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MSA Organ Systems I > Week 4 > Flashcards

Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Where in the body does VDJ occur?

A

Bone marrow

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2
Q

Where is the first place T and B cells will go once they enter the lymph node?

A

Pericortical region

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3
Q

Name two Antimicrobial peptides present in blood or tissue that can kill certain bacteria (by disrupting membrane integrity).

A

Defensins and Cathelicidin

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4
Q

True/False: Defensins and Cathelicidins are most effective together than they are alone.

A

True

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5
Q

An Acute Phase Protein includes another type of protein within its class that responds to pro-inflammatory cytokines, and acts as an Opsonin. What is the protein?

A

C reactive protein (CRP)

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6
Q

C reactive protein is elevated in ALL but:

1) Infection
2) Cancer
3) Oral contraceptive patients
4) Healthy individual

A

Elevated CRP exists in all BUT a healthy individual.

Yes, even in pregnant women does it exist.

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7
Q

Dendritic cells can link the ____ and ____ immune response.

A

Innate and adaptive

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8
Q

True/False: Large number Macrophages are present prior to infection.

A

False! They will get recruited 1-2 days after infection.

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9
Q

Macrophages contribute to adaptive immunity by activating _______.

A

T- cell antigen presentation

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10
Q

Does the Phagosome do the “killing” in the process of Phagocytosis?

A

No, It is further down the line when it fuses and makes Phagolysosome.

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11
Q

True/False: Natural Killer cells can kill bacteria or other microbes directly.

A

False! Only responsible for virus-infected cells.

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12
Q

Would the expression of MHC I on a cell be an inhibitory receptor ligand or an activating receptor ligand to the Natural Killer cell?

A

It would be an inhibitory receptor ligand. Saying, “Wait, you’re killing you own!”

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13
Q

Are PRRs part of the innate or adaptive immune system?

A

Innate

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14
Q

In Ultrasound imaging, the dark areas seen there would be termed: ______

A

Anechoic

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15
Q

When contrast is added to CT, what shows up most strongly?

A

Vessels and viscera appear brighter

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16
Q

Would a stroke show up light or dark on a brain CT?

A

Chronic hemorrhage (e.g. stoke) would show up dark.

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17
Q

Satellite regions: stretches of DNA ____ that don’t code for anything.

A

repeats

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18
Q

What is the directionality of DNA?

A

5’ to 3’ (the way it is synthesized)

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19
Q

In order to read DNA, you need access through the _____ groove.

A

Major

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20
Q

RNA includes ___ instead of ____ (bases)

A

Uracil instead of Thymine

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21
Q

True/False: Only 5% of the average gene is exons!

A

True

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22
Q

Promoter region of a gene is ~____ upstream.

A

25-30

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23
Q

DNA Recombination leads to ______ changes in genetic info.

A

Permanent

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24
Q

Name the Chemical/Protein Mediators of Inflammation:

1) ____ 2)____ 3) _____ 4) _____

A

1) Histamine
2) Kinins
3) Cytokines
4) Proteins present in serum that are activated following infection (like complement)

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25
Q

What are the most common Interleukins associated with Cytokines?

A

IL-6 and IL-1

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26
Q

Within the inflammation mediators, list the types of Cytokines. 1) ___ 2) ___ 3) ____ 4) ____

A

1) Interleukins
2) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF-alpha)
3) Interferons (anti-viral)
4) Chemokines

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27
Q

C3a and C5a can serve as ______ within the Complement system when tissues are damaged/infected.

A

Anaphylatoxins

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28
Q

The enzyme _____ is ONLY found in B cells, and allows the B cell to make cuts in the DNA, furthermore allowing class switching.

A

AID (Activation-Induced Deaminase)

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29
Q

Where in the body does Somatic Hyermutation occur? (2 places)

A

1) Germinal center of lymph node

2) Spleen

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30
Q

What happens if there is no function in AID?

A

Hyper IgM Immunodeficiency

People will have a hard time making other antibodies other than IgM. (see Goodnotes Somatic Hypermutation)

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31
Q

What are the two proteins involved in Mismatch Repair?

A

1) MSH2 and 2) MSH6

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32
Q

Does Somatic Hypermutation only occur in B cells?

A

Yes

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33
Q

The ____ in any given cell is just a subset of all possible gene products, (not all genes are expressed in every cell)

A

Proteome

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34
Q

______: act for good of the patient.

A

Beneficence

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35
Q

_____: do not harm patient.

A

Nonmaleficence

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36
Q

Uniparental Disomy occurs in ______ of Meiosis __?

A

Anaphase in Meiosis II

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37
Q

How do the following components of the innate immune system identify pathogens?

1) Phagocytes
2) Complement (3 answers)
3) Natural Killer cells (2 answers)

A

1) PRRs that recognize PAMPs on microbes.
2) a. IgM b. Microbial membrane c. Mannose-binding lecithin
3) Recognize (e.g. viruses) with inhibitory receptors (NKG2d) and activating receptors (NKG2a and KIR)

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38
Q

Describe the “Four topics” approach to clinical case analysis.

A

1) Medical Indications (Beneficence and nonmaleficence)
2) Patient preferences (Autonomy)
3) Quality of Life (Beneficence, nonmaleficence, and Autonomy)
4) Contextual features (Justice and Fairness)

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39
Q

_______: rightfulness determined by usefulness to those affected. Maximize the net good to the most people.

A

Utilitarian

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40
Q

_____: general universal moral laws; act is either right or wrong.

A

Deontology

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41
Q

______: based on consequences, “The end justifies the means.”

A

Consequentialism

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42
Q

_____: Enzymes that catalyze the same chemical reaction but differ in their physical and kinetic properties (e.g. tissue location, sequence)

A

Isozymes

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43
Q

Disease and cell/tissue damage cause release of intracellular enzymes. What kind of enzymes will we see in liver damage?

A

ALT (alanine aminotransferase)

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44
Q

What enzyme is associated with myocardial muscle and can determine myocardial infarction damage?

A

Creatinine Kinase (CK)

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45
Q

The transition state is when the substrates are at the _____.

A

Highest level of reaction

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46
Q

Lock and Key Model vs. Induced Fit Model in terms of enzyme binding. Explain the differences.

A

L&K: Absolute substrate specificity.

IF: Substrate must fit close enough, but there is flexibility in binding by the enzyme at the active site.

47
Q

An example of an Induced Fit Model involves Glucose, what is the name of the enzyme?

A

Hexokinase

Glucose ——–> Glucose-6-phosphate by Hexokinase

48
Q

Chymotrypsin, pancreatic protease uses ____ and _____ catalysis.

A

Acid-base and Covalent catalysis

49
Q

Amino acids involved in Chymotrypsin’s cleaving cycle mechanism are:

A

1) Asp 102
2) His57
3) Ser195 (one that turns into Alkoxide ion)

50
Q

1st step of mechanism of Chymotrypsin: _____

A

Histidine acts as base to abstract proton from Serine next to it.

51
Q

An example of a suicide enzyme and also has a part in Direct Repair: ______

A

Methylguanine Methyltransferase (MGMT)

52
Q

When thinking on Cofactors, 1) what are the two types? and 2) List an example of a cofactor and an enzyme it helps.

A

2 types: 1) Coenzymes and Metal cofactors
2) Cofactors: Nicotinamide Adenin Dinucleotide (Lactate Dehydrogenase), Biotin (Pyruvate carboxylase), and Mg2+(Hexokinase).

53
Q

What is a type of enzyme that acts similarly to a “substrate”?

A

A cofactor

54
Q

Prosthetic groups function as ______.

A

Co-enzymes

55
Q

Give an example or two of a coenzyme.

A

1) Biotin in pyruvate carboxylase (PC)

2) Heme in Hemoglobin (non-enzyme)

56
Q

In the TCR, which of the receptor chains has ITAM (Immune receptor activation motif)?

A

Gamma, delta, epsilon x2, and zeta x2.

NOT alpha and beta chains

57
Q

Activated T cell binds to IL-2 that it makes, making it an _____ stimulation.

A

Autocrine

58
Q

Stages of Change Model:

1) ______: no intent to change, problem NOT acknowledged.
2) _____: no intent to change, problem IS acknowledged.
3) Prepration: ________
4) Action: _____________
5) _______: work to prevent relapse.

A

1) Pre-contemplation
2) Contemplation
3) Intent to change
4) Modifies behavior or environment
5) Maintenance

59
Q

Doctor-patient relationship has been replaced by _________ relationship.

A

Team-patient

60
Q

The role of generation of energy done in the mitochondria is called: ________.

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

61
Q

What happens if there is a misfolded protein within the RER? What happens if there’s an excess of misfolded proteins?

A

If just one or few misfolds: the cell will just degrade it/get rid of it.
If excess misfolds: then Unfolded protein response is initiated.

62
Q

Define Unfolded protein response

A

When there is excessive misfolding of proteins in the RER, placing RER under stress further triggering cell to either try to re-fold the proteins or degrade them. The cell can stop making the protein, committing apoptosis.

63
Q

Peroxisomes: Degrade ____ and ____ compounds. They are the PRIMARY organelle for __________.

A

fatty acids and toxic compounds

Primary organelle for: fatty acid Beta-oxidation.

64
Q

Peroxisomes: also take part in the synthesis of ______, a phospholipid in the myelin sheath.

A

Plasmalogen

65
Q

Term that describes actin being added to the positive end of microfilament while being removed from the negative end.

A

Treadmilling

66
Q

When thinking of what the cytoskeleton does well, and looking deeper into the microfilaments of the cytoskeleton, what drugs would effect microfilaments?

A

Cytochalasin: blocks microfilaments elongation (binds + end)
Phalloidin: Inhibits dissociation of actin into monomers. (binds - end)

67
Q

What is a drug that can block Mitosis from happening all the way, because it binds to tubulin (inhibiting polymerization)?

A

Colchicine and Colcemid

68
Q

What drug stabilizes microtubules but blocks cell division from happening? Often used in breast and ovarian cancer.

A

Taxol

69
Q

What is the Extracellular matrix made up of?

A

Tough, fibrous proteins (collagen)
Matrix adhesion proteins
Basal laminae (thin sheet-like ECM, on which epithelial cells sit.

70
Q

What type of junction plays a part in epithelial mesenchymal transition (differentiation and morphogenesis)?

A

Adherens junctions

71
Q

In the replication fork, what is the purpose for the clamp?

A

Clamp ensures processivity, keeps DNA polymerase bound.

72
Q

What enzyme remove RNA primers on Okazaki fragments (lagging strand)?

A

RNase H

73
Q

How do dNTPs (Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate) interact with DNA Polymerases?

A

DNA polymerases use dNTPs to extend a DNA primer hybridized to a complementary DNA template.

74
Q

What are some drugs that can inhibit Topoisomerase?

A

Antibiotics: ciprofloxacin

Anti-cancer drug: etoposide (for Topo II)

75
Q

What is the overall fidelity of genomic integrity?

A

~1 error in 1*10^10 bases

76
Q

What is the Plasma membrane defect of some of the RBCs in sickle cell diseases?

A

Phosphatylserine is exposed on outer leaflet “Eat me” signal.

77
Q

What would occur adding cytochalasin to a tread milling actin filament?

A

Filament would become shorter due to reduced addition at the + end.

78
Q

What is the mechanism of the cisplatin drug used in chemotherapy?

A

Cross-linking agent that will structurally alter DNA by causing bends.

79
Q

HNPCC (Lynch Syndrome) is supposed to be corrected by what repair mechanism? (although it is defective here)

A

Mismatch Repair

80
Q

Describe the mechanism of Chloramphenicol (antibiotic).

A

It inhibits protein chain elongation by peptidyltransferase.

81
Q

What is the degeneracy of genetic code?

A

Each amino acid may be coded by multiple codons.

82
Q

What is a toxin that is metabolized by P450, and causes indirect structural damage to DNA?

A

Aflatoxin = fungal toxin

83
Q

Mismatch repair: recognizes mutations on ______ DNA strands. Hint: think of post-replication/recombination repair.

A

Newly synthesized DNA strands.

Not by damage like in BER.

84
Q

In NER for Xeroderma Pigmentosum, what is the mechanism of Pol nu?

A

Incorporates AA opposite cyclobutane thymine dimer to continue replication.

85
Q

True/False: you have loss of DNA in Homologous Recombination.

A

False, there is no loss of DNA.

86
Q

What is the essential protein used in Homologous Recombination?

A

Rad51

87
Q

In Apoptosis, what is the molecule that forms the Apoptosome?

A

Apaf-1

88
Q

How can you detect apoptosis in the lab?

A

You will see DNA Fragmentation on agarose gel electrophoresis or TUNEL.

89
Q

What is the process where cells remove/recycle components to get back to homeostasis, and can come from a reversible cell injury, and do not need caspases?

A

Autophagy

90
Q

Can other T cell antigens (ex: lipids and carbohydrates lead to memory B cells?

A

No, it must be peptide antigens that can be seen.

91
Q

In Primary immune response, what antibody should be produced more in regard to starting memory B cell response?

A

IgG should be, due to its high affinity

92
Q

Where in the body is IL-7 generated (multiple)?

A

Bone marrow, thymus, keratinocytes, Dendritic cells, Hepatocytes, and epithelial cells.

93
Q

Where in the body is IL-7 NOT generated?

A

In other lymphocytes.

94
Q

What are the two versions of CD45, the cell surface ligand that helps with identifying T cells?

A

1) CD45RA

2) CD45RO

95
Q

If Central memory T cells are activated by their antigen again, what happens?

A

It will proliferate again and produce new effector T cells.

96
Q

True/False: Effector Memory T cells remain in lymphoid tissues until activated.

A

False, central memory T cells do.

97
Q

What can cytokines do to immune cells?

A

Activation, Proliferation, and Differentiation.

98
Q

How can cytokines signal other cells?

A

By autocrine, paracrine, and endocrine (but only a little) signaling.

99
Q

True/False: Cytotoxic T cells are good at making IL-2.

A

False, they need it made from CD4+ T helper cells by paracrine signaling.

100
Q

What else will IL-1beta and TNF-alpha do besides endocrine signaling?

A

Recruit other immune cells to enhance inflammatory response.

101
Q

True/False: IFN-gamma is a type I Interferon.

A

False, it is a type II interferon.

102
Q

What can the Colony Stimulating Factor, GM-CSF stimulate to produce?

A

Granulocytes and macrophages

103
Q

TGF-beta is an inhibitory factor that will also help _____ become Regulatory cells to slow down _______.

A

CD4+ Helper T cells become regulatory cells to slow down inflammatory response.

104
Q

Cytokines can be one of three things (3 functions):

A

1) Pro-inflammtory
2) Anti-inflammatory
3) Growth factors

105
Q

What can the pro-inflammatory response do?

A

Enhance the innate and adaptive immune response, using IFN-alpha and IFN-beta.

106
Q

By Neutrophils, Macrophages, and Fibroblasts, what does IL-8 do?

A

Recruits phagocytes!

107
Q

Name the 5 classes of Cytokines.

A

1) Interleukins
2) Tumor Necrosis Factors
3) Interferons (IFNs)
4) Transforming Growth Factors (TGFs)
5) Colony Stimulating Factors (CSFs)

108
Q

The main response types of Cytokines:

1) _______
2) _______
3) Parasite/____
4) ______
5) Growth and ______
6) ______ agents

A

1) Acute Inflammatory
2) Pro-inflammatory
3) Parasite/Allergy
4) Regulatory
5) Growth and differentiation
6) Chemotactic agents

109
Q

CD8+ T cells use adhesion molecules like ____ on their surface to bind to molecules like ICAM which is found on the surface of most cells.

A

LFA-1

110
Q

Increase IL-2 production triggers _______ in T cells.

A

Clonal expansion

111
Q

Both natural killer cells and CD8+ T cells kill target cell by releasing granules which contain ______ and ______.

A

Perforin and Granzymes

112
Q

Natural killer cells are also able to kill using a method known as _______ which depends on their CD16 proteins that can bind to IgG antibodies.

A

Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

113
Q

During cross-presentation, costimulation is when a ligand called CD28 on the surface of a T cell binds to a ligand called ____ on the antigen presenting cell.

A

B7 (CD80)

114
Q

CD16 on Natural Killer cells recognize which Ig protein attached to dead T cell? Furthermore, what cytokine is produced to activate macrophages?

A

IgG

IFN-gamma

MSA Organ Systems I (8 decks)

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