Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

In a positively skewed distribution, the ____ is the most shifted in the positive direction. I.e., it is greater than the ____ which is greater than the ____

A

mean;

median, mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which histone protein is located outside of the core and helps package nucleosomes?

A

H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tRNA:

has a ____ sequence at its 3’ end that is used as a _____ sequence by proteins

A

CCA, recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

classic galactosemia:
due to deficiency in _____;
often complicated by ____ sepsis.

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase;

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

galactonkinase deficiency typically causes _____

A

cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

isoniazid inhibits pyridoxine _____ = decrease B6 synthesis. this causes _____ anemia, a ____cytic/____chromic anemia

A

phosphokinase;
sideroblastic;
microcytic, hypochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

with Left HF:

fluid in pulmonary interstitium causes decreased _____ ____ –> dyspnea

A

lung compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

spinal accessory nerve passes through the ____ ____ of the neck where it can get injured. symptoms include ____ of the shoulder and impaired abduction above _____

A

posterior triangle;

drooping, horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the extended spectrum beta-lactamase gene can be transmitted between organisms via ____ ____

A

plasmid conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what embryological vessel is the SVC derived from?

A

cardinal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in diastolic HF:

see ____ ejection fraction, _____ EDV, _____ compliance, and _____ LV EDP

A

normal, normal;

reduced, increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

type 2 DM:
chronically elevated _____ levels contribute to insulin resistance by impairing insulin-dependent ____ uptake and increase hepatic ______

A

free fatty accid;

glucose, gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in general, what 2 ions are responsible for the resting potential of a cell?

A

K (main), Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mutations in the _____ gene are a cause of maturity-onset diabetes of the young

A

glucokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 2 excusively ketogenic amino acids? increasing intake of this can be used to treat ______ deficiency

A

lysine, leucine;

pyruvate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what composes most of the right side of the cardiac silhouette on CXR?

A

right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

retroperitoneal hematoma:

more likely to be caused by trauma to pancreas or spleen>?

A

pancreas

spleen is not retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ethanol inhibits gluconeogenesis by increaseing the _____ ratio

A

NADH/NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

drugs that a _____ lipohillic and have a ____ Vd are preferentially processed by the liver.

A

more, high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IL 4 promotes class switching to ___; IL 5 promotes switching to ____. which activates eosinophils?

A

IgE;
IgA;

IL5–>eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what kind of immunity is required to get rid of intracellular bacteria?

A

cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

____ enzyme deficiency = Cori disease;

due to accumulation of glycogen with abnormally __ ____ ____ due to inability to degrade ____ branch points

A

debranching;
short outer chains (limit dextrans);
alpha-1,6-glycosidic

hypoglycemia, ketoacidosis, hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

at functional residual capacity (FRC), the airway pressure = ____ and the intrapleural pressure is _____

A

0, negative (ie -5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

sarcoidosis:

characterized by increased _____ lymphocytes;

A

CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
NE main effects: binds ____ receptor = increased ____ and peripheral vasoconstriction; binds ____ = increased ____ and increased contractility
alpha 1; IP3; beta 1; cAMP
26
contact precautions for MDR organisms and enterics include hand hygeine, _____ gloves and (a gown and/or a mask)?
non-sterile gloves, | gown
27
what brain cancer has a biphasic pattern of cellularity and is S100+ ?
schwannoma
28
S100+ indicates ____ origin
neural crest ie melanoma
29
17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency: | ___ mineralocorticoids, _____ sex hormones, ____ bp, ____ potassium
increased, decreased; | increased, decreased (ie hypokalemia)
30
what cells release elastase in the lung?
PMNs, MQs
31
what bacteria has a polyribosylribitol phosphate capsule?
H flu (type B)
32
what nerve lies in close proximity to the inferior thyroid artery
recurrent laryngeal nerve
33
acute mitral regurg: | ____ preload, _____ afterload, ____ ejection fraction
increased, decreased, icnreased
34
S3: systolic or diastolic? due to _______; seen in patients with ____. heard best in left lateral decubitus at end _____
diastolic (Early); rapid ventricular filling; HF; expiration
35
____ ____ is caused by failure of ventral pancreatic bud to migrate and fuse with the dorsal bud. it encircles the _____
annular pancreas; | duodenum
36
carbon monoxide binds ____ to heme. it causes _____ oxygen affinity
competitively, increased; ie left shift
37
if the SA node is impaired, what takes over pacemaker responsibilities first?
AV node
38
what fungus is characterized by thick-walled spherules packed with endospores?
coccidioides immitis
39
the _____ _____ nerve can be damaged by trauma to the piriform recess. this impairs the ____ reflex
internal laryngeal; | cough
40
diastolic HF:P | ____ ventricular compliance, _____ ejection fraction, _____ LV EDV, _____ LV filing pressures
decreased, normal, normal, increased
41
what liver disease is characterized by lymphocytic granulomatous inflammation in middle aged women?
primary biliary cirhossis
42
a _____ ______ _____ defect is comprised of an ASD, a VSD, and a common AV valve. it is associated with ______ _____
complete AV canal defect; | down syndrome
43
entacopone is a (peripheral or central) _____ inhibitor
peripheral COMT
44
derivatives: the common carotid/proximal ICA is a derivative of the ____ arch. the pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus are derivatives of the ____ arch
3rd, 6th aortic, proximal right subclav - 4th arch
45
what lab should one check before starting SGLT2 inhibitors (ie canaglifloxin)?
renal function--BUN/Cr
46
the carotid sinus is a ______. what is its afferent limb? what is the efferent limb?
baroreceptor; | CN 9, CN 10
47
what kind of transplant rejection is characterized by a dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate and vasculitis of graft vessels?
acute
48
the superficial inguinal ring is formed by an opening in the ______. the deep inguinal ring is formed by an opening in the ______
external oblique aponeurosis transversalis fasica
49
the ____ ____ ____ contains kiesselbach's plexus and can be the source of epistaxis
anterior nasal septum
50
2 acidic buffers in urine: these are increased or decreased in acidosis?
NH3, H2PO4; increased
51
_____ upregulates LPL and increases TG clearance. also activates _____ to induce HDL synthesis
fibrates; | PPAR alpha
52
lead poisoning: ____ ____ is seen in peripheral blood smear; ____ ____ seen on bone marrow biopsy
basophillic stippling; ringed sideroblasts
53
which of the MEN's is associated with marfanioid habitus?
MEN 2B | medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas
54
the ____ _____ is characterized by enlarged rounded cells with peripherally located nuceli and dispersed Nissl substance. due to....
axonal reaction; | severing of axon
55
_____ _____ _____ is characterized by an eiosinophillic cytoplasm with pyknotic nuclei
irreversible neuronal injury
56
osgood schlatter is due to pain and swelling at the ____ ____ from repetitive ____ contraction
tibial tuberosity; | quadriceps
57
what nerve innervates the plantar foot?
tibial | also involved in plantar flexion/inversion
58
serum sickness is an example of type _____ hypersensitivity reaction
3
59
3 derivatives of POMC?
ACTH, MSH, beta-endorphin
60
injury to what nerve causes a positive trendelenburg sign>
superior gluteal
61
_____ is accumulation of edema fluid in the intercellular spaces of the epidermis
spongiosis ie contact dermatitis
62
sulfur donors (ie sodium thiosulfate) can be used to treat ____ toxicity
cyanide
63
what vitamin is required in transamination reactions?
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate)
64
what artery runs with the radial nerve in the midhumerus?
deep brachial
65
which salmonella species causes typhoid fever? characterized by rose spots where?
salmonella typhi (or paratyphi); on abdomen
66
what can the D-xylose test be used to differentiate between?
pancreatic vs mucosal cause of malabsorption
67
what part of the kidney does ADH act on?
medullary segment collecting duct
68
iron deficiency anemia is seen in ____ sided colon cancers. obstructive symptoms are seen in ____ sided colon cancers. ____ involvement produces hematochezia
right (Ascending); left (descending); rectosigmoid
69
frontal lobe lesions: ___ side = apathy and depression; ____ side = disinhibited behavior
left; | right
70
patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia do not form what 2 parts of lymph nodes?
germinal centers, lymphoid follicle
71
the metanephric mesoderm (blastema) is responsible for formation of the glomerulus up to and including the ______
DCT
72
wound healing: | excessive matrix metalloproteinase activity and myofibroblast accumulation can result in _____
contracture
73
sex steroid effect at epiphyseal plate?
premature closure
74
conn syndrome: | ____ Na, _____ K+, metabolic _____
normal; decreased; alkalosis
75
corticosteroids: | increase what granulocyte count? why?
neutrophils- due to demargination
76
what endometrial disorder causes a uniformly enlarged uterus?
adenomyosis (endometrial glands within myometrium)
77
decreased activity of what enzyme causes lactic acidosis during ischemia?
pyruvate dehydrogenase
78
Fabry disease: what enzyme is deficient? what inheritence?
alpha galactosidase; | X-recessive
79
Fabry disease: | characterized by early triad of ____, ____, and ______
peripheral neuropathy, hypohidrosis, angiokeratomas late--renal failure, heart probs
80
equation for half life (1st order elimination)
(0.693 * Vd) / CL
81
symptoms of Vitamin E deficiency are due to oxidative damage to what 2 kinds of cells?
neurons, RBCs ie hemolytic anemia, posterior column/spinocerebellar demyelination
82
klinefelter: | _____ inhibin, ____ testosterone, _____ FSH, ____ LH
decreased, decreased, increased, increased
83
where does cleavage of proinsulin into insulin and C-peptide occur?
within secretory granules
84
anesthetics with a high tissue solubility have a _____ arteriovenous concentration gradient and _____ onsets of action
large; | slower