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UWORLD > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

when given sensitivity:
equation for TP =
equation for FN =

A

TP = Sens * patients with disease;

FN = (1 - sens) * patients with disease

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2
Q

cleft lip results when the _____ _____ fails to fuse with the ____ _____

A 
maxillary prominence;
intermaxillary segment (median nasal processes)
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3
Q

integral membrane proteins contain transmembrane domains composed of (alpha helices or beta sheets?) with _____ amino acid residues

A

alpha helices;

hydrophobic

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4
Q

patients with bradykinesia with parkinsons may benifit from deep brain stimulation of the _____ or ____, increasing mobility

A

Globus Pallidus internus;

Subthalamic Nucleus

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5
Q

PCWP is _____ in ARDS

A

normal

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6
Q

blood flow is directly proportional to the vessel radius raised to hte ____ power. ____ to blood flow is inversely proportional to the vessel radius raised to the ____ power

A

fourth; resistance;

fourth

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7
Q

____ bronchioles contain alveolar MQs. ____ bronchioles contain ciliated cells, which helps with clearance

A

respiratory;

terminal

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8
Q

what enzyme allows triglycerides to be converted into glucose?

A

glycerol kinase

also lipase to produce glycerol

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9
Q

A VD causes what kind of heart murmur? located where?

A

holosystolic murmur; Left sternal border

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10
Q

to be placed in hospice care, a patient must have a prognosis of less than ______

A

6 months

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11
Q

is isoniazid induced neuropathy due to direct neurotoxicity or due to vitamin deficiency?

A

vit b6 deficiency

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12
Q

appendicitis initially causes _____ ____ pain at the umbillicus due to afferent pain fibers entering at the ___ level

A

dull visceral;

T10

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13
Q

in appendicitis, progressive inflam of the ___ ____ causes more severe somatic pain in the RLQ

A

parietal peritoneum

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14
Q

what kind of sleep apnea is characterized by apnea followed by increasing tidal volume–> decreasing TV –> apnea?

A

cheyne stokes

ie CHF

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15
Q

amenorrhea in anorexia:

____ GnRH, _____ LH, ____ FSH, ____ estrogen

A

decrease in all

due to decreased leptin

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16
Q

lateral ankle sprains are due to ____ of a plantar-flexed foot. most commonly involves the ____ ligament

A

inversion;

anterior talofibular

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17
Q

pseudomonas is …:
motile or nonmotile?;
aerobic or anaerobic?;
lactose or non-lactose fermenting?

A

aerobic, motile, non lactose ferminting

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18
Q

____ blood has a high RBC ____ content due to high HCO3- content within plasma

A

venous;
chloride

ie, high HCO3 in cell –> into plasma –> Cl- into cell

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19
Q

what can infect a pre-existing lung cavity from prior Tb infection?

A

aspergiloma

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20
Q

prostaglandins dilate the ____ arteriole in the kidney. angiotensin 2 constricts the ____ arteriole. do ACE inhibitors increase or decrease GFR?

A

afferent;
efferent;
decrease

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21
Q

in lungs, binding of O2 drives the release of ___ and ____ from Hb (____ effect)

A

H+, CO2;

haldane

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22
Q

binding of PD-1 to its ligand (PDL1) ___Regulates the immune resposne against tumor cells by ____ cytotoxic T cells.

A

down;

inhibiting

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23
Q

monoclonal Abs blocking PD-1 help prevent T cell ____ and promote ____ of tumor cells

A

inhibition;

apoptosis

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24
Q

lactic acidosis occurs in septic shock from tissue ____ which impairs ___- _____

A

hypoxia;

oxidative phosphorylation

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25
Q

what aortic arch is responsible for the ductus arteriosis?

A

6th

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26
Q

strep viridans make _____ which bind to _____ aggregates on damaged heart valves

A

dextrans;

fibrin-platelet

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27
Q

what organism causes UTIs after cystoscopy? they are ____ hemolytic

A

enterococcus;

gamma (ie no hemolysis)

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28
Q

____ of __ and ____ residues of the insulin receptor leads to insulin resistance

A

phosphorylation;
serine, threonin

ie via TNF alpha, catecholamines, glucocorticoids, glucagon

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29
Q

what does the A-wave in a JVP tracing signify?

A

Atrial contraction

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30
Q

with the rinne test, air conduction > bone conduction indicates ____ loss. what does bone conduction > air indicate?

A

sensorineural;

conductive loss

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31
Q

weber test:
with conductive hearing loss, lateralization occurs to the ____ ear.

with sensorineural loss, lateralization occurs to the ____ ear

A

affected;

unaffected

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32
Q

in CN3, motor output is in the ____ and is most affected by ______ problems.
____ output is in the ___ and is most affected by ____ problems

A

motor = in center, affected by vascular/ischemia (ie diabetes);

parasymp = on periphery, affected by compression (ie aneurysm)

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33
Q

a lesion in the _____ _____ can produce contralateral homonymous hemianiopia AND a relative afferent pupillary defect in the pupil _____ to the tract lesion

A

optic tract;

contralateral

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34
Q

chronic topical corticosteroids can cause atrophy of the _____

A

dermis

\loss of collagen, drying, cracking

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35
Q

rtPCR is used to detect levels of ____ in a sample.

A

mRNA

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36
Q

wet beriberi causes ______; dry beriberi causes _____

A

dilated cardiomyopathy;

peripheral neuropathy

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37
Q

what are adjacent osteocytes connected by?

A

gap junctions

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38
Q

what is more associated with irregular uterine enlargement, endometriosis or leiomyomas?

A

leiomyoma

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39
Q

to prevent group B strep meningitis, ____partum antiobiotics (penicillin or amp) should be given at _____ Weeks gestation

A

INTRA;

35-37

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40
Q

2 most common pathogens that cause septic abortion

A

E. coli;

S. Aureus

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41
Q

osteogenesis impacts what facet of bone development?

A

defective bone matrix formation

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42
Q

precentral gyrus = primary ____ area;

postcentral gyrus = primary ____ area

A

motor;

somatosensory

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43
Q

____ refers to gene exchange that occurs thru crossing over of 2 double stranded DNA molecules. do progeny retain characteristics?

A

recombination;
yes

ie HSV

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44
Q

what do homeobox genes encode?

A

DNA binding transcription factors

45
Q

hepatic encephalopathy:

excess ____ to accumulate within astrocytes –> decreased amount that is converted to ____ –> disrupts _____ NTs

A

glutamine;
glutamate;
excitatory

46
Q

besides temporal arteritis, what vasculitis consists of granulomatous inflammation?

A

takaysu

47
Q

anastrozole and letrozole are _____ inhibitors and reduce synthesis of ____ from _____

A

aromatase;

estrogen, androgens

48
Q

central DI:
____ damage is typically permanent;
____ damage is transient

A

hypothalamic;

posterior pituitary

49
Q

UV radiation causes formation of _____ dimers, which are removed via _____

A

pyrimidine;

nucleotide excision repair

50
Q

poisonous mushrooms contain amatoxins which are potent inhibitors of RNA polymerase ____, halting _____ synthesis

A

II;

mRNA

51
Q

xanthelasma is found where?

what does it contain histologically?

A

eyelid;

lipid laden MQ

52
Q

_____ nevi involve both the dermis and epidermis;

____ nevi only are limited to above the dermoepidermal junction

A

compound;

junctional

53
Q

the initial step in the pathogenesis of beta thal involves what cellular molecule?

A

mRNA

54
Q

what pigment is responsible for the greenish color to bruises? what enzyme produces this?

A

biliverdin, produced by heme oxygenase

55
Q

what kind of hernia is due to failure of the processus vaginallis to close? is this medial or lateral to the inferior epigastrics?

A

indirect inguinal;

lateral

56
Q

blood supply to ureter:
proximal =

distal =

A

renal;

superior vesical

57
Q

most down syndrome is due to meosis ___ nondisjunction in the ____

A

1;

mother

58
Q

mifepristone is a _____ antagonist that causes necrosis of the uterine _____ –> abortion

A

progesterone;

decidua

59
Q

HCV lacks _____ exonuclease activity –> variation in antigenic structures of _____ proteins

A

3-5’ ;

envelope

60
Q

the GFR can be estimated by ____ or ____ clearance. the RPF can be calculated using the _____ clearance

A

inulin, creatinine;

PAH

61
Q

equation for filtration fraction

A

FF = GFR / RPF

62
Q

c. diff toxins:

toxin B disrupts _____ via ____ _____. toxin A binds to ______ and alters _____ _____

A

cytoskeleton, actin depolymerization;

brush-border, fluid secretion

63
Q

bipolar:
type 1 involves a ____ episode and requires or does not require depressive episode?

type II involves ____ episodes and requires or does not require depressive episodes?

A

type 1 = manic episodes, doesn’t require depression;

type 2 = hypomanic episodes, requires depression

64
Q

stomach acid secretion:

the ____ and ____ phases stimulate gastric acid secretion; _____ influences reduce secretion

A

cephalic, gastric;

intestinal

65
Q

equation for attributable risk:

A

100 * (RR-1)/RR

represents excess risk in exposed population attributed to risk factor

66
Q

deficiency in what vitamin causes pellegra? classic triad?

A

B3;

diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

67
Q

besides folate, supplementation with _____ can reduce erythroid cell apoptosis in B9 deficiency

A

thymidine

68
Q

damage to (medial or lateral) aspects of the optic chiasm can cause (ipsi or contralateral) (nasal or temporal) hemianopia

A

damage to LATERAL aspects of optic chiasm –> IPSILATERAL NASAL hemianopia

69
Q

sarcomere:
thin actin filaments in the ___ band are bound to structural proteins at the ____ line. thick myosin filaments in the ___ band are bound to structural proteins at the ___ line

A

I;
Z;
A;
M

70
Q

what allows gram - and gram + organisms to survive osmotic stress?

A

peptidoglycan cell wall

71
Q

patients with ataxia-telangiectasia are hypersensitive to ____, which increases risk of cancer

A

X-rays

due to defective DNA double strand break repair

72
Q

2 drugs that can cause coronary steal syndrome:

due to dilation of ____ vessels

A

adenosine, dipyridamole;

coronary arteriole

73
Q

pure red cell aplasia:

failure of erythroid precursor production. associated with _____ and ______ (2 cancers), and _____ (An infection)

A

thymoma, ALL/CLL;

parvo B19

74
Q

pemphigus vulgaris are due to ABs against _____;

bullous pemphigoid is due to ABs against _____

A

desmosomes (worse);

hemidesmosomes

75
Q

main side effect of ethambutol

A

optic neuropathy

76
Q

gallstones:
____ stones are due to hemolysis or ileal disease. ____ stones are due to infection. both result in increased _____ bilirubin

A

black;
brown;

unconjugated

77
Q

a patient with one-sided pure hemisensory defecits most likely have damage to what?

A

ventral posterior nucleus (VPL and VPM)

78
Q

aspiration:

when supine, typically occurs into where?

A

posterior segments of upper lobe or superior segments lower lob

79
Q

aspiration:

when upright, typically occurs where?

A

basilar segments of lower lobes

80
Q

what nerve is commonly damaged from anterior dislocations of the humerus? what deficits does this cause?

A

axillary–> flattened deltoid, loss of arm abduction > 15 degrees.

also loss of sensation over deltoid muscle

81
Q

neurocysticercosis (T. solium):

caused by ingestion of _____ in food contaminated with feces. typically causes ____

A

EGGS;

seizures

82
Q

what symptom of organophosphate poisoning is not reversed by atropine administration? due to inability to block ____ effects

A

muscle paralysis;

nicotinic

83
Q

skin wrinkles:

due to exposure to UV ___ wavelength. causes ____ collagen fibril production and ____ metalloproteases

A

A;

decreased, increased (causing increased destruction)

84
Q

TPN increases the risk of _____ via _____ CCK release and biliary _____

A

gallstones;
decreased;
stasis

85
Q

what kind of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?

A

inactivated

86
Q

administration of excessively high O2 to a patient with COPD can lead to increased ____ retention and increased _____ ____ ____ as poorly ventilated aveloli are perfused

A

CO2;

physiologic dead space

87
Q

viruses with ___ ______ can undergo reassortment. name the 4 of them

A

segmented genomes;

Bunya
Orthomyxo
Arena
Reo (ie rotavirus)

(BOAR)

88
Q

what is Beck’s triad? what is it seen in?

A

JVD, hypotension, diminished heart sounds

cardiac tamponade (also causes pulsus parodoxus)

89
Q

pancreatic inflam (ie pancreatitis) can cause a blood clot to form within the ____ vein, increasing pressure in the ____ ___ veins, leading to _____ varices only in the ____

A

splenic;
short gastric;

gastric, fundus

90
Q

what virus aquires their membrane from the host cell nucleus?

A

all herpesvirus ie CMV

91
Q

what allows for coordinated contraction of myofibrils in muscle?

A

T-tubules

92
Q

acid maltase (glucosidase) deficiency (_____‘S) presents with _____ and profound muscular _____. abnormal glycogen accumulates within _____

A

pompe’s;
cardiomegaly;
hypotonia;
lysosomes (in muscle)

also hepatomegaly

93
Q

urticaria is due to increased _____ of microvasculature, leading to edema of the ____ ______

A

permeability, superficial dermis

94
Q

gaucher disease:
due to deficiency of _____;
inheritance =

A

Beta-glucocerebrosidase;

autosomal recessive

95
Q

gaucher:

presents with ______, _____penia, and gaucher cells, which are distended _____

A

hepatosplenomegaly;
pancytopenial;

distended MQ’s

can also cause avascular necrosis of femur

96
Q

antigen loading:

with MCH II, antigen loading follows release of ____ _____ in an ____ _____

A

invariant chain;

acidified endosome

97
Q

antigen loading:

with MHC1, peptides are loaded in the _____ after delivery via _____

A

Rough ER;

TAP

98
Q

what kind of blot detects DNA binding proteins? What kind of probe is used?

A

southwestern blot;

DS DNA

ie C-jun, C-fos

99
Q

what is the cause of splenomegaly in patients with pyruvate kinase defeciency?

A

red pulp hyperplasia

100
Q

ADH causes an increase in water and _____ permeability at the inner _____ collecting duct

A

Urea;

medullary

101
Q

supracondylar humeral fractures with anterolateral displacement of the proximal fragment can damage what nerve?
what about those with anteromedial displacement?

A

radial;

median

102
Q

what comprises most of the heart’s anterior surface?

A

Right ventricle

103
Q

R ventricular MI:

triad of _____, _____, and ____ lungs

A

hypotension, increased JVP, clear lungs

104
Q 
Cardiogenic shock (ie RV infarction):
see \_\_\_\_ CVP, \_\_\_\_\_ CO, \_\_\_\_\_ PCWP
A

increased;
decreased CO;
decreased PCWP

105
Q

most common cause of unilateral fetal hydronephrosis is issues with formation of the _____ _____

A

uteropelvic junction

inadequaate canalization

106
Q

with an ectopic pregnancy, uterine cutterage reveal changes in the endometrium due to ______ ie ______

A

progesterone;

ie dilated/coiled endometrial glands, vascularization

107
Q

calcification of aortic valves is preceded by what?

A

cell necrosis

(dystrophic calcificiation

108
Q

patients with urea cycle defects should reduce _____ consumption

A

protein

109
Q

ehlers-danlos can be caused by _____ peptidase deficiency, which results in impaired cleavage of terminal peptides intracellularly or extracellularly?

A

procollagen; (removes N terminal peptide)

extracellularly

UWORLD (6 decks)

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