Week 6 GI Flashcards

1
Q

Emesis is controlled by the vomiting centre, also known as the:

A

Central Pattern Generator (CPG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the Chemo Receptor Trigger Zone located? (CTZ)

A

Dorsal surface of the medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does the CTZ (chemo receptor trigger zone) receive input from?

A

Blood bound drugs and hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes blood bound drugs and hormones to stimulate the CTZ (chemoreceptor trigger zone)? (4)

A

Drugs
Toxins
Chemo
Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the medulla oblongata?

A

Continuation of the spinal cord into the skull
Lowest part of the brain stem
Contains control centres for heart, lungs and CTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are of the brain is responsible for motion sickness?

A

Vestibular apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What area of the brain is responsible for vomiting r/t psychiatric disorders, stress, anxiety, anticipation?

A

Cerebral Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What stimulates the visceral afferent nerves in the GI tract to send signals to the vomiting centre? (3)

A

Distention
Chemo
Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A
  • in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem
  • has permeable capillaries and sensory neurons
  • detects circulating chemical messengers in blood and transduces them into neural signals and networks
  • sensory transducer = integrates blood-to-brain autonomic functions
  • detection of circulating hormones involved in vomiting, thirst, hunger, and blood pressure control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neurotransmitters responsible for N and V are located in? 3()

A
  • The vomiting centre
  • CTZ
  • GI tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The CTZ is composed of?

A

AP (area postrema)

NTS (nulceus tractus soliatarius)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What to do 1st to tx Nausea and Vomiting? (4)

A

1-identify CAUSE
2-identify PATHWAY
3- what neurotransmitter involved? what will act on this?
4- what worked in the past?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Muscarinic receptors

A

acetylcholine activates muscarinic receptors, allowing for a parasympathetic reaction in any organs and tissues where the receptor is expressed (parasympathetic, except for sweat glands= sympathetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

extrapyramidal sx

A

Dystonia (continuous spasms, muscle contractions)
Akinesia (motor restlessness)
Parkinsonian sx (rigidity, bradykinesia)
Tremor, tardive dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drug that can induce heart arrhythmias and cardiac arrest (esp in pt over 60 or dose > 30mg od)

A

Domperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which antiemetic drugs have significant anticholinergic effects?

A

Prochlorperazine

Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drug for motion sickness that causes significant dry mouth?

A

Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drug should be given pre- nausea?

A

Ondansetron
(serotonin 5- HT3 antagonists)

** take too long to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Individual factors affecting emetogenic potential of chemo drugs:

A
  • Hx of motion sickness
  • > 50 years old
  • Female
  • Anxiety
  • Absence of heavy alcohol use
  • Poor performance status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Things that can effect emetogenic potential:

A
  • Infusion time (longer time= less nausea)
  • Dose (higher dose= worse)
  • Number of drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chemo drug with very high emetogenic potential?

A

Cisplatin > 50mg

22
Q

Best antiemetics for CINV:

A

Type 5 – HT3 (serotonin) receptor antagonists
Neurokinin – 1 receptor antagonists
Glucocorticoids

23
Q

When does delayed emesis occur after chemo?

A

> 24 hours

usually with Cisplatin

24
Q

Aprepitant is a?

Dose?

A

NK1-R receptor antagonist

80 mg po daily on day 2 and 3
Side effect: fatigue

25
Q

First choice for DELAYED CINV?

A

Dexamethasone

4-8 mg PO BID

26
Q

Side effects of dexamethasone?

A

Agitation
Insomnia
Hyperglycemia

27
Q

How long should PPIs take to be effective?

A

4-8 weeks

28
Q

Red flag sx for GERD needing endoscopy followup urgently

A
Vomiting
bleeding
abdominal mass
unexplained weight loss
bleeding 
choking
dysphagia
29
Q

Goals of GERD therapy? (5)

A
reduce/eliminate sx
heal esophageal mucosa
prevent recurrence
prevent complications
identify triggers
30
Q

What are some medications that may help with GERD but have side effects that limit their use?

A

Metoclopromide
Domperidone
Baclofen (increases LES tone)

31
Q

Why should tablet formation of bismuth subsalicylates be avoided with concurrent h. pylori therapy?

A

Contains calcium bicarbonate and decreases effectiveness of tetracycline abx

32
Q

5 causes of GERD?

A
LES pressure changes
impaired esophageal clearance
delayed gastric emptying
hiatus hernia
lifestyle/ diet
33
Q

Tx goals for GERD

A
  • Reduce/eliminate sx
  • Heal esphageal mucosa
  • Prevent recurrence
  • Prevent complications
  • Identify triggers
34
Q

Causes of peptic ulcer disease?

A
    • ZES
    • H Pylori
    • NSAIDS
    • Smoking
    • Alcohol
    • Ischemia
    • Bile acids
  • -stress (non-ulcer dyspepsia)
    • genetics
35
Q

Duodenal ulcers are sometimes relieved by?

A

Eating (food in stomach)

36
Q

Gastric ulcers are sometimes releived by?

A

Not eating (acid is then secreted in duodenum instead)

37
Q

Which NSAIDS are the highest and lowest risks?

A

Highest= Piroxicam, indomethacin, ketoralac

Lowest risk= low dose ibuprofen

38
Q

When are H2RAs NOT recommended?

A

H2RA are not recommended for use in erosive esophagitis, H.

pylori related ulcers or NSAID induced ulcers

39
Q

Which PPI is the most expensive with possilble increase side effects?

A

Dexlansoprazole

40
Q

Dexlansoprazole causes…

A

Increased risk of adverse events
• Increased risk of nonfatal serious events
• Increased risk of cardiovascular events in Dex 30
• Increased risk of injury-related adverse events

41
Q

In which conditions is BID dosing of PPIs recommended in primary care?

A

gastric acid hypersecretory
conditions
H. pylori eradication therapy

42
Q

Examples of hyergastrinemia states?

A

Gastric outlet obstruction
Gastric dysmotility states
ZES (Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome)

43
Q

Why is BID dosing of PPI not recommended?

A

Hasn’t demonstrated consistent clinical benefit.

44
Q

Drugs approved for 8 week tx to heal errosive esophagitis?

A

dexlansoprazole 60mg

esomeprazole 40mg

45
Q

PPI not working try?

A

Changing to different PPI

or
change to BID (try to taper down after effective)

46
Q

BID PPI may be considered in the following pts? (2)

A
  • Patients with severe sx despite standard OD PPI dosing

- Severe esophagitis (confirmed by endoscopy)

47
Q

Which PPI has the most CYP450 drug interactions?

A

Omeprazole

Pantoprazole = the least

48
Q

Meds used to tx TB

A

Rifampin (plus)
isoniazid
ethambutol
pyrazinamide

49
Q

Risk associated with statin therapy? (2)

A

Rhabdomyolysis

myopathy

50
Q

Ways to prevent rhabdomyolysis and myopathy from statin tx?

A

Avoid adding cytochrome P450 3A4 inhibitors to statins metabolized by CYP3A4 (atorvastatin, lovastatin, simvastatin)

Interupt statin tx for short period when interacting drug required (i.e. macrolide)

Reduce statin dosage if interacting drug needed (i.e. Simvastatin 20mg with amiodarone).

Switch to statin with lower pharmakokinetic interactions (Pravastatin)

Watch for muscle related sx (muscle pain, weakness, dark urine)

Avoid combos (i.e. fibrate with statin)

51
Q

True or False: Fibrates WITH statins reduce risk of CHD events?

A

False

52
Q

Classic triad for rhabdomyolysis?

A

myalgia, weakness, and tea-colored urine