Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Antepartum > Week 7 > Flashcards

Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Formal definition of Gestational Diabetic

A

GCM characterized as carb intolerance that begins or is first noticied in pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

glucose metablism in pregnancy is considered a ________ _______

A

diabetogenic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does insulin cross the placenta?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is GD not usually an issue in the first half of pregnancy?

A

Bc estorgen and progesterone casues a decrease in maternal glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does estorgen and progesterone decrease maternal glucose levels?

A

the cause hyperplasia of pancreatic beta cells which increases maternal insulin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the second half of pregnancy you have insulin _______

A

resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the second half of pregnancy you have increased hepatic production of ____

A

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

INsulin requirements may ____ in second half of pregnancy

A

triple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_______ is responsible for two insulin degrading enzymes

A

placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is somogyi response?

A

hypoglycemic response at night with rebound hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is dawn phenomenon?

A

increase in nighttime hypergycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when is ist appropriate to do first trimester screening for GD?

A

GDM in previous pregnancy, macrosomic infant in previous pregnancy, maternal obesity, hx of stillbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

acceptable range for 1 hr GTT

A

<140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rule of thumb for 3 hr GTT

A
  1. in the am after an overnight fast
  2. no smoking before the test
  3. follow unrestricted diet consuming at least 150g carb/day for three days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

fetal survaillence with GD at 16-20 weeks

A

genetic testing, amnio, level II US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fetal surveillence with GD at 20-22 weeks

A

level II or serial U/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fetal surveillence with GD at 28-32 weeks

A

kick counts, weekly NST, serial US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fetal lung maturaty test in GD to be doe routinly at

A

37-40 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What will the amnio show if fetal lung maturaty is established?

A

PG preset and LS ration 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should a person with GD have postpartum GTT?

A

6-8wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the leading global cuase of maternal and infant illness and death?

A

preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

definition of gestational hypertension

A

HTn ONLY in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

definition of preeclampsia

A

HTN state prior to eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

definition of superimposed preeclampsia

A

high readiness of preeclampsia on top of chronic HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

definition of chronic HTN

A

HTN either before pregnancy or dx before 20 weeks gestation and presistant after 12 weeks postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

HTN is diagnosed by waht reading?

A

140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is NOT criteria for hypertensive disorder?

A

edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Criteria for gestational hypertension

A
  1. detected for the first time after mid pregnancy
  2. NO protenuria
  3. Bp returns to normal after 12 weeks pp
  4. May have other s/s such as thrombocytopenia na depigastric discomfort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Criteria for preeclampsia

A
  1. minimum BP 140/90 after 20 weeks
  2. proteniuria >300mg/24 hours or greater >1+ dipstick
  3. increased LDH
  4. elevated ALT and AST
  5. persistant epigastric pain from swollen liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does HELLP syndrome stand for?

A

Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platalets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the renal effects of preeclampsia?

A
  • decreased GFR

- decreased clearance of protein, uric acid, and sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If diastolic is <100 and +1 protein…what condition?

A

mild preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

With preeclampsia serum creatianine and uric acid are _______

A

elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

vulvar mass at 5 or 7 o clock is what?

A

bartholins gland cyst or abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the course of action with a positive RPR?

A

requires confirmation with treponemal test (MHATP or FTA-ABS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When hcg levels above threshold and no IUP seen on transvag US, most likely _____

A

ectopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hcg should double every _____hours

A

48

38
Q

If a pt is hpyotensive or has severe adenexal pain…what is happening?

A

they are most likely bleeding internally from ruptured ectopic and require surgery immediatly

39
Q

open cervical os, cramping, hx of passing tissue =

A

incomplete ab

40
Q

closed cerival os, completion of bleeding and cramping follwing passage of tissue, with small firm uterus =

A

complete ab

41
Q

what is the most common cause of first trimester miscarriage?

A

fetal karyotype abnormality

42
Q

How do you treat an incompetant cervix with painless cervical dilation?

A

cerclage

43
Q

painless antepartum bleeding =

A

placenta previa

44
Q

painful antepartum bleeding =

A

abruption

45
Q

major risk factors for placental abruption are (3)

A

HTN, cocaine, trauma

46
Q

what is the most common cause of antepartum bleeding with coagulopathies?

A

abruption

47
Q

What is the KB test for?

A

used to measure the amt of fetal hgb trasnferred to mothers blood stream- usually done in rh negative moms

48
Q

What is the most common cause of generalized pruritis in pregnancy in the absence of actual lesions?

A

cholestatsis

49
Q

Where are the lesions of PUPPS usually noted?

A

abd spreading to thighs and buttocks and arms

50
Q

you cant see a PE on ______

A

chest xray

51
Q

what is the most common symptom of PE?

A

dyspnea

52
Q

PE is confirmed with a ______

A

CT scan

53
Q

What is the best tx of DVT or PE?

A

anticoagulation therapy

54
Q

______ is NOT diagnostic of preeclampsia

A

edema ( both dependent or non dependent)

55
Q

When is chronic HTN diagnosed?

A

When the pt has HTN prior to 20 weeks gestation or past 12 weeks pp

56
Q

How will an ovarian torsion present?

A

acute onset of colicky abd pain

57
Q

How with someone with an appendicitis present?

A

n/v, fever, anorexia, increased WBC, positive mcverneys (right lower abd)

58
Q

How so you determine between ectopic and corpus luteum cyst from products of conception?

A

ectopic will float in normal saline

59
Q

low TSH

A

hyperthyroidism (graves)

60
Q

high TSH

A

hypothyroidism (hashimotos)

61
Q

how does pregnancy effect thyroid hormones normally?

A
  • total thyroxine and thyroid binding globulin increase

- free t4 and TSH unchanged

62
Q

prime culprits for fifths diseae (parvo)

A

school teachers

63
Q

what can parvo (fifths disease) cause for baby’s

A

fetal anemia and fetal hydrops

64
Q

what is one of the earliest signs of fetal hydrops?

A

hydramnios

65
Q

children with parvo (fifths disease) usually present with….

A

high fever, lacy rash, “slapped cheeks”

**Adults typically dont have the fever or red cheeks

66
Q

Which trimester is parvo particularlly bad?

A

second and third

67
Q

If you have had _____ you are immune and will never get it again

A

Parvo (fifths disease)

68
Q

elevated afp suggests

A

NTD

69
Q

What will the enzymes do in a triple screening that is positive for downs?

A
  • high hcg

- low afp and estriol

70
Q

when is a nucal cord translucency test performed?

A

11-14 weeks

71
Q

what does the quad screen add to the triple screen?

A

inhibin a

72
Q

After a completed abortion is determined, what is the next step?

A
  • weekly hcg levels to ensure that they decrease to <5 (usually takes 2-3 weeks).
  • blood typing
  • maybe hgb
73
Q

How is a molar pregnancy characterized?

A
  • spotting
  • EXTREMELY high hcg
  • no FHT
  • uterus larger then dates
74
Q

how ia a molar preg dx?

A

us

75
Q

If a woman has been exposed to fifths disease (parvo) what is the first step in treatment?

A

test for immunity: igg and igm

76
Q

Why does getal hydrops occur?

A

because of fetal anemia.

77
Q

Parvo virus inhibits __________

A

bone marrow erythrocyte production

78
Q

How will parvo present in an adult?

A

myalgia, malaise, mild rash

79
Q

What is the first step when a pt complains of calf pain?

A

doppler sonography

80
Q

When is bedrest appropriate?

A

never

81
Q

What are the normal value for one hour GTT (acog and ada)

A

ACOG 130

ADA 140

82
Q

When is rhogam given

A

28 weeks

83
Q

How long is rhogam good for?

A

12 weeks

84
Q

when is macrobid contraindicated?

A

after 36 weeks bc it has been linked with fetal jaundice

85
Q

which antibodies cause problems in pregnancy?

A

kell kills

86
Q

Which trimester is rubella the most harmful?

A

first

87
Q

Which trimester is fifths disease the most harmful?

A

second

88
Q

which trimester is varicella the most harmful?

A

third

89
Q

which trimester is CMV the most dangerous?

A

especially in first

90
Q

what test do you perfomr to see how much rhogam to administer?

A

KB

Antepartum (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions