Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

The function of the cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that __________.

a) have a random assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes
b) have the same number of chromatids as the parent cell had chromosomes
c) have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell but not the same genetic content
d) are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred)
e) None of the choices are correct

A

d) are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cytokinesis refers to __________.

a) division of the nucleus
b) movement of a cell from one place to another
c) reduction in the number of chromosomes
d) division of the entire cell
e) division of the cytoplasm

A

e) division of the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chromatids are __________.

a) identical copies of each other if they are part of the same chromosome
b) held together by the centrioles
c) the bacterial equivalent of eukaryotic chromosomes
d) composed of RNA
e) found only in aberrant chromosomes

A

a) identical copies of each other if they are part of the same chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a cell contains 60 chromatids at the start of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell at the completion of the cell cycle?

a) 15
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60
e) 120

A

b) 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During interphase, the genetic material of a typical eukaryotic cell is __________.

a) transported through the nuclear pores
b) condensed and the chromosomes are often visible under the light microscope
c) attached to microtubule spindle fibers
d) dispersed in the nucleus as long strands of chromatin
e) dispersed in the cytoplasm as long strands of chromatin

A

d) dispersed in the nucleus as long strands of chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in the cells doubled __________.

a) between the G1 and G2 phases of interphase
b) between prophase and anaphase of mitosis
c) between anaphase and telophase of mitosis
d) during the M phase of the cell cycle

A

a) between the G1 and G2 phases of interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

a) alignment of chromosomes along the cell’s equator
b) the movement of chromosomes to opposite poles
c) separation of chromatids
d) replication of chromosomes
e) condensation of chromatin

A

d) replication of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and the chromatin uncoils. This is essentially the opposite of what happens in __________.

a) anaphase
b) interphase
c) prophase
d) metaphase
e) S phase

A

c) prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which phase of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prometaphase in terms of the nuclear envelope?

a) interphase
b) telophase
c) S phase
d) metaphase
e) anaphase

A

b) telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a human skin cell that is going through the cell cycle, when do the centrosomes separate?

a) prophase
b) metaphase
c) S phase
d) G2 phase
e) anaphase

A

a) prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is a function of mitosis in humans?

a) increasing genetic variability
b) decreasing the number of chromosomes
c) multiplication of body cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell
d) production of sperm
e) production of eggs

A

c) multiplication of body cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Following cytokinesis in an animal cell, how many centrioles does each new daughter cell possess?

zero
one
two
four
eight

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

One event occurring during prophase is __________.

a) the beginning of the formation of a spindle apparatus
b) cytokinesis
c) division of the centromere
d) the alignment of chromosomes in a single plane
e) the synthesis of a new nuclear envelope

A

a) the beginning of the formation of a spindle apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In animal cell mitosis, the cleavage furrow forms during which stage of the cell cycle?

a) the G1 phase
b) cytokinesis
c) prophase
d) metaphase
e) anaphase

A

b) cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes lined up in one plane in preparation for their separation to opposite poles of the cell?

a) telophase
b) interphase
c) anaphase
d) prophase
e) metaphase

A

e) metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You would know a dividing cell was a plant cell rather than an animal cell if you saw that __________.

a) it had formed a cleavage furrow
b) it had microtubules
c) it had two pairs of centrioles during prophase
d) it had formed a cell plate
e) the nucleolus was visible during metaphase

A

d) it had formed a cell plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When a cell in S phase is experimentally fused with a cell in G1 phase, __________.

a) the chromosomes of the original G1 nucleus condense in preparation for mitosis
b) DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G1nucleus
c) the original G1 cell will divide immediately
d) the two nuclei fuse and further division is arrested
e) the replication of DNA occurring in the original S nucleus is terminated

A

b) DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G1nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tissue culture experiments with PDGF demonstrate that without this substance __________.

a) cells divide in an uncontrolled fashion, confirming PDGF’s role as a cell division inhibitor
b) bacterial cells lose their resistance to antibiotics
c) the various kinases, such as MPF, are unable to bind to cyclin
d) animal cells are unable to attach to the substratum
e) fibroblasts fail to divide

A

e) fibroblasts fail to divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells __________.

a) exhibit anchorage dependence
b) spend the majority of their time in the G0 phase
c) produce molecules that inhibit the growth factors required for cell division
d) do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition
e) All of the listed responses are correct.

A

d) do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which best describes the kinetochore?

a) a structure composed of several proteins that associate with the centromere region of a chromosome and b) that can bind to spindle microtubules
the centromere region of a metaphase chromosome at which the D N A can bind with spindle proteins
c) the array of vesicles that will form between two dividing nuclei and give rise to the metaphase plate
d) the ring of actin microfilaments that will cause the appearance of the cleavage furrow
e) the core of proteins that forms the cell plate in a dividing plant cell

A

a) a structure composed of several proteins that associate with the centromere region of a chromosome and b) that can bind to spindle microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For what is cell division used?

a) infection
b) growth
c) repair
d) None of the listed choices is correct.
e) growth/repair

A

e) growth/repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does nuclear DNA enter daughter cells?
a) during replication with microtubule proteins
b) as identical copies of the same chromosomes
c) during G1 when ribosomes disappear
d) as four copies of each chromosome per daughter cell
e) attached to all other chromosomes in that cell

A

b) as identical copies of the same chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If you were asked to label a model of a chromosome, the central portion of a replicated chromosome would be labeled

a) kinetochore.
b) sister.
c ) arm.
d) centromere.
e) Not enough information is provided to decide.

A

d) centromere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you saw a cell with condensed chromosomes lined up in the center of the cell, you would know that the cell was in

a) prophase.
b) prometaphase.
c) metaphase.
d) anaphase.
e) telophase.

A

c) metaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If you saw a cell with chromosomes condensing, you would know that the cell was in

a) prophase.
b) prometaphase.
c) metaphase.
d) anaphase.
e) telophase.

A

a) prophase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If you saw a cell with chromosomes separating but not yet at the poles, you would know that the cell was in

a) prophase.
b) prometaphase.
c) metaphase.
d) anaphase.
e) telophase

A

d) anaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If you saw a cell reversing the changes to chromosomes seen in prophase, you would know that the cell was in

a) prophase.
b) prometaphase.
c) metaphase.
d) anaphase.
e) telophase.

A

e) telophase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At what part of the cell cycle would you see a chromosome that looks like this?

a) G1
b) G2
c) M
d) S
e) None of the listed responses are correct

A

c) M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If the nuclear envelope has disappeared but the condensed chromosomes are not yet lined up, the cell is in

a) prophase.
b) prometaphase.
c) metaphase.
d) anaphase.
e)telophase.

A

b) prometaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many chromosomes are in the middle cell?

1
2
4
8
None of the listed responses are correct

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Stained microtubules are marked with a laser during mitosis. How would you explain the results shown?

a) Chromosomes are separated by microfilaments.
b) Chromosomes are not separated.
c) Microtubules shorten at the centrosome end.
d) Microtubules shorten at the chromosome end.
e) None of the listed answers are correct.

A

d) Microtubules shorten at the chromosome end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Told to label this model of the cell cycle during which the cell divides, you would look in the part representing

a) S phase.
b) cytokinesis.
c) G1 phase
d) G2 phase
e) mitosis

A

b) cytokinesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration of a glucose molecule?

a) glycolysis
b) the citric acid cycle
c) the electron transport chain
d) reduction of pyruvate to lactate

A

a) glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is

a) O2
b) H2O
c) NAD+
d) pyruvate
e) None of the listed choices is correct.

29
Q

Most CO2 from catabolism is released during the citric acid cycle.

True
False

29
Q

What is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction?

a) pyruvate
b) oxygen
c) NADH
d) lactate
e) None of the listed choices is correct.

A

a) pyruvate

29
Q

A monosaccharide (glucose) is formed from a polysaccharide (starch) in what kind of reaction?

a) catabolic reaction
b) oxidation-reduction reaction
c) anabolic reaction
d) biosynthetic reaction

A

a) catabolic reaction

30
Q

If anabolic reactions exceed catabolic reactions, the result will be ________.

a) weight gain
b) weight loss
c) development of disease
d) None of the listed choices is correct.

A

a) weight gain

31
Q

An energized electron removed from a molecule during cellular respiration is stripped of its energy to __________.

a) actively transport H+ into the intermembrane space
b) actively transport NAD+ into the intermembrane space
c) actively transport Na+ into the matrix
d) power facilitated diffusion of H+ into the matrix
e) actively transport H+ into the matrix

A

a) actively transport H+ into the intermembrane space

32
Q

What is the purpose of fermentation reactions?
a) to regenerate NAD+ so glycolysis can continue
b) to make alcohol or lactic acid that cells can metabolize for energy under anaerobic conditions
c) to make additional A T P when respiration can’t make A T P fast enough
d) to slow down cellular oxygen consumption when oxygen is scarce
e) to make organic molecules that cells can store until oxygen becomes available

A

b) to make alcohol or lactic acid that cells can metabolize for energy under anaerobic conditions

33
Q

What do cells require to sustain high rates of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions?

a) NAD+
b) functioning mitochondria
c) oxygen
d) production of A T P
e) All of the choices are correct.

33
Q

During intense exercise, when muscles lack sufficient oxygen, what will the muscles use to get energy?

a) lactic acid fermentation
b) alcohol fermentation
c) the citric acid cycle
d) chemiosmosis

A

a) lactic acid fermentation

34
Q

Aerobic cellular respiration results in the production of these two products.

a) ATP and H2O
b) NADH and FADH2
c) ATP and pyruvate
d) ATP and glucose
e) O2 (oxygen)

A

a) ATP and H2O

35
Q

Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.

True
False

36
Q

What are the three main stages of cellular respiration?

a) glycolysis, the citric acid (Krebs) cycle, and the electron transport chain.
b) glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, chemiosmosis
c) the citric acid (Krebs) cycle, pyruvate oxidation, electron transport chain
d) glycolysis, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation

A

a) glycolysis, the citric acid (Krebs) cycle, and the electron transport chain.

37
Q

When FAD becomes FADH2, the coenzyme has been ________.

a) reduced
b) oxidized
c) metabolized
d) hydrolyzed
e) phosphorylated

A

a) reduced

38
Q

If studying a bacterial cell dividing, you would need to know about

A. cytokinesis.
B. binary fission.
C. microtubules.
D. microfilaments.
E. nuclear envelope.

A

B. binary fission.

39
Q

What lines up chromosomes at the center of the cell in
metaphase?

A. equal pulling from opposite poles
B. pushing by mitochondria
C. displacement by the cleavage furrow
D. repulsion by the spindle
E. None of the answers is correct.

A

A. equal pulling from opposite poles

39
Q

For what is cell division used?
A. infection
B. growth
C. repair
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

39
Q

How many chromosomes are in the middle cell?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

40
Q

If you had a chemical to block ________, cells would stall during the
cell cycle and never synthesize DNA.

A. the G 1 checkpoint
B. the M checkpoint
C. the G 2 checkpoint
D. A or B
E. A or C

A

A. the G 1 checkpoint

41
Q

A dolphin has a total of 44 chromosomes in it somatic (body)
cells. Following mitosis, each daughter cell would have a total
of ______ chromosomes.

A) 12
B) 44
C) 88
D) 22
E) None of the choices is correct

42
Q

Which is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

a) C6H12O6
b) CO2
c) O2
d) H2O

42
Q

Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration of a glucose molecule?

a) the electron transport chain
b) glycolysis
c) the citric acid cycle
d) oxygenation

A

b) glycolysis

43
Q

The citric acid (Krebs) cycle converts ________ through a cycle of reactions. In the process, ATP, ________, and ________ are produced.
a) acetyl CoA; FAD, NAD
b) acetyl CoA; FADH2; NADH
c) pyruvate; oxygen; oxaloacetate
d) pyruvate; NAD; FADH2

A

b) acetyl CoA; FADH2; NADH

44
Q

Assume that you are dealing with a species that has 14 chromosomes per somatic cell. How many sister chromatids are present in the telophase of mitosis?

a )14
b) 0
c) None of the listed choices are correct.
d) 7
e) 28

A

c) None of the listed choices are correct.

45
Q

Which represents an incorrect description?

a) metaphase: the nuclear envelope breaks down and disappears
b) anaphase: there is movement of the chromosomes to the poles
c) metaphase: chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane
d) prophase: chromosomes become more tightly coiled
e) telophase: chromosomes become more extended

A

a) metaphase: the nuclear envelope breaks down and disappears

45
Q

Which pathway produces the most ATP molecules?

a) the electron transport chain
b) lactic acid fermentation
c) glycolysis
d) the citric acid (Krebs) cycle

A

a) the electron transport chain

45
Q

Which correctly states the relationship between anabolic and catabolic pathways?

a) Energy derived from catabolic pathways is used to drive the breakdown of organic molecules in anabolic pathways.
b) Degradation of organic molecules by anabolic pathways provides the energy to drive catabolic pathways.
c) Anabolic pathways synthesize more complex organic molecules using the energy derived from catabolic pathways.
d) Catabolic pathways produce usable cellular energy by synthesizing more complex organic molecules.
e) The flow of energy between catabolic and anabolic pathways is reversible.

A

c) Anabolic pathways synthesize more complex organic molecules using the energy derived from catabolic pathways.

46
Q

When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the following changes occurs?

a) The pH of the mitochondrial matrix increases.
b) ATP synthase pumps protons by active transport.
c) NAD+ is oxidized.
d) The electrons gain free energy.

A

a) The pH of the mitochondrial matrix increases.

46
Q

When a cell in S phase is experimentally fused with a cell in G1 phase, __________.

a) the original G1 cell will divide immediately
b) the replication of DNA occurring in the original S nucleus is terminated
c) the chromosomes of the original G1 nucleus condense in preparation for mitosis
d) the two nuclei fuse and further division is arrested
e) DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G1nucleus

A

e) DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G1nucleus

47
Q

If asked what part of the cell cycle an adult’s eukaryotic cell was in, you would be most likely correct if you guessed

a) S phase.
b) prophase.
c) G1 phase.
d) interphase.
e) anaphase

A

d) interphase.

48
Q

Electron transport chain is directly involved in the production of ATP during cellular respiration.
True
False

48
Q

Which of the following phrases best describes cytokenesis?

a) division of the nucleus
b) division of the cytoplasm
c) division of surface area
d) division of DNA
e) None of the listed choices are correct.

A

b) division of the cytoplasm

49
Q

You would be unlikely to see which human cell dividing?

a) cell from an embryo
b) skin cell
c) intestinal lining cell
d) nerve cell
e) cancer cel

A

d) nerve cell

49
Q

When NAD+ becomes NADH, the coenzyme has been ________.

a) metabolized
b) hydrolyzed
c) oxidized
d) reduced
e) glycolysized

A

c) oxidized

49
Q

Catabolism involves ________to _________energy.

a) Not enough information is provided to decide.
b) reduction; release
c) oxidation; store
d) reduction; store
e) oxidation; release

A

e) oxidation; release

49
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phase of mitosis?

Prophase

None of the listed choices are correct.

Metaphase

Interphase

Anaphase

A

interphase

50
Q

If you wanted to create a drug to stop chromosomes from properly lining up at the metaphase plate during mitosis, but otherwise not disturb the overall process, you would want to disrupt.

cytokinesis.
DNA condensation.
kinetochores.
Not enough information
DNA synthesis

A

Kinetochores

51
Q

The complex of DNA and protein that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome is properly called __________.

a) a chromoplast
b) a centromere
c) chromatin
d) a chromatid
e) a centrosome

A

c) chromatin

51
Q

To disrupt cytokinesis in a plant cell, you need to disrupt

a) all microtubules.
b) the contractile ring.
c) microtubules near the cell plate.
d) all microfilaments.
e) spindle microtubules.

A

c) microtubules near the cell plate.

52
Q

Brown fat can generate heat without A T P by using uncouplers, which help protons diffuse across the membrane. What will happen to A T P synthesis and oxygen consumption in brown fat if the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle stay the same while an uncoupler functions?

a) A T P synthesis will decrease; oxygen consumption will stay the same.
b) A T P synthesis will increase; oxygen consumption will decrease.
c) A T P synthesis will decrease; oxygen consumption will increase.
d) Both A T P synthesis and oxygen consumption will increase.
e) Both A T P synthesis and oxygen consumption will decrease.

A

a) A T P synthesis will decrease; oxygen consumption will stay the same.

53
Q

The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation is the

a) oxidation of glucose and other organic compounds.
d) flow of electrons down the electron transport chain.
c) transfer of phosphate to ADP.
d) H+ concentration gradient across the membrane holding ATP synthase.

A

d) H+ concentration gradient across the membrane holding ATP synthase.

54
Q

Most CO2 from catabolism is released during

a) none of the listed choices is correct
b) the citric acid cycle
c) glycolysis
d) electron transport

A

b) the citric acid cycle

55
Q

The process of cellular respiration always requires the presence of oxygen.
True
False

56
Q

A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with __________.

a) 32 chromosomes
b) None of the listed choices are correct.
c) 64 chromosomes
d) 32 pairs of chromosomes
e) 16 chromosomes

A

a) 32 chromosomes

57
Q

Anabolic reactions use energy by ________.
a) turning ADP into ATP
b) None of the listed choices is correct.
c) removing a phosphate group from ATP
d) breaking down molecules into smaller parts
e) producing heat

A

c) removing a phosphate group from ATP

58
Q

The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is

a) glucose
b) NAD+
c) H2O
d) O2
e) pyruvate

58
Q

Which best describes the kinetochore?

a) the array of vesicles that will form between two dividing nuclei and give rise to the metaphase plate
b) the centromere region of a metaphase chromosome at which the D N A can bind with spindle proteins
c) the ring of actin microfilaments that will cause the appearance of the cleavage furrow
d) a structure composed of several proteins that associate with the centromere region of a chromosome and that can bind to spindle microtubules
e) the core of proteins that forms the cell plate in a dividing plant cell

A

d) a structure composed of several proteins that associate with the centromere region of a chromosome and that can bind to spindle microtubules

58
Q

During which phase in the cell cycle would you find the most DNA per cell?

a) S
b) G1
c) None of the listed responses are correct
d) G2
e) prophase II

58
Q

During binary fission in a bacterium __________.

a) the two DNA molecules divide in half, forming four DNA fragments
b) the two DNA molecules attach to the centrioles
c) the two DNA molecules break up into plasmids
d) the two DNA molecules float free in the cell and are guided to daughter cells by a spindle-like apparatus
e) the origins of replication move apart

A

e) the origins of replication move apart

59
Q

Glycolysis results in the production of two ________ molecules from a single molecule of glucose. In the absence of ________, the end product of glycolysis is ________.

a) ATP, carbon, pyruvate
b) pyruvate, oxygen, lactate
c) None of the listed choices is correct.
d) pyruvate, carbon, acetyl CoA
d) acetyl CoA, pyruvate, lactate

A

b) pyruvate, oxygen, lactate

59
Q

If a normal somatic human cell is just about to divide, it has __________ chromatids.
a) There is not enough information to answer the question.
b) 92
c) 23
d) 0
e) 46