Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWORLD > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

in a left dominant circulation, what artery supplies the AV node?

A

left circumflex –> posterior descending artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

acute intermittent porphyria:

glucose and heme inhibit what enzyme?

A

ALA synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

cDNA is synthesized from an ___ template. it can detect ____ mutations but not ____ mutations

A

mRNA;
frameshift;
nonsense (or missense)

because cDNA is looking at mRNA, not the protein itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CF nasal mucosa:

____ Na and H2O absorption; ____ negative nasal transepithelial potential difference

A

increased;

more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

glucocorticoids cause an increase in protein synthesis in what organ?

A

liver;

catabolic everywhere else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

penicillin is a structural analog of what?

A

D-Ala-D-Ala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

osteomyelitis usually affects the:

______ in kids;
_____ in adults

A

metaphysis;

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

porcelin gall bladder increases the risk of ______ of the _____

A

adenocarcinoma of the gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

primary adrenal insufficiency:

____natremia, ____kalemia, metabolic _____;

pigmentation or no?

A

hyponatremia, hyperkalemia;
acidosis;

hyperpigmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BH4 is a cofactor in the synthesis of what 2 NT’s?

A

dopamine (and other catecholamines);

serotonin (from tryptophan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

factor V leiden:
resistance to _____ by ____ ____;
causes recurrent _____

A

inactivation;
protein C;
DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gastritis:
H. Pylori associated typically affects the ____ first;

pernicious anemia affects the _____

A

antrum;

body/fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment of choice for arsenic poisoning?

A

dimercaprol;

succimer also works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

changes in what are the cause of switching from alpha helices to beta pleated sheats?

A

hydrogen bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

with hepatic encephalopathy, excitatory NT’s are _____ and inhibitory NT’s are _____

A

decreased;

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cholelithiasis in pregnancy:
_____ cause increased cholesterol secretion;
____ causes gall bladder hypomotility

A

estrogen;

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
maneuvers that increase preload or afterload will _____ murmur intensity by _____ LV EDV and ____ outflow tract obsruction

A

decrease;
increasing;
decreasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

glomus bodies have what function?

A

themoregulation;

glomus tumors occur in nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cilostazol is a _____ inhibitor that increases _____, resulting in inhibition of platelet _____ and causing direct _____ vasodilation

A

phosphodiesterase;
cAMP;
aggregration;
arterial

used for peripheral artery disease/intermittent claudication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

thyroid peroxidase is responseible for what 3 functions?

A

oxidation (of iodide to idoine);
iodination (of TGB tyrosine residues);
coupling (of iodtyrosine to form T3, T4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

why can’t mature erythrocytes synthesize heme?

A

loss of mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

lesions to the ______ nucleus cause hyperphagia;

lesions to the _____ nucleus cause anorexia

A

ventromedial;

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

biliary atresia: due to destruction of ____hepatic bile ducts; see ____hepatic bile duct prolfieration and ______ hyperbilirubinemia

A

extrahepatic;
intrahepatic;

conjugated

24
Q

leukemoid reactions:

see ____ LAP, ____ bodies which are ____ granules in neutrophils

A

increased;

dohle, basophilic

25
Q

auero rods are seen in what cancer?

stain positive for?

A

AML;

myeloPEROXIDASE

26
Q

infective endocarditis causes what renal syndrome?

due to what?

A

diffuse proliferative glomerlonephritis;

immune complex deposition

27
Q

which kind of mosaicism can cause turner syndrome?

A

somatic

germline mosaicism only affects the off spring

28
Q

lower the cut off of a diagnostic test causes _____ sensitivity, ____ specificity, _____ false negatives, ____ false positives

A

increased, decreased;

decreased, increased

29
Q

_____ is ability of a test to reproduce identical/similar results;

____ is ability of test to be close to the true value

A

precision (reliability);

accuracy (validity)

30
Q

pathogenesis of hearing loss due to loud noises?

A

damage to stereociliated hair cells of organ of corti

31
Q

injection to the ______ quadrant of the but can damage the superior gluteal nerve. this causes the _____ hip to drop

A

superomedial;

contralateral

(injections to superomedial, inferomedial, and inferolateral regions can injure the sciatic nerve)

32
Q

which form of ALL is associated with a mediastinal mass that can cause respiratory symptoms or dysphagia?

A

T-cell

33
Q

2 areas cancer can occur that cause SVC syndrome

A

mediastinum;

superior sulcus (also present with other symptoms)

34
Q

mitochondrial ____ is a typical sign of irreversible injury. disaggregation of granules in the nucleus is a sign of ____ injury

A

vacuolization;

reversible

35
Q

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors do not have a ____ group, making ______ _________ formation impossible

A

3’-OH;

3’-5’ phosphodiester bond

36
Q

somatic mosaicism arises from errors in _____ (before or after) fertilization

A

mitosis, after

37
Q

sebaceous glands are an example of what type of exocrine glands?

sweat and salivary glands are examples of what type of exocrine glands?

A

holocrine (ie Acne);

merocrine

38
Q

acyclovir is more effective against HSV and VZV than CMV and EBV due to variations in what enzymatic step?

A

monophosphorylation by viral thymidine kinasbe (ie slow in CMV and EBV)

rate limiting step

39
Q

2 most important things to assess in metabolic alkalosis

A

volume status, urine chloride

ie hyperaldosteronism = increased volume and increased urine Cl

40
Q

__phosphorylated Rb releases E2F, which ____ progression from G1 to S phase

A

hyper;

causes

41
Q

repressors (ie in the Lac operon) bind the ______, blocking transcription.

A

operator;

42
Q

most common cause of E. coli bacteremia in men?

A

UTI

43
Q

riboflavin deficiency inhibits what enzyme in the TCA cycle? due to deficiency of what?

A

succinate dehydrogenase;

FAD

44
Q

cerebellar hemisphere lesions cause ____lateral dysdiadochokinesia, limb dysmetria, and intention tremor

A

ipsi

45
Q

patients with hypocitraturia are at increased risk for ____ ____ stones

A

calcium oxalatge

46
Q

cortisol and catecholamine interactions are an example of what kind of drug interaction?

A

permissive;

ie cortisol without catecholamines does nothing

(cortisol upregulates alpha 1 receptors)

47
Q

pick bodies are made of ____ _____. seen in what?

lewy bodies are made of ______. seen in what?

A

hyperphosphorylated Tau – frontotemporal dementia (aka Pick disease);

alpha synuclein; Parkinson’s and lewy body demenita

48
Q

dehydration:

____ GFR, _____ RPF, _____ FF

A

decrease;
decrease a lot;
increase

49
Q

accumulation of what pigment is seen in chronic blood transfusions?

A

hemosiderin

50
Q

equation for maintenance dose

A

Cp * CL * Tau;

Cp = target plasma conc; CL = clearance; Tau = dosage interval

51
Q

equation for loading dose

A

Vd * Cp

Cp = target plasma concentration

52
Q

what does the Kozak consensus sequence do? where is it found?

A

helps initiate translation;

mRNA

53
Q

cystic medial degeneration predisposes individuals to what 2 heart conditions?

A

aortic dissection, aortic aneurysm

54
Q

LPL or APO CII deficiency causes what dyslipidemia?

main symptom is ______

A

hyperchylomicronemia;

acute pancreatitis (due to increased TG’s);

creamy supernatant

55
Q

signet cells are seen in what kind of gastric cancer?

what is also seen in this cancer?

A

diffuse;

linitis plastica (infiltrates stomach_

UWORLD (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions