Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

In a positively skewed distribution, the ____ is the most shifted in the positive direction. I.e., it is greater than the ____ which is greater than the ____

A

mean;

median, mode

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2
Q

which histone protein is located outside of the core and helps package nucleosomes?

A

H1

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3
Q

tRNA:

has a ____ sequence at its 3’ end that is used as a _____ sequence by proteins

A

CCA, recognition

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4
Q

classic galactosemia:
due to deficiency in _____;
often complicated by ____ sepsis.

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase;

E. coli

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5
Q

galactonkinase deficiency typically causes _____

A

cataracts

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6
Q

isoniazid inhibits pyridoxine _____ = decrease B6 synthesis. this causes _____ anemia, a ____cytic/____chromic anemia

A

phosphokinase;
sideroblastic;
microcytic, hypochromic

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7
Q

with Left HF:

fluid in pulmonary interstitium causes decreased _____ ____ –> dyspnea

A

lung compliance

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8
Q

spinal accessory nerve passes through the ____ ____ of the neck where it can get injured. symptoms include ____ of the shoulder and impaired abduction above _____

A

posterior triangle;

drooping, horizontal

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9
Q

the extended spectrum beta-lactamase gene can be transmitted between organisms via ____ ____

A

plasmid conjugation

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10
Q

what embryological vessel is the SVC derived from?

A

cardinal vein

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11
Q

in diastolic HF:

see ____ ejection fraction, _____ EDV, _____ compliance, and _____ LV EDP

A

normal, normal;

reduced, increased

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12
Q

type 2 DM:
chronically elevated _____ levels contribute to insulin resistance by impairing insulin-dependent ____ uptake and increase hepatic ______

A

free fatty accid;

glucose, gluconeogenesis

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13
Q

in general, what 2 ions are responsible for the resting potential of a cell?

A

K (main), Na

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14
Q

mutations in the _____ gene are a cause of maturity-onset diabetes of the young

A

glucokinase

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15
Q

what are the 2 excusively ketogenic amino acids? increasing intake of this can be used to treat ______ deficiency

A

lysine, leucine;

pyruvate dehydrogenase

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16
Q

what composes most of the right side of the cardiac silhouette on CXR?

A

right atrium

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17
Q

retroperitoneal hematoma:

more likely to be caused by trauma to pancreas or spleen>?

A

pancreas

spleen is not retroperitoneal

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18
Q

ethanol inhibits gluconeogenesis by increaseing the _____ ratio

A

NADH/NAD+

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19
Q

drugs that a _____ lipohillic and have a ____ Vd are preferentially processed by the liver.

A

more, high

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20
Q

IL 4 promotes class switching to ___; IL 5 promotes switching to ____. which activates eosinophils?

A

IgE;
IgA;

IL5–>eosinophils

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21
Q

what kind of immunity is required to get rid of intracellular bacteria?

A

cell mediated

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22
Q

____ enzyme deficiency = Cori disease;

due to accumulation of glycogen with abnormally __ ____ ____ due to inability to degrade ____ branch points

A

debranching;
short outer chains (limit dextrans);
alpha-1,6-glycosidic

hypoglycemia, ketoacidosis, hepatomegaly

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23
Q

at functional residual capacity (FRC), the airway pressure = ____ and the intrapleural pressure is _____

A

0, negative (ie -5)

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24
Q

sarcoidosis:

characterized by increased _____ lymphocytes;

A

CD4

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25
Q

NE main effects:
binds ____ receptor = increased ____ and peripheral vasoconstriction;

binds ____ = increased ____ and increased contractility

A

alpha 1;
IP3;

beta 1;
cAMP

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26
Q

contact precautions for MDR organisms and enterics include hand hygeine, _____ gloves and (a gown and/or a mask)?

A

non-sterile gloves,

gown

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27
Q

what brain cancer has a biphasic pattern of cellularity and is S100+ ?

A

schwannoma

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28
Q

S100+ indicates ____ origin

A

neural crest

ie melanoma

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29
Q

17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency:

___ mineralocorticoids, _____ sex hormones, ____ bp, ____ potassium

A

increased, decreased;

increased, decreased (ie hypokalemia)

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30
Q

what cells release elastase in the lung?

A

PMNs, MQs

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31
Q

what bacteria has a polyribosylribitol phosphate capsule?

A

H flu (type B)

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32
Q

what nerve lies in close proximity to the inferior thyroid artery

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

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33
Q

acute mitral regurg:

____ preload, _____ afterload, ____ ejection fraction

A

increased, decreased, icnreased

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34
Q

S3:
systolic or diastolic?
due to _______;
seen in patients with ____. heard best in left lateral decubitus at end _____

A

diastolic (Early);
rapid ventricular filling;

HF;
expiration

35
Q

____ ____ is caused by failure of ventral pancreatic bud to migrate and fuse with the dorsal bud. it encircles the _____

A

annular pancreas;

duodenum

36
Q

carbon monoxide binds ____ to heme. it causes _____ oxygen affinity

A

competitively, increased;

ie left shift

37
Q

if the SA node is impaired, what takes over pacemaker responsibilities first?

A

AV node

38
Q

what fungus is characterized by thick-walled spherules packed with endospores?

A

coccidioides immitis

39
Q

the _____ _____ nerve can be damaged by trauma to the piriform recess. this impairs the ____ reflex

A

internal laryngeal;

cough

40
Q

diastolic HF:P

____ ventricular compliance, _____ ejection fraction, _____ LV EDV, _____ LV filing pressures

A

decreased, normal, normal, increased

41
Q

what liver disease is characterized by lymphocytic granulomatous inflammation in middle aged women?

A

primary biliary cirhossis

42
Q

a _____ ______ _____ defect is comprised of an ASD, a VSD, and a common AV valve. it is associated with ______ _____

A

complete AV canal defect;

down syndrome

43
Q

entacopone is a (peripheral or central) _____ inhibitor

A

peripheral COMT

44
Q

derivatives:
the common carotid/proximal ICA is a derivative of the ____ arch.

the pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus are derivatives of the ____ arch

A

3rd, 6th

aortic, proximal right subclav - 4th arch

45
Q

what lab should one check before starting SGLT2 inhibitors (ie canaglifloxin)?

A

renal function–BUN/Cr

46
Q

the carotid sinus is a ______. what is its afferent limb? what is the efferent limb?

A

baroreceptor;

CN 9, CN 10

47
Q

what kind of transplant rejection is characterized by a dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate and vasculitis of graft vessels?

A

acute

48
Q

the superficial inguinal ring is formed by an opening in the ______. the deep inguinal ring is formed by an opening in the ______

A

external oblique aponeurosis

transversalis fasica

49
Q

the ____ ____ ____ contains kiesselbach’s plexus and can be the source of epistaxis

A

anterior nasal septum

50
Q

2 acidic buffers in urine:

these are increased or decreased in acidosis?

A

NH3, H2PO4;

increased

51
Q

_____ upregulates LPL and increases TG clearance. also activates _____ to induce HDL synthesis

A

fibrates;

PPAR alpha

52
Q

lead poisoning:
____ ____ is seen in peripheral blood smear;
____ ____ seen on bone marrow biopsy

A

basophillic stippling;

ringed sideroblasts

53
Q

which of the MEN’s is associated with marfanioid habitus?

A

MEN 2B

medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas

54
Q

the ____ _____ is characterized by enlarged rounded cells with peripherally located nuceli and dispersed Nissl substance. due to….

A

axonal reaction;

severing of axon

55
Q

_____ _____ _____ is characterized by an eiosinophillic cytoplasm with pyknotic nuclei

A

irreversible neuronal injury

56
Q

osgood schlatter is due to pain and swelling at the ____ ____ from repetitive ____ contraction

A

tibial tuberosity;

quadriceps

57
Q

what nerve innervates the plantar foot?

A

tibial

also involved in plantar flexion/inversion

58
Q

serum sickness is an example of type _____ hypersensitivity reaction

A

3

59
Q

3 derivatives of POMC?

A

ACTH, MSH, beta-endorphin

60
Q

injury to what nerve causes a positive trendelenburg sign>

A

superior gluteal

61
Q

_____ is accumulation of edema fluid in the intercellular spaces of the epidermis

A

spongiosis

ie contact dermatitis

62
Q

sulfur donors (ie sodium thiosulfate) can be used to treat ____ toxicity

A

cyanide

63
Q

what vitamin is required in transamination reactions?

A

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate)

64
Q

what artery runs with the radial nerve in the midhumerus?

A

deep brachial

65
Q

which salmonella species causes typhoid fever? characterized by rose spots where?

A

salmonella typhi (or paratyphi);

on abdomen

66
Q

what can the D-xylose test be used to differentiate between?

A

pancreatic vs mucosal cause of malabsorption

67
Q

what part of the kidney does ADH act on?

A

medullary segment collecting duct

68
Q

iron deficiency anemia is seen in ____ sided colon cancers. obstructive symptoms are seen in ____ sided colon cancers. ____ involvement produces hematochezia

A

right (Ascending);
left (descending);

rectosigmoid

69
Q

frontal lobe lesions:
___ side = apathy and depression;
____ side = disinhibited behavior

A

left;

right

70
Q

patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia do not form what 2 parts of lymph nodes?

A

germinal centers, lymphoid follicle

71
Q

the metanephric mesoderm (blastema) is responsible for formation of the glomerulus up to and including the ______

A

DCT

72
Q

wound healing:

excessive matrix metalloproteinase activity and myofibroblast accumulation can result in _____

A

contracture

73
Q

sex steroid effect at epiphyseal plate?

A

premature closure

74
Q

conn syndrome:

____ Na, _____ K+, metabolic _____

A

normal;
decreased;
alkalosis

75
Q

corticosteroids:

increase what granulocyte count? why?

A

neutrophils- due to demargination

76
Q

what endometrial disorder causes a uniformly enlarged uterus?

A

adenomyosis (endometrial glands within myometrium)

77
Q

decreased activity of what enzyme causes lactic acidosis during ischemia?

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase

78
Q

Fabry disease:
what enzyme is deficient?
what inheritence?

A

alpha galactosidase;

X-recessive

79
Q

Fabry disease:

characterized by early triad of ____, ____, and ______

A

peripheral neuropathy, hypohidrosis, angiokeratomas

late–renal failure, heart probs

80
Q

equation for half life (1st order elimination)

A

(0.693 * Vd) / CL

81
Q

symptoms of Vitamin E deficiency are due to oxidative damage to what 2 kinds of cells?

A

neurons, RBCs

ie hemolytic anemia, posterior column/spinocerebellar demyelination

82
Q

klinefelter:

_____ inhibin, ____ testosterone, _____ FSH, ____ LH

A

decreased, decreased, increased, increased

83
Q

where does cleavage of proinsulin into insulin and C-peptide occur?

A

within secretory granules

84
Q

anesthetics with a high tissue solubility have a _____ arteriovenous concentration gradient and _____ onsets of action

A

large;

slower