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DIT Phase I Sets > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What medications are commonly used in the treatment of mild-moderate Crohn disease in adults?

A

COIN B for Crohn

Conventional glucocorticoids (Prednisone) ± antibiotics (Ciprofloxacin, metronidazole) for acute exacerbations

Oral 5-aminosalicylates (ASA agents) (mesalamine, sulfasalazine) - initial therapy for mild disease

Immunomodulators - Azathioprine or mercaptopurine > methotrexate

Non-systemic glucocorticoids - Budesonide

Biologic therapies - Anti-TNF agents (infliximab, adalimumab)

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2
Q

A 60-year-old man is evaluated for an enlarged prostate. How does flutamide differ from finasteride in relation to mechanism of action and clinical use?

A

Flutamide - Used in prostate cancer, non-steroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens

Finasteride - Used in BPH, inhibits 5α reductase, which converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), Used for male-pattern baldness

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3
Q

Which bacteria are most commonly responsible for sialadenitis? What condition most commonly predisposes a patient to sialadenitis?

A
  • S. Aureus
  • S. Viridans
  • S. Mutans

Due to Sialolithiasis (stone obstruction of the salivary gland duct)

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4
Q

A 37-year-old man is fasting for religious reasons. What energy metabolites does the liver secrete in the fed state vs. in the fasting state?

A
  • Fed state - Insulin stimulates the storage of glycogen, lipids, protein
  • Fasting state - Blood glucose is maintained by glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, ketone bodies are released
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5
Q

A 23-year-old man undergoes a splenectomy due to splenic rupture from blunt abdominal trauma. What would you expect to find on this patient’s peripheral RBC smear after the splenectomy? Asplenic patients are susceptible to which encapsulated organisms? What vaccines for these encapsulated organisms should be given to asplenic patients?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies - Basophilic nuclear remnants found in RBCs

“Some Killers Have Nice Shiny Bodies”

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae .
Haemophilus ¡influenzae type B
Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella
Group B Strep

“Give SHiN vaccine”
Vaccines - Give S. pneumonia, H. influenza, N. Meningitis (Capsule, conjugated with a protein, serves as antigen in vaccines)

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6
Q

A 65-year-old woman with COPD is in severe respiratory distress, has cyanosis and signs of right-sided heart failure. What medications are used in the treatment of pulmonary hypertension? What is its mechanism of action?

A

Cor pulmonale due to COPD induced pulmonary hypertension

Pulmonary Hypertension Treatment:

All of these agents cause vasodilitation -

  • (1) Endothelin-1 antagonists: Bosentan, Ambrisentan;
  • (2) Prostaglandin analog (Iloprost, epoprostenol (vasodilate pulmonary vasculature);
  • (3) cGMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors (Vardenafil, Tadalafil, Sildenafil (Revatio);
  • (4) Dihydropyridine CCB (Nifedipine, amlodipine)
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7
Q

A 56-year-old man develops right lower extremity edema after a returning from Europe from a business trip. An exam of the right lower extremity demonstrates a red, warm, lower leg with a positive Homan’s sign.

What is the patient’s diagnosis?

What is a positive Homan’s sign?

What is Virchow’s triad?

What is the most common inherited hypercoagulability syndrome?

A

Deep venous thrombosis

Homan’s sign - Pain in the calf muscle upon dorsiflexion of the foot (Not very sensitivity 60-88%, NOT Specific for DVT: specificity 30-70%)

Virchow’s triad

  • Stasis
  • Hypercoagulability
  • Endothelial damage

Factor V Leiden - Clotting factor V cannot be degraded by protein C resulting in an inability for protein C to control clotting cascade

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8
Q

A 45-year-old white woman presents with a 1cm x 1cm, painless, mobile mass in her right parotid gland. You inform the patient that most tumors in the parotid gland are benign.

What is the most common benign tumor of the salivary gland?

What is a Warthin’s tumor?

What cranial nerve goes through the parotid gland?

A
  • Most common - Pleomorphic adenoma
  • Warthin’s tumor - Benign, heterotopic salivary gland tissue trapped in a lymph node
  • CN VII
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9
Q

Choose the most appropriate therapy:

A 22-year-old man with drug-resistant gonorrheal urethritis

A

Ceftriaxone

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10
Q

Choose the most appropriate therapy: Lyme disease treatment

A

Tetracycline

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11
Q

Choose the most appropriate therapy: UTI prophylaxis for a 44-year-old woman with a history of recurrent UTIs

A
  • TMP-SMX
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • 1st or 2nd generation Cephalosporin
  • Amoxicillin
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12
Q

Choose the most appropriate therapy: A 33-year-old hiker with Giardia lamblia

A

Metronidazole

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13
Q

Choose the most appropriate therapy: A 23-year-old woman with antibiotic-induced C. difficile colitis

A

Metronidazole - most often used
Oral Vancomycin

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14
Q

A 44-year-old male hepatitis C patient is undergoing recombinant interferon treatment for his disease. In what ways do interferons interfere with viral protein synthesis?

A

Interferons induce cellular antiviral defenses:

  • RNA protein kinase (ribonuclease that degrades viral mRNA but not host mRNA),
  • Pro-apoptotic pathways
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15
Q

You are reading a research article about the prostate specific antigen test, and it mentions that the PSA blood test is associated with a high false positive frequency. In your own words, explain what false positive means.

A

Test is positive even though disease is not present

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16
Q

A 25-year-old woman presents to clinic with scanning speech, intention tremor, intermittent incontinence, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. What is internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A

Internuclear opthalmoplegia - Classic for MS, but possible stroke in elderly patient

  • Lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus
  • Medial rectus palsy on attempted lateral gaze
  • Nystagmus in abducting eye
  • Convergence is normal
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17
Q

What effect does stress have on adipocytes?

A
  1. Sympathetic activation –> Epi and NE
    Activates hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase in fat cells Rapid breakdown of triglycerides, and mobilization of fatty acids

2.Corticotropin release from anterior pituitary
Adrenal cortex secretes more glucocorticoids
Stimulates lipase in fat cells

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18
Q

You are seeing a 54-year-old man six months after a percutaneous coronary intervention for an anterior myocardial infarction. Consequently, the patient was placed on aspirin 81 mg per day, atorvastatin 20 mg per day, and atenolol 100 mg twice a day. The patient reports feeling better but has been bothered by difficulty with achieving and sustaining an erection.

What would be a common reason for this patient’s erectile dysfunction?

What are the common side effects of β-blockers?

Which patient populations should use caution when taking β-blockers?

A

Adverse effect of atenolol
Atherosclerosis of the arteries supplying the penis
Fear of a heart attack

SE of beta blockers:

  • Impotence
  • Exacerbation of asthma
  • Bradycardia, AV block
  • CHF
  • Sedation, sleep alterations

Take caution:

  • Diabetics
  • Asthma
  • Bradycardia or AV block (if on verapamil or diltiazem, may get full block)
  • Acute CHF
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19
Q

A 5-year-old boy is treated with mebendazole for a pinworm infection. Mebendazole acts on microtubules to inhibit the helminthic infection.

What other medications act on microtubules?

What syndrome demonstrates a defect in microtubule polymerization?

A

Griseofulvin - antifungal
Vincristine
Vinblastine
Paclitaxel
Colchicine

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome - deficiency of phagocytosis (macrophages have poor microtubule function)

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20
Q

A 33-year-old man is diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma and treated with doxorubicin, bleomycin, vincristine, cyclophosphamide and etoposide. While undergoing treatment, the patient develops a paralytic ileus and neurotoxicity from the treatment regimen.

Which chemotherapy agent most likely is the cause of these sequelae?

What is the characteristic pathology finding of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Doxorubicin - cardiotoxicity
Bleomycin - pulmonary fibrosis
Vincristine - neurotoxicity - leading to a peripheral neuropathy
Cyclophosphamide - hemorrhagic cystitis
Etoposide - bone marrow suppression

Reed-Sternberg cell: multiple or bi-lobed nuclei, owl eye appearance, shrink so clear area surrounding the cell.
These cells are also Positive for B cells CD30 and CD15

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21
Q

Alkylates DNA, toxicity –> pulmonary fibrosis

A

Busulfan

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22
Q

Fragments DNA, toxicity –> pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin

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23
Q

Cross-links DNA, nephrotoxic, ototoxic

A

Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaliplatin

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24
Q

Nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electrophile that binds DNA)

A

Cyclophosphamide

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25
Q

Prevents tubulin disassembly

A

Paclitaxel (taxols)

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26
Q

DNA alkylating agents used in brain cancer

A

Nitrosoureas

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27
Q

SE hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

Hemorrhagic cystitis can be partially prevented with mesna (thiol group of mesna binds to acrolein, the toxic metabolite) acrolein metabolite production also ↑ risk of transitional cell cancer of the bladder.

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28
Q

SE nephrotoxic and acoustic nerve damage

A

Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaliplatin

Prevent nephrotoxicity with amifostine (free radical scavenger) and chloride diuresis

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29
Q

You are seeing a 32-year-old woman for the first time who complains of a cough, nasal congestion and fever for the past two days. During the patient’s medical history, you note the patient is taking clomiphene and metformin for polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). What is the role of clomiphene in the treatment of PCOS? What is the mechanism of action of clomiphene?

A

PCOS is characterized by 3 major features:

  • Polycystic ovaries
  • Androgen excess
  • **Anovulation/Oligoovulation **

Clomiphene induces ovulation - partial estrogen agonist,
blocks the normal feedback inhibition in the hypothalamus ↑ release of LH and FSH

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30
Q

How much does the H&H change in a person that has acclimatized to a hypoxic environment for weeks?

A
  • Hct goes from 40-45 —> 60
  • Hgb goes from 15g/dL to 20g/dL
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31
Q

A 17-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of painful urination and purulent penile discharge. Ceftriaxone is used for the treatment of sexually-transmitted N. gonorrhoeae infections.

What generation of cephalosporin is ceftriaxone?

Which generation of cephalosporins is effective against Pseudomonas?

Are cephalosporins bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

Ceftriaxone is a 3rd generation

Pseudomonas - 4th generation (cefepime)

Some 3rd generation - Ceftazidime, Cefoperazone

Bacteriocidal! - interferes with cell wall synthesis, can’t grow, can’t remodel cell walls = death

32
Q

A patient begins to experience fever, night sweats, cough and weight loss after traveling in a European bus tour. The patient’s chest x-ray reveals middle and lower lung infiltrates and sputum culture reveals Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The patient is subsequently placed on isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for active tuberculosis.

Why can rifampin not be taken as a single agent for tuberculosis?

What are the Rs of rifampin?

A

Resistance; use 4 drug cocktail: Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

  • RNA polymerase inhibitor
  • Red/orange body fluids
  • Revs up cytochrome P450
  • Rapid resistance if given alone
33
Q

A 21-year-old man is seen in the clinic for joint pain. His right wrist is painful and mildly swollen. He said that last week his left elbow had similar symptoms but he didn’t seek treatment at that time. History reveals that the patient is a healthy athlete in college with many sexual partners.

What are the other manifestations that could appear with this disease?

A

Septic arthritis from N gonorrhoeae

  • Synovitis - inflammation of synovium
  • Tenosynovitis - tendon sheath is inflamed
  • Pustular skin eruption
34
Q

A patient of yours awakes one morning unable to move from the bed. His arms, legs, and torso just don’t seem to work. The patient reports progressively worsening weakness over the previous two days that seemed to start in the legs. Peripheral sensation is intact.

What study would help you confirm your clinical suspicion of this patient’s diagnosis?

A

Guillain-Barré Syndrome

Lumbar puncture - High protein, normal cell count

35
Q

A 36-year-old malnourished woman comes to the ER with abdominal pain. She has a fever, abdominal tenderness (but no rebound), and anorexia. Her WBC is markedly elevated and her RDW is high. The patient reports having had a bowel movement this morning and is not nauseated. A small bowel follow through reveals skip lesions (discontinuous areas of focal narrowing) and a string sign (significant narrowing) in the terminal ileum.

What disease does this patient likely have? What drugs can be used to treat it?

A

Crohn’s disease - skip lesions, sting sign, transmural inflammation, cobblestone appearance

Treat: 5-ASA, glucocorticoids

If severe: Immunosupppressants (azathioprine, 6-MP), Anti-TNFα drugs (infliximab, adalimumab)

36
Q

A 44-year-old woman is rushed to the ER after her brother found her passed out on the floor with pills scattered about and a bottle of liquor opened on the table. The patient is cyanotic, withdraws to painful stimulus, and has poor respiratory effort: so she is intubated. The brother does not know the name of the pills, but he tells you they are a prescription for his sister’s anxiety.

What prescription medication(s) might be the cause of this clinical picture and what antidote/treatment is available?

A

Benzodiazepines - dangerous if combined with alcohol

$ Treat overdose with Flumazenil - competitive antagonist at the GABA receptor (injection only, repeated doses may be necessary since shorter half life (30 min) than most benzos (ie midazolam is 2-6 hours))

37
Q

You have an adult patient that has failed conventional treatment (5-ASA, steroids, and immunosuppressants) for his active Crohn disease. Another option available to you is to target TNF-α with which drug(s)?

A

Infliximab, Adalimumab, Certolizumab are monoclonal antibodies that target TNF-alpha

Etanercept - decoy receptor that binds up all the TNF-alpha, NOT used for crohns, but for RA, and psoriasis

38
Q

Which glycogen storage disease fits each of the following features?

Severe hypoglycemia with elevated blood lactate

A

Von Gierke disease (Type I)

39
Q

Which glycogen storage disease fits each of the following features?

Hypoglycemia without elevated blood lactate

A

Cori disease (Type III)

40
Q

Which glycogen storage disease fits each of the following features?

Cardiomegaly

A 
Pompe disease (Type II)
*"pompe trashes the pump"*
41
Q

Which glycogen storage disease fits each of the following features?

Myoglobinuria associated with exercise

A

McCardle disease (Type V)

42
Q

A patient presents to the obstetrical emergency room with complaints of abnormal vaginal bleeding. On bimanual exam, the physician notes an enlarged uterus.

What lab value is elevated in a patient with a hydatidiform mole?

What is the genotype of a hydatidiform mole (complete vs. partial)?

A
  • β-hCG
  • Partial mole - 69XXX, 69XXY, or 69XYY (2 sperm fertilizing a single egg)
  • Complete mole - 46XX or 46XY (2 sperm fertilizing an empty egg)
43
Q

What trace element is essential to the function of carbonic anhydrase and lactate dehydrogenase?

A

Zinc - proper enzyme folding

44
Q

A 1-month-old girl presents with an anterior neck enlargement. Your exam reveals a pale infant with enlarged abdominal girth and a protruding umbilicus. You think this patient might have cretinism.

In cretinism, would the patients TSH be elevated or decreased?

What is the cause of endemic cretinism?

What is the cause of sporadic cretinism?

A

Cretinism: Severe fetal hypothyroidism, swollen abdomen, swollen puffy face, protruding tongue, protruding umbilicus; TSH is high

Endemic cretinism - Inadequate maternal iodine intake during pregnancy

Sporadic cretinism - Development malformation of the thyroid, Intrinsic defect of T4 formation

45
Q

You are evaluating a 74-year-old woman for progressive dyspnea. The patient looks younger than her stated age and reports a family history of autoimmune disease. Given the patient’s presentation, you think the patient might have scleroderma.

In scleroderma, what systems can be affected by fibrosis of collagen?

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Bone and tendons

A

Sclerosis of:

  • Skin - tight and shiny
  • Renal tissue
  • Pulmonary tissue
  • Cardiovascular tissue
  • GI tissue

CREST syndrome - associated with antiCentromere antibodies

  • Calcinosis
  • Raynaud phenomenon
  • Esophageal dysmotility
  • Sclerodactyly - Stiffness and tightness of the skin of the fingers, with atrophy of the soft tissue and osteoporosis of the distal phalanges of the hands and feet
  • Telangiectasia - Dilation of the previously existing small or terminal vessels of a part.

Bones and tendons Type I collagen

46
Q

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Epiphyseal plate

A

Cartilage, Type II collagen

47
Q

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Main constituent of the basement membrane

A

Type IV collagen

48
Q

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Granulation tissue

A

Type III

49
Q

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Late wound repair

A

Type I

50
Q

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Cartilage

A

Type II

51
Q

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Vitreous body and nucleus pulposus

A

Type II

52
Q

Which collagen type is found in the following locations? Also known as reticulin

A

Type III (Reticulin - strands of type III woven together)

53
Q

What the hell are reticular fibers?

A

fibers made of type III collagen forming the distinctive loose connective tissue stroma of embryonic tissues, mesenchyme, red pulp of the spleen, cortex and medulla of lymph nodes, and the hematopoietic compartments of bone marrow, and accounting for a substantial portion of the collagen fibers of the skin, blood vessels, synovial membrane, uterine tissue, and granulation tissue; characterized by its organization as a reticular meshwork of fine filaments

54
Q

You can use two different types of medication in the treatment of diabetes insipidus: desmopressin (ADH analog) or hydrochlorothiazide (diuretic).

What determination must be made for selecting an effective treatment for diabetes insipidus?

Which drug will help you make this determination?

A

Water Deprivation test - Measure urine osmolality, restrict fluid, re-measure urine osmolality

Determine whether the patient has:

  • Lack of ADH (central DI)
  • Lack of responsiveness to ADH (nephrogenic DI)

Give an ADH analog (desmopressin) if improves, then central DI, if not:

Give HCTZ for nephrogenic

55
Q

A 24-year-old woman has trouble with heavy and prolonged menses. She has also noticed a pressure that feels like it is inside of her pelvis. Her OB/GYN diagnosis her with uterine leiomyoma (fibroid).

What analog of GnRH can be used to treat uterine fibroids?

Is it used in a continuous or pulsatile manner for this application?

A
  • GnHR is secreted from hypothalamus in a pulsative fashion, casing AP to secrete FSH and LH
  • GnRH analogs Leuprolide, Goserelin continuous -> inhibit secretion of FSH and LH -> menopausal state an fibroid ↓ size
56
Q

What is HIPAA?

A
  • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
  • Establishes standard for the handling of certain health care information
57
Q

What are some of the circumstances in which information is HIPAA-exempt, meaning that your health information can be shared with another party?

A
  • Child abuse
  • Birth or death information
  • Reporting of state-mandated reportable illnesses
  • Public health disease surveillance
  • State-sponsored disease intervention
  • Schools are exempt - Record of illness, student health status
  • Employers are exempt - conditions that affect the employee’s capability to work
58
Q

It is recommended to vaccinate 11-12 year-old patients against Neisseria meningitidis to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis.

What are other examples of encapsulated bacteria that have a preventative vaccine?

What test can be used to detect encapsulated bacteria?

A
  • S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae type B
  • Add anticapsular antibodies; Quellung reaction
59
Q

A 60-year-old man has noticed worsening urinary complaints. He is having to urinate more frequently and has a decreased urinary stream. A digital rectal exam reveals a smooth, symmetrical, enlarged prostate. You begin patient treatment with a medication that relaxes the prostatic smooth muscle.

What class of medication is used to relax smooth muscle in BPH?

What are the steps involved in the contraction of smooth muscle?

A

Nonselective α1-Antagonists (Alpha-1B receptors), terasozin, doxasosin, Prazosin

  • Decrease prostate smooth muscle tone -> immediate improvement in urine flow
  • SE: dizziness, postural hyptension, fatigue, asthenia. To reduce SE, dose qHS and titrate dose upward slowly over time (weekly)

Tamsulosin (Flowmax) is a selective alpha-1A, D receptor (found on prostate) blocker, - fewer SE than non-selectives, has no antihypertensive effects

Cell membrane depolarizes, Voltage-gated calcium channels open, calcium binds to calmodulin, activates myosin light-chain kinase (MLCK), Phosphorylates myosin, Myosin-P interacts with actin

60
Q

Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations?

t (9;22)

A

CML

61
Q

Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations?

t (8;14)

A

Burkitt lymphoma

62
Q

Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations?

t (14;18)

A

Follicular lymphomas

63
Q

Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations?

t (15;17)

A

AML (M3)

64
Q

Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations?

t (11;22)

A

Ewing sarcoma

65
Q

Which types of cancer are associated with the following chromosomal translocations?

t (11;14)

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

66
Q

A 37-year-old patient with refractory peptic ulcer disease undergoes an esophagogastric duodenoscopy (EGD). Biopsies of the duodenum reveal hypertrophied submucosal glands.

What are these glands?

What are Peyer’s patches?

How can these structures help you identify the location from which a histological specimen was taken?

A
  • *Brunner’s glands in duodenum** - secrete bicarbonate
  • *Peyer’s Patches:** lymphoid tissue in the ileum, interact with antigen-detecting M cells, Dendritic cells carry antigen to the rest of the immune system;

Generate B cells which will become IgA-secreting plasma cells

  • *Brunner’s gland** - duodenum
  • *Peyer’s patches** - ileum
67
Q

A homeless alcoholic is brought to the hospital with shortness of breath, high fever, and decreased mental status.

What is the clinical use of clindamycin?

What is its most well-known side effect?

A

Clindamycin - Anaerobic lung infections, MRSA infections, Acne. Alcoholic with pneumonia - think aspiration pneumonia caused by anaerobes.

Pseudomembranous colitis (C. difficile colitis) disrupts normal flora

68
Q

Given the following scenarios describe the corresponding complement deficiency?

Frequent Neisseria infections

A

C5, C6, C7, C8

69
Q

Given the following scenarios describe the corresponding complement deficiency?

Frequent pyogenic respiratory tract infections

A

C3

70
Q

Given the following scenarios describe the corresponding complement deficiency?

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

CD55 or CD59 - prevents complement from attacking RBCs

71
Q

Given the following scenarios describe the corresponding complement deficiency?

Increased frequency of type III hypersensitivity reaction

A

C3 - glomerulonephritis

72
Q

What is p value? What is normally an acceptable level of p value?

A

Probability of making a type 1 error, saying there is a difference when none exists, P <0.05

73
Q

A 65-year-old woman reports decreased vision. During her exam, you begin suspecting open-angle glaucoma. What are the 5 classes of medications used to treat glaucoma?

A

“treat glaucoma with your Precious ABCDs”

  • Prostaglandins (latanoprost)
  • α-Agonists
  • β-Blockers
  • Cholinomimetics (direct pilocarpine, indirect physostigmine)
  • Diuretics (acetazolamide, mannitol)
74
Q

A 22-year-old female law student is in your office for prenatal counseling and a well-woman check up. She knows that she needs to begin taking folic acid supplements to prevent neurologic defects before she begins to try conceiving a child with her husband. She did some research on the internet and asks, “Does the notochord become the neural tube?”

A

No, the notocord is derived from mesoderm, induces overlying ectoderm to become the neural plate -> neural tube and NCC, taking folic acid prevents neural tube defects

75
Q

A 67-year-old woman is brought to the ER by her concerned husband. For the past 2 hours, she has been very nauseated, weak, lightheaded, and somewhat short of breath. Though she denies chest pain, the resident suspects a cardiac etiology for the symptoms and orders an EKG and cardiac enzymes.

What are the branches of the right and left coronary arteries?

What is the most commonly occluded artery of the heart?

What is particularly dangerous about an occlusion of the RCA?

A

Right coronary artery - Posterior descending artery (PDA), Acute marginal artery

Left main artery - Left anterior descending artery (LAD), circumflex artery

Left anterior descending most commonly occluded

RCA usually provides the blood supply to the SA node and AV node - High risk for arrhythmias

76
Q

What are the 3 different eukaryotic RNA polymerases? What type of RNA does each make?

A
  • RNA polymerase I makes rRNA
  • RNA polymerase II makes mRNA
  • RNA polymerase III makes tRNA

DIT Phase I Sets (8 decks)

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