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MSA Organ Systems I > Week 7 > Flashcards

Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

How Streptococci appear on Gram stain?

A

They appear as gram-positive (purple) cocci chains or in pairs.

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2
Q

Would the catalase test be useful when distinguishing between Strep and Staph?

A

Yes! Strep is catalase negative.

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3
Q

This test is used to differentiate Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus into groups A and B. What is the test?

A

Bacitracin Sensitivity test

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4
Q

To remember what the Bacitracin sensitivity test isolates: B-BRAS stands for what?

A

Bacitracin: group B strep are Resistant; group A strep are Sensitive

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5
Q

This test is a chemical used in cell culture techniques to discriminate S. pneumonia from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci. What is the test?

A

Optochin test

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6
Q

To remember what the optochin test isolates: what is OVRPS?

A

(overpass) Optochin: Viridans are Resistant; Pneumoniae are Sensitive

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7
Q

Strep can be found where in/on the body?

A

Nasopharynx, oral cavity, skin and vagina.

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8
Q

One of S. pyogenes’ virulence factors utilizes the __ protein to inhibit ______ and _______ by blocking complement.

A

M protein

Opsonization and phagocytosis

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9
Q

________ converts plasminogen to _____ and results in fibrinolysis that aids in the spread of S. pyogenes through adjacent tissues.

A

Streptokinase

Plasmin

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10
Q

____ is another name for S. pyogenes.

A

GAS

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11
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis is a rapidly progressive infection of the _____.

A

Deep fascia

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12
Q

S. pneumoniae’s most important virulence factor is having a ____.

A

Capsule

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13
Q

Another virulence factor of S. pneumoniae aids in bacterial spread by cleaving secretory ____, which is present in mucus.

A

IgA

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14
Q

S. pneumoniae is _______(type of hemolysis) and secretes an exotoxin known as ______.

A

Alpha-hemolytic

Pneumolysin

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15
Q

The presence of a capsule allows strep to spread systemically and even cross the _________.

A

Blood brain barrier

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16
Q

_______, is most commonly transmitted via the birth canal, and is a common cause of many neonatal infections.

A

S. agalactiae AKA (GBS)

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17
Q

Pneumonia is often treated with either a _____ and will almost always get an IV third-generation _____.

A

Macrolide

Cephalosporin

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18
Q

Treatments for most other infections caused by strep species involve penicillins like _______ and _______.

A

Amoxicillin and penicillin G

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19
Q

How does V. cholerae cause a massive watery diarrhea?

A

V. cholerae produces cholera toxin, which increases the intracellular concentration of cAMP (because Gs cannot be turned off) in intestinal cells and enhances NaCl secretion, which also inhibits water reabsorption.

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20
Q

The diarrhea associated with V. cholerae is described as “_____” stools due to its consistency of water and white chunks of ____.

A

Rice-water

mucus

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21
Q

Why is rehydration in V. cholerae infections important?

A

Fluid secretion results in a massive loss of fluid, sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate. This loss of fluid can result in hypovolemic shock.

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22
Q

What is the difference between antibiotics and antibacterials?

A

Antibiotics, better known as antimicrobials, include those meds target fungi, archaea, parasites, and bacteria, whereas antibacterials target bacteria specifically.

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23
Q

What are the three general mechanisms used by antibacterial agents?

A

Generally, inhibiting cell wall or membrane synthesis, inhibiting DNA and/RNA synthesis, or inhibiting protein synthesis.

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24
Q

What do each of these meds inhibit within the bacterial cell?

1) Vancomycin/Bacitracin:
2) Amoxicillin:
3) Tetracyclines and Gentamycin/Tobramycin:
4) Chloramphenicol, Macrolides (Erythromycin):
5) Ciprofloxacin:
6) Rifampin:
7) Sulfonamides:

A

1) Peptidoglycan synthesis
2) Peptidoglycan cross-linking
3) 30S subunit ribsome
4) Protein synthesis
5) Gyrase (DNA gyrase)
6) mRNA synthesis (RNA polymerase)
7) Folic acid synthesis and reduction (DNA methylation)

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25
Q

______/______ inhibit bacterial topoisomerase leading to DNA damage.

A

Quinlones/Fluoroquinolones

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26
Q

What is the terminology used to describe the antibacterial therapy that may be initiated before knowing the culprit organism?

A

Empirical treatment describes the treatment.

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27
Q

Penicillin structure consists of a ____ ring fused to a thiazolidine ring.

A

Beta-lactam

28
Q

What is the structure of penicillins?

A

A Beta-lactam ring is the core structure of penicillins and all Beta-lactam antibiotics.

29
Q

Beta-lactam binds _____ to transpeptidase (Penicillin binding protein) enzyme, that cross-links the linear peptidoglycan chain components of the cell wall.

A

Noncompetitively (irreversibly)

30
Q

What happens to host cells with Penicillin? Are they damaged too?

A

No, because human cells do not have cell walls, neither make or need peptidoglycan.

31
Q

One minor mechanism of resistance is the presence of mutations in ______, leading to structural changes such that the antibiotic no longer binds.

A

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

32
Q

What is the main bacterial mechanism of resistance against a penicillin antibiotic?

A

The production of Beta-lactamase (penicillinase). Others includes mutations in PBPs and structural changes in the bacterial outer membrane.

33
Q

What are some of the drugs used to protect penicillin from being destroyed by Beta-lactamases?

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitors! Given in combo with penicillins.

Clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam.

34
Q

Antibiotic-associated colitis caused by ______ may occur during or immediately after therapy with a penicillin.

A

Clostridioides difficile

35
Q

_______ antibiotics can interact with the A, P, and E sites or other parts of the ribosome to inhibit or kill bacteria.

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor (PSI)

36
Q

Are tetracyclines considered bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bactiostatic because their MOA is restricted to only halting protein synthesis, which does not cause bacterial death.

37
Q

What rRNAs on the 50S subunit do most 50S RIAs bind to?

A

Common site of action for chloramphenicol, macrolides, clindamycin, and streptogramins is 23s rRNA (contains peptidyl transferase which has a pivotal role in protein synthesis making it a valuable target for antibiotics)

38
Q

Which resistance mechanism is most applicable to aminoglycosides?

A

Enzymatic inactivation. Like Health care-associated bacteria have been known to develop enzymes that inactivate aminoglycosides through acylation.

39
Q

Bacteria can actively transport protein synthesis inhibitors out of their cytoplasm to reduce antibiotic activity. These are called what?

A

Efflux pumps

40
Q

_____ syndrome is specific to chloramphenicol and is potentially fatal and characteristically presents with hypotension and cyanosis.

A

Gray baby syndrome

41
Q

For Aminoglycosides: Protein mistranslation can produce abnormal, nonfunctional ribosomes, causing irreversible inhibition and ______.

A

bacterial death

42
Q

Name a Rickettsia rickettsi treatment and type of lab test to confirm.

A

Doxycycline

Serology and PCR (For non-gram staining bacteria)

43
Q

Out of all the non-gram staining bacteria, which is a sprirochete?

A

Borrelia burgdoferi

44
Q

What is a slow growing disease, where you need to treat with dapsone, rifampin, and clofazamine?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

45
Q

Which bacteria will you often see MRSA, TSS, food poisoning, and many more?

A

S. aureus

46
Q

Which bacteria’s toxin causes the disease manifested but not the bacteria itself, and is anaerobic?

A

C. tetani

47
Q

What is the shape of Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Cocci, chains

48
Q

What is the bacteria that presents with impetigo, pustular crusty rash, and can be treated with Penicillin G?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

49
Q

Which Gram negative bacteria uses the Thayer Martin test?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Perhaps Thayer Martin is also the maltose fermentation test.

50
Q

Which bacteria is a coccobacilli and needs factors X and V, and treated with Rifampin prophylaxis and Hib vaccine?

A

Haemophilus influenza-b

51
Q

What bacteria gives a green culture, and must be treated with anti-pseudomonas penicillin and aminoglycoside?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

52
Q

E. coli can be treated with ____ and _____.

A

TMP-SMX

PCN

53
Q

Which does NOT cause UTI?
E. coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

54
Q

Which bacteria causes Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia burgdoferi

55
Q

What bacteria needs to be treated with MRSA vancomycin?

A

S. aureus

56
Q

What is gram positive and anaerobic, associated with a vaccine as well?

A

Clostridium tetani

Vaccine is Tdap

57
Q

Which of the bacteria tests positive for Bacitracin sensitivity? Is it gram positive or gram negative?

A

B-BRAS
Group A Lancefield is Sensitive, which includes S. pyogenes.
It is gram positive

58
Q

Is V. cholerae oxidase positive or negative?

A

Oxidase positive

59
Q

What is the reason why Rickettsia rickettsi cannot be stained?

A

It is an intracellular bacteria

60
Q

What is the reason why M. leprae cannot be stained?

A

It has a waxy surface

61
Q

Which bacteria has no cell wall?

A

M. pneumoniae

62
Q

What is the mechanism for Doxycycline, and what diseases does it usually treat?

A

Doxycycline inhibits the 30S ribosomal subunit, so translation cannot occur within the bacterial cell. It will usually treat Rickettsia rickettsi and Borrelia burgdoferi

63
Q

In treating S. aureus, we use MRSA vancomycin, what is its mechanism and does it have a Beta-lactam ring association?

A

Vancomycin works against cell wall synthesis, mostly against peptidoglycan synthesis. It does NOT have a beta-lactam ring.

64
Q

How would you treat someone who presents with chain appearing cocci, with TSS, and impetigo?

A

Penicillin G (natural PCN)

65
Q

What does coagulase do? What is its substrate and product?

A

Coagulase converts fibrinogen to fibrin, and serves as a coat. Normally will thicken the sample.

MSA Organ Systems I (8 decks)

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