Week 2 Flashcards by Brendan Knapp

when given sensitivity:
equation for TP =
equation for FN =

TP = Sens * patients with disease;

FN = (1 - sens) * patients with disease

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cleft lip results when the _____ _____ fails to fuse with the ____ _____

maxillary prominence;
intermaxillary segment (median nasal processes)

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integral membrane proteins contain transmembrane domains composed of (alpha helices or beta sheets?) with _____ amino acid residues

alpha helices;

hydrophobic

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patients with bradykinesia with parkinsons may benifit from deep brain stimulation of the _____ or ____, increasing mobility

Globus Pallidus internus;

Subthalamic Nucleus

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PCWP is _____ in ARDS

normal

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blood flow is directly proportional to the vessel radius raised to hte ____ power. ____ to blood flow is inversely proportional to the vessel radius raised to the ____ power

fourth; resistance;

fourth

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____ bronchioles contain alveolar MQs. ____ bronchioles contain ciliated cells, which helps with clearance

respiratory;

terminal

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what enzyme allows triglycerides to be converted into glucose?

glycerol kinase

also lipase to produce glycerol

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A VD causes what kind of heart murmur? located where?

holosystolic murmur; Left sternal border

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to be placed in hospice care, a patient must have a prognosis of less than ______

6 months

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is isoniazid induced neuropathy due to direct neurotoxicity or due to vitamin deficiency?

vit b6 deficiency

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appendicitis initially causes _____ ____ pain at the umbillicus due to afferent pain fibers entering at the ___ level

dull visceral;

T10

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in appendicitis, progressive inflam of the ___ ____ causes more severe somatic pain in the RLQ

parietal peritoneum

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what kind of sleep apnea is characterized by apnea followed by increasing tidal volume–> decreasing TV –> apnea?

cheyne stokes

ie CHF

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amenorrhea in anorexia:

____ GnRH, _____ LH, ____ FSH, ____ estrogen

decrease in all

due to decreased leptin

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lateral ankle sprains are due to ____ of a plantar-flexed foot. most commonly involves the ____ ligament

inversion;

anterior talofibular

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pseudomonas is …:
motile or nonmotile?;
aerobic or anaerobic?;
lactose or non-lactose fermenting?

aerobic, motile, non lactose ferminting

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____ blood has a high RBC ____ content due to high HCO3- content within plasma

venous;
chloride

ie, high HCO3 in cell –> into plasma –> Cl- into cell

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what can infect a pre-existing lung cavity from prior Tb infection?

aspergiloma

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prostaglandins dilate the ____ arteriole in the kidney. angiotensin 2 constricts the ____ arteriole. do ACE inhibitors increase or decrease GFR?

afferent;
efferent;
decrease

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in lungs, binding of O2 drives the release of ___ and ____ from Hb (____ effect)

H+, CO2;

haldane

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binding of PD-1 to its ligand (PDL1) ___Regulates the immune resposne against tumor cells by ____ cytotoxic T cells.

down;

inhibiting

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monoclonal Abs blocking PD-1 help prevent T cell ____ and promote ____ of tumor cells

inhibition;

apoptosis

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lactic acidosis occurs in septic shock from tissue ____ which impairs ___- _____

hypoxia;

oxidative phosphorylation

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what aortic arch is responsible for the ductus arteriosis?

6th

strep viridans make _____ which bind to _____ aggregates on damaged heart valves

dextrans; | fibrin-platelet

what organism causes UTIs after cystoscopy? they are ____ hemolytic

enterococcus; | gamma (ie no hemolysis)

____ of __ and ____ residues of the insulin receptor leads to insulin resistance

phosphorylation; serine, threonin ie via TNF alpha, catecholamines, glucocorticoids, glucagon

what does the A-wave in a JVP tracing signify?

Atrial contraction

with the rinne test, air conduction > bone conduction indicates ____ loss. what does bone conduction > air indicate?

sensorineural; conductive loss

weber test: with conductive hearing loss, lateralization occurs to the ____ ear. with sensorineural loss, lateralization occurs to the ____ ear

affected; | unaffected

in CN3, motor output is in the ____ and is most affected by ______ problems. ____ output is in the ___ and is most affected by ____ problems

motor = in center, affected by vascular/ischemia (ie diabetes); parasymp = on periphery, affected by compression (ie aneurysm)

a lesion in the _____ _____ can produce contralateral homonymous hemianiopia AND a relative afferent pupillary defect in the pupil _____ to the tract lesion

optic tract; contralateral

chronic topical corticosteroids can cause atrophy of the _____

dermis \loss of collagen, drying, cracking

rtPCR is used to detect levels of ____ in a sample.

mRNA

wet beriberi causes ______; dry beriberi causes _____

dilated cardiomyopathy; peripheral neuropathy

what are adjacent osteocytes connected by?

gap junctions

what is more associated with irregular uterine enlargement, endometriosis or leiomyomas?

leiomyoma

to prevent group B strep meningitis, ____partum antiobiotics (penicillin or amp) should be given at _____ Weeks gestation

INTRA; 35-37

2 most common pathogens that cause septic abortion

E. coli; | S. Aureus

osteogenesis impacts what facet of bone development?

defective bone matrix formation

precentral gyrus = primary ____ area; postcentral gyrus = primary ____ area

motor; somatosensory

____ refers to gene exchange that occurs thru crossing over of 2 double stranded DNA molecules. do progeny retain characteristics?

recombination; yes ie HSV

what do homeobox genes encode?

DNA binding transcription factors

hepatic encephalopathy: | excess ____ to accumulate within astrocytes --> decreased amount that is converted to ____ --> disrupts _____ NTs

glutamine; glutamate; excitatory

besides temporal arteritis, what vasculitis consists of granulomatous inflammation?

takaysu

anastrozole and letrozole are _____ inhibitors and reduce synthesis of ____ from _____

aromatase; | estrogen, androgens

central DI: ____ damage is typically permanent; ____ damage is transient

hypothalamic; | posterior pituitary

UV radiation causes formation of _____ dimers, which are removed via _____

pyrimidine; nucleotide excision repair

poisonous mushrooms contain amatoxins which are potent inhibitors of RNA polymerase ____, halting _____ synthesis

II; | mRNA

xanthelasma is found where? what does it contain histologically?

eyelid; lipid laden MQ

_____ nevi involve both the dermis and epidermis; ____ nevi only are limited to above the dermoepidermal junction

compound; | junctional

the initial step in the pathogenesis of beta thal involves what cellular molecule?

mRNA

what pigment is responsible for the greenish color to bruises? what enzyme produces this?

biliverdin, produced by heme oxygenase

what kind of hernia is due to failure of the processus vaginallis to close? is this medial or lateral to the inferior epigastrics?

indirect inguinal; | lateral

blood supply to ureter: proximal = distal =

renal; superior vesical

most down syndrome is due to meosis ___ nondisjunction in the ____

1; | mother

mifepristone is a _____ antagonist that causes necrosis of the uterine _____ --> abortion

progesterone; decidua

HCV lacks _____ exonuclease activity --> variation in antigenic structures of _____ proteins

3-5' ; envelope

the GFR can be estimated by ____ or ____ clearance. the RPF can be calculated using the _____ clearance

inulin, creatinine; PAH

equation for filtration fraction

FF = GFR / RPF

c. diff toxins: | toxin B disrupts _____ via ____ _____. toxin A binds to ______ and alters _____ _____

cytoskeleton, actin depolymerization; brush-border, fluid secretion

bipolar: type 1 involves a ____ episode and requires or does not require depressive episode? type II involves ____ episodes and requires or does not require depressive episodes?

type 1 = manic episodes, doesn't require depression; type 2 = hypomanic episodes, requires depression

stomach acid secretion: | the ____ and ____ phases stimulate gastric acid secretion; _____ influences reduce secretion

cephalic, gastric; intestinal

equation for attributable risk:

100 * (RR-1)/RR represents excess risk in exposed population attributed to risk factor

deficiency in what vitamin causes pellegra? classic triad?

B3; | diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

besides folate, supplementation with _____ can reduce erythroid cell apoptosis in B9 deficiency

thymidine

damage to (medial or lateral) aspects of the optic chiasm can cause (ipsi or contralateral) (nasal or temporal) hemianopia

damage to LATERAL aspects of optic chiasm --> IPSILATERAL NASAL hemianopia

sarcomere: thin actin filaments in the ___ band are bound to structural proteins at the ____ line. thick myosin filaments in the ___ band are bound to structural proteins at the ___ line

I; Z; A; M

what allows gram - and gram + organisms to survive osmotic stress?

peptidoglycan cell wall

patients with ataxia-telangiectasia are hypersensitive to ____, which increases risk of cancer

X-rays due to defective DNA double strand break repair

2 drugs that can cause coronary steal syndrome: due to dilation of ____ vessels

adenosine, dipyridamole; coronary arteriole

pure red cell aplasia: | failure of erythroid precursor production. associated with _____ and ______ (2 cancers), and _____ (An infection)

thymoma, ALL/CLL; parvo B19

pemphigus vulgaris are due to ABs against _____; | bullous pemphigoid is due to ABs against _____

desmosomes (worse); hemidesmosomes

main side effect of ethambutol

optic neuropathy

gallstones: ____ stones are due to hemolysis or ileal disease. ____ stones are due to infection. both result in increased _____ bilirubin

black; brown; unconjugated

a patient with one-sided pure hemisensory defecits most likely have damage to what?

ventral posterior nucleus (VPL and VPM)

aspiration: | when supine, typically occurs into where?

posterior segments of upper lobe or superior segments lower lob

aspiration: | when upright, typically occurs where?

basilar segments of lower lobes

what nerve is commonly damaged from anterior dislocations of the humerus? what deficits does this cause?

axillary--> flattened deltoid, loss of arm abduction > 15 degrees. also loss of sensation over deltoid muscle

neurocysticercosis (T. solium): | caused by ingestion of _____ in food contaminated with feces. typically causes ____

EGGS; | seizures

what symptom of organophosphate poisoning is not reversed by atropine administration? due to inability to block ____ effects

muscle paralysis; nicotinic

skin wrinkles: | due to exposure to UV ___ wavelength. causes ____ collagen fibril production and ____ metalloproteases

A; | decreased, increased (causing increased destruction)

TPN increases the risk of _____ via _____ CCK release and biliary _____

gallstones; decreased; stasis

what kind of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?

inactivated

administration of excessively high O2 to a patient with COPD can lead to increased ____ retention and increased _____ ____ ____ as poorly ventilated aveloli are perfused

CO2; physiologic dead space

viruses with ___ ______ can undergo reassortment. name the 4 of them

segmented genomes; Bunya Orthomyxo Arena Reo (ie rotavirus) (BOAR)

what is Beck's triad? what is it seen in?

JVD, hypotension, diminished heart sounds cardiac tamponade (also causes pulsus parodoxus)

pancreatic inflam (ie pancreatitis) can cause a blood clot to form within the ____ vein, increasing pressure in the ____ ___ veins, leading to _____ varices only in the ____

splenic; short gastric; gastric, fundus

what virus aquires their membrane from the host cell nucleus?

all herpesvirus ie CMV

what allows for coordinated contraction of myofibrils in muscle?

T-tubules

acid maltase (glucosidase) deficiency (_____'S) presents with _____ and profound muscular _____. abnormal glycogen accumulates within _____

pompe's; cardiomegaly; hypotonia; lysosomes (in muscle) also hepatomegaly

urticaria is due to increased _____ of microvasculature, leading to edema of the ____ ______

permeability, superficial dermis

gaucher disease: due to deficiency of _____; inheritance =

Beta-glucocerebrosidase; | autosomal recessive

gaucher: | presents with ______, _____penia, and gaucher cells, which are distended _____

hepatosplenomegaly; pancytopenial; distended MQ's can also cause avascular necrosis of femur

antigen loading: | with MCH II, antigen loading follows release of ____ _____ in an ____ _____

invariant chain; | acidified endosome

antigen loading: | with MHC1, peptides are loaded in the _____ after delivery via _____

Rough ER; | TAP

what kind of blot detects DNA binding proteins? What kind of probe is used?

southwestern blot; DS DNA ie C-jun, C-fos

what is the cause of splenomegaly in patients with pyruvate kinase defeciency?

red pulp hyperplasia

ADH causes an increase in water and _____ permeability at the inner _____ collecting duct

Urea; medullary

supracondylar humeral fractures with anterolateral displacement of the proximal fragment can damage what nerve? what about those with anteromedial displacement?

radial; median

what comprises most of the heart's anterior surface?

Right ventricle

R ventricular MI: | triad of _____, _____, and ____ lungs

hypotension, increased JVP, clear lungs

``` Cardiogenic shock (ie RV infarction): see ____ CVP, _____ CO, _____ PCWP ```

increased; decreased CO; decreased PCWP

most common cause of unilateral fetal hydronephrosis is issues with formation of the _____ _____

uteropelvic junction | inadequaate canalization

with an ectopic pregnancy, uterine cutterage reveal changes in the endometrium due to ______ ie ______

progesterone; | ie dilated/coiled endometrial glands, vascularization

calcification of aortic valves is preceded by what?

cell necrosis (dystrophic calcificiation

patients with urea cycle defects should reduce _____ consumption

protein

ehlers-danlos can be caused by _____ peptidase deficiency, which results in impaired cleavage of terminal peptides intracellularly or extracellularly?

procollagen; (removes N terminal peptide) | extracellularly