged by ischaemia

478
Q

What is the consequence of an inferiot optic radiation (Meyer’s loop) lesion?

A

Contralateral superior quadrantopia