Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the manner in which iodide is taken into thyroid follicular cells as well as the role of thyroid peroxidase. Additionally, in what disease are antibodies against thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO antibodies) generated?

A
  • Enters the follicular cell via a Na+/I- symporter present in thyroid follicular epithelial cells, inhibited by thiocyanate and perchlorate anions);
  • Thyroid peroxidase oxidizes iodide to iodine (PTO inhibited by propylthiouracil, methimazole);
  • Bound to thyroglobulin (“organification”) (form monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrosine (DIT) -> T4; Hashimoto thyroiditis - major cause of hypothyroidism
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2
Q

An 80-year-old man, who continues to smoke despite his COPD, has had a productive cough for almost 4 months. He even had to be hospitalized during the past December for respiratory infection that severely compromised his ability to oxygenate. In which pulmonary disease would you see an increased Reid index?

A

Chronic bronchitis

Reid index = gland depth/total thickness of bronchial wall - >50%

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3
Q

What is the mechanism of action and clinical use for varenicline?

A
  • Partial agonist at nicotinic ACh receptors
  • Used for smoking cessation
  • Black box warning for neuropsychiatric events - depression, suicidal ideations
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4
Q

Which branchial arch has derivatives that begin with “S”? What are these derivatives?

A
  • Branchial arch 2 from mesoderm: Stapes
  • Styloid process
  • Lesser horn of hyoid
  • Stylohyoid ligament
  • Cranial nerve Seven
  • Stapedius
  • Stylohoid
  • Posterior belly of digaStric muscles
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5
Q

When an infant is born and takes its first breath, the lungs expand creating negative pressure that draws blood into the pulmonary circulation. Because the pressure in the pulmonary circulation is lower than that in the aorta, blood preferentially flows into the pulmonary circulation and the ductus arteriosus closes. What other fetal blood vessels are closed in the adult circulation?

A
  • Umbilical vein - ligamentum teres (contained in falciform ligament);
  • Umbilical arteries -> medial umbilical ligament;
  • Ductus arteriosus -> ligamentum arteriosum;
  • Ductus venosus -> Ligamentum venosum;
  • Foramen ovale -> closed fossa ovalis
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6
Q

A 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. What class of drugs would be used to treat her? What is another use for these drugs? What is the main concern when using tamoxifen?

A
  • Toxols commonly used - hyperstabilize microtubules so that microtubules can’t take place. Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS) Tamoxifen, Raloxifene;
  • Osteoporosis - agonists in bone
  • Endometrial carcinoma
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7
Q

Psoriasis is characterized by an increase in the stratum spinosum and a decrease in the stratum granulosum. What are the layers of the epidermis beginning with the most superficial layer? What is Auspitz sign?

A

“Californians Like Girls In String Bikinis”

  • Stratum corneum
  • Stratum lucidum
  • Stratum granulosum
  • Stratum spinosum
  • Stratum basalis

Bleeding spots when scales are scraped off - clinical feature of psoriasis

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8
Q

A 15-year-old girl is brought to the pediatric ER. She is in some distress and has the following symptoms: rapid, deep breathing; vomiting; abdominal pain; and dry mucous membranes. Finger stick glucose is >500 mg/dL. What other lab abnormalities do you expect to find?

A
  • DKA - Hyperglycemia;
  • Ketones in blood and urine;
  • Anion gap metabolic acidosis;
  • Leukocytosis (from stress);
  • Hyperkalemia -> hypokalemia (hydrogen exchange drives potassium out of cells);
  • Tx: always give insulin + potassium because total potassium levels are low.
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9
Q

A 3-year-old patient who presented with splenomegaly and jaundice undergoes a splenectomy after being diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis.

  • What encapsulated organisms are patients susceptible to after a splenectomy?
  • What lab findings would you expect in this patient after the splenectomy?
A

“Even Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules”

  • E. coli;
  • S. pneumonia;
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae;
  • H. influenzae;
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
  • Neisseria meningitidis;
  • Cryptococcus neoformans;

Howell-Jolly bodies - basophilic nuclear remnants found in RBCs

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10
Q

A 35-year-old patient is on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) including zidovudine, didanosine and ritonavir. A routine CBC to monitor the HAART reveals a megaloblastic anemia. Which medication is the most likely cause of the ill effect? What is the mechanism of action of zidovudine and didanosine? What is the mechanism of action of ritonavir?

A
  • Zidovudine (AZT) is known to cause megaloblastic anemia (bone marrow suppression);
  • MOA of Zidovudine & Didanosine - Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs);
  • Compete for nucleotide binding at the reverse transcriptase enzyme;
  • Termination of HIV DNA transcription;
  • Ritonavir - Protease inhibitor;
  • HIV polypeptides cannot be properly cleaved to make functional HIV proteins
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11
Q

A 22-year-old man lost his leg last week in a tragic accident involving alcohol and heavy machinery. He is medically able to be discharged home tomorrow, and the paperwork is already set up so he can leave in the morning. However, the nurse pulls you aside and informs you that the patient has been very depressed about his lost limb, and she overheard him talking to a friend about just ending his life with his dad’s gun when he gets out of the hospital. What must be done?

A
  • Assess seriousness of threat;
  • Evaluate the risk factors for suicide completion - (Male, depressed, alcohol use, organized plan, access to lethal means);
  • Recommend voluntary hospitalization;
  • Involuntary hospitalization - warrant issued by court via expert opinion of physician
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12
Q

What neurotransmitter levels in the brain are either increased or decreased in the following diseases?
· Schizophrenia
· Parkinson disease
· Alzheimer disease
· Huntington disease

A
  • Schizophrenia ↑ Dopamine (mesolimbic dopamine pathway)
  • Parkinson disease ↓ Dopamine; ↑Serotonin; ↑Acetylcholine
  • Alzheimer disease ↓ Acetylcholine
  • Huntington disease ↓ GABA ↓Acetylcholine; ↑Dopamine
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13
Q

What organisms are particularly known for causing infective endocarditis?

A
  • 75% Due to 4 types of organisms:
  • S. aureus - Acute, large vegetations(30%)
  • **Viridans strep - Subacute, small vegetations **(S. mutans) (20-30%)
  • Enterococci - Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci is harder to treat! (10%)
  • Coagulase-negative Staph (S. epidermidis is main one) (5-10%);
  • IV drug users - S. aureus, S. epidermidis, but also Psuedomonas or Candida
  • S. Bovis - colon cancer is possible
  • When you know it’s endocarditis but not growing anything on blood cultures, it is HACEK organisms:
    • Haemophilus
    • Actinobacillus
    • Cardiobacterium
    • Eikenella
    • Kingella
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14
Q

A 23-year-old man is a victim of a motor vehicle collision. He suffered a traumatic brain injury and is in a coma. The attending surgeon tells the intern on ICU call to monitor the patient for the Cushing reaction. What is the Cushing reaction?

A
  • Hypertension;
  • Reflex bradycardia; Respiratory depression (resulting from ↑ intracranial pressure);
  • ↑ intracranial pressure constricts arterioles and ↓ blood flow to the brain -> ischemia -> activation of sympathetic nervous system by the hypothalamus -> systemic vasoconstriction -> ↑BP -> sensed by aortic baroreceptors -> brain stem -> parasympathetic response -> reflex bradycardia
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15
Q

In your own words, describe what type II (β) error is.

A

Stating there is no effect or difference, when one does exist

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16
Q

What is Bias?

How can bias be reduced?

A
  • Occurs when 1 outcome is systematically favored over another
  • Systematic errors
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17
Q
A
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18
Q

What arteries supply the adrenal glands? From what arteries do these arteries arise?

A
  • Inferior phrenic artery -> Superior adrenal artery
  • Aorta (near SMA) -> Middle adrenal artery
  • Renal artery -> Inferior adrenal artery
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19
Q

An adult trauma patient begins to experience shortness of breath on day 3 of his hospital stay. The patient had an open reduction internal fixation of a right femur fracture. You are concerned the patient’s shortness of breath might be attributed to an embolus. The patient is certainly at risk for an embolus because of prolonged immobility. Why else might the patient be at risk for an embolus? What are the different types of emboli?

A
  • Long bone and pelvic fractures increase the risk of fat emboli or fracture disrupts overlying adipose tissue and allows fat droplets to get into veins
  • Fat embolus
  • Thromboembolus
  • Septic embolus (bacterial vegetation on a heart valve)
  • Air embolus (injection, decompression sickness/bends)
  • Amniotic fluid embolus (AFE) -> DIC
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20
Q

How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed?

A

Sweat chloride test is gold standard -> >60 mEq/L on 2 or more occasions, this makes the diagnosis; Genetic testing for CFTR gene mutation identifies 90% of CF cases (used if unequivocal sweat chloride or confirm and determine prognosis based on specific mutation); Nasal transepithelial chloride secretion.

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21
Q

What medications are used in the treatment of the pulmonary component of cystic fibrosis? │BAD HANI β2 Agonists (albuterol short acting or long acting - salmeterol, formoterol); DNase I (dornase alfa) ↓ viscosity sputum by breaking down long strands of DNA in sputum of CF patients; Hypertonic saline (given with nebulizer to help hydrate mucous); Azithromycin (Routine to slow decline of lung function); N-acetylcysteine (nebulized, breaks up mucus, not used as often anymore); Ibuprofen to help reduce inflammation

A

“BAD HANI”

  • β2 Agonists (albuterol short acting or long acting - salmeterol, formoterol);
  • DNase I (dornase alfa) ↓ viscosity sputum by breaking down long strands of DNA in sputum of CF patients;
  • Hypertonic saline (given with nebulizer to help hydrate mucous);
  • Azithromycin (Routine to slow decline of lung function);
  • N-acetylcysteine (nebulized, breaks up mucus, not used as often anymore);
  • Ibuprofen to help reduce inflammation
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22
Q

A 35-year-old man is having a partial colectomy for diverticular disease. The patient is placed on neomycin prior to the bowel surgery. What class of medication is neomycin? What is the mechanism of action of neomycin? What are the toxicities with this class of medication?

A
  • Aminoglycoside
  • MOA - inhibit protein synthesis - inhibits formation of initiation complex, causing misreading of mRNA
  • Toxicity - “NOT” Nephrotoxic, ototoxic (vestibulocochlear apparatus), teratogenic (fetal hearing loss)
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23
Q

On your neurology rotation, a 27-year-old woman comes in for a check-up and renewal of her prescription for β interferon therapy. What is the classic triad of symptoms in multiple sclerosis? With what disorders do patients with multiple sclerosis commonly present?

A

Autoimmune inflammatory disease causing demyelination of Brain and Spinal cord, most often women in 20s and 30s, whites

  • Charcot’s Triad = Dysarthria (slurred speech) + Intention tremor + Nystagmus
  • 2 Classic Disorders of MS - Optic neuritis (sudden vision loss), Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (lesion of MLF)
  • Hemiparesis (weakness affecting one side of the body)
  • Sensory disturbances
  • Bowel or bladder incontinence
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24
Q

A 31-year-old patient of yours complains of chronic back stiffness and pain. X-ray reveals a spine that looks similar to bamboo. What other symptoms may be present with this disease, and into what category of diseases does this one fall?

A

“Bamboo spine” = Ankylosing Spondylitis - 40% Inflammation of eye - Uveitis, Iritis causing redness, eye pain and vision loss, floaters, photophobia;

  • HLA-B27;
  • Generalized fatigue; Nausea;
  • Category - Seronegative
  • Spondyloarthropathies: “PAIR”
    • Psoriatic arthritis
    • Ankylosing spondylitis
    • Inflammatory bowel disease
    • Reactive arthritis
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25
Q

A 24-year-old HIV-positive woman presents with lymphadenopathy of multiple nodes, including inguinal and axillary nodes. Which type of lymphoma has a presentation that is very similar to CLL and fewer constitutional signs/symptoms?

A

Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma (same disease as CLL but Lymphoma is in lymph nodes and leukemia is in bone marrow and peripheral blood) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, (39 types of NHL)

26
Q

A 7-year-old boy presents to the ER immediately after the parents found him eating his grandfather’s digoxin pills. What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity? │Digoxin immune fragments (Fab); Don’t use that often, first normalize potassium, normalize magnesium; give lidocaine for arrhythmias, sometimes use cardiac pacing.

A
  • Digoxin immune fragments (Fab);
  • Don’t use that often, first normalize potassium, normalize magnesium;
  • give lidocaine for arrhythmias, sometimes use cardiac pacing.
27
Q

A 53-year-old asthmatic man undergoes a myocardial infarction (MI). Routinely patients are placed on a β-blocker to reduce mortality post MI. Why should you use caution with starting a β-blocker in a patient with asthma? What are the β1 selective beta-blockers?

A

β2 blockade can cause bronchospasm in asthmatics

Use cardioselective beta blockers

“A BEAM”

  • Acebutolol (partial beta agonist and beta blocker)
  • Betaxolol
  • Esmolol
  • Atenolol
  • Metoprolol (last 2 most often used)
28
Q

A child presents with nephritis, deafness, and ocular dysfunction. A gene defect in what type of collagen contributes to the dysfunctions associated with Alport syndrome? What type of collagen organizes bone, skin and tendons? What type of collagen organizes cartilage?

A

Alport syndrome - Type IV collagen, makes up basement membrane;

  • Bone, skin, tendons - Type I collagen;
  • Cartilage - Type II collagen
29
Q

Patients with renal artery stenosis have elevated blood pressure. How does a decrease in renal artery pressure cause an increase in blood pressure? Other than renin secretion, what are the other endocrine functions of the kidney?

A

Renal artery pressure drops -> Juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin

  • Renin activates renin angiotensin-aldosterone system - Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, Angiotensin II stimulates secretion of aldosterone;
  • Aldosterone causes kidneys to retain Na+ and H2O
  • Make erythropoietin; Convert 25-OH Vitamin D to 1,25-(OH)2 Vitamin D
  • Target tissue for PTH - calcium balance
30
Q

You are doing some missionary medicine in Mexico and encounter a patient that the attending describes as having “leonine facies.” The patient says that he looks this way because he used to eat armadillos. What organism has caused this patient’s condition, and where in the body does it inhabit?

A

Mycobacterium leprae - leprosy (Hansen’s disease); Armadillo is the reservoir for mycobacterium leprae; Lives in coolest areas of body - Skin and superficial nerves

31
Q

A 56-year-old man is found to have significant lower extremity edema and hepatomegaly. In what clinical scenarios would you see a “nutmeg” liver?

A
  • Hepatic congestion
  • ↑ CVP-Right-sided heart failure
  • ↑Resistance to portal flow-Budd-Chiari syndrome (compression, thrombosis of hepatic vein)
32
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease fits the following clinical feature: Peripheral neuropathy of hands and feet, angiokeratomas?

A

Fabry disease

33
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease fits the following clinical feature: Corneal clouding + mental retardation

A

Hurler syndrome

34
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease fits the following clinical feature: **No corneal clouding + mental retardation, Aggressive behavior **

A

Hunter syndrome

35
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease fits the following clinical feature: Demyelinating disease affects peripheral nerves

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

36
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease fits the following clinical feature: Sphingomyelin buildup

A

Niemann-Pick disease

(“to pick your nose you use your sphinger!”)

37
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease fits the following clinical feature: Accumulation of galactocerebroside in the brain

A

Krabbe disease

38
Q

The protein derived from what gene serves as a transcription factor for the development and function of regulatory T cells?

A
  • FOX P3 gene
  • X chromosome
  • Foreheads Box
  • Protein Mutation causes “immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked” (IPEX syndrome)
39
Q

A 70-year-old patient is in the hospital suffering from right ventricular failure and respiratory distress. These have resulted from years of living with a stenotic mitral valve, which resulted from a streptococcal infection the patient had at a young age. The respiratory distress is in part due to pulmonary hypertension.

What pulmonary artery pressures indicate pulmonary hypertension?

A

Normal pulmonary pressure: 10-14 mmHg

Pulmonary hypertension

≥25 mmHg at rest

≥35 mmHg during exercise

40
Q

What are the symptoms of decompression sickness?

A
  • Pain in the joints/muscles of the legs and arms (80%)
  • Neurologic symptoms (dizziness, paralysis, syncope) (10%)
  • “The chokes” (bubbles occluding pulmonary capillaries) 2%
41
Q

A college student is brought to the ER and found to be dehydrated due to a diarrheal illness she obtained after serving as a volunteer in a developing country. The patient describes the diarrhea as looking like water mixed with flecks of mucus. What organism is most likely responsible in this case?

A

Vibrio cholerae - toxin permanently activates Gs -> activates cyclic AMP

42
Q

Describe the rash presentation (timing, description, location) associated with Rubella

A

Rash begins at head, moves inferior, post-auricular lymphadenopathy

43
Q

Describe the rash presentation (timing, description, location) associated with Varicella zoster.

A
  • Unilateral dermatomal rash
  • Grouped vesicles on an erythematous base
44
Q

Describe the rash presentation (timing, description, location) associated with HHV-6.

A
  • Macular rash over body
  • Appears after several days of high fever
  • Usually seen in infants
45
Q

Describe the rash presentation (timing, description, location) associated with Parvovirus B19.

A
  • “Slapped cheek” facial rash
  • Reticular, lace-like pattern
  • Hydrops in pregnant women
46
Q

Describe the rash presentation (timing, description, location) associated with Coxsackievirus type A

A
  • Vesicular rash on palms and soles
  • Ulcers in oral mucosa
47
Q

Describe the rash presentation (timing, description, location) associated with Streptococcus pyogenes.

A
  • Erythematous, sandpaper-like rash
  • Fever and sore throat
48
Q

What is the cause of Horner syndrome? What symptoms are seen in Horner syndrome?

A
  • Sympathectomy of the face
  • Ptosis (facial drooping), Anhidrosis (↓ sweating) Miosis
  • Lesion of spinal cord above T1
  • Pancoast tumor
  • Brown-Sequard syndrome
  • Syringomyelia
49
Q

Age-related changes in touch sensitivity are related to the number of sensory nerve endings lost. What is the difference between a Meissner corpuscle and a Pacinian corpuscle?

A

Meissner corpuscle

Glabrous skin (hairless)
Senses: Position sense and Dynamic fine touch
Adapt quickly

Pacinian corpuscle

Deep skin layers, ligaments and joints
Senses: Vibration, Pressure

50
Q

Metastasis to the brain involves which locations?

A

Brain Mets: 50% of brain tumors are mets “Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia”

  • Lung >
  • Breast >
  • Skin (melanoma) >
  • Kidney (renal cell carcinoma) >
  • GI tract tumors

Most common brain tumor = Mets; Common symptom is headache; seizures; personality changes.

51
Q

Metastasis to the Liver involves which locations?

A

Liver Mets: “Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver”

  • Colon >
  • Stomach >
  • Pancreas >
  • Breast >
  • **Lung. **

Hepatomegaly, liver tenderness, abdominal pain, hepatic dysfunction, LFTs especially alkaline phosphatase. Liver lesions, look for primary.

52
Q

Metastasis to the bone commonly come from which locations?

A

Bone Mets: “P.T. Barnum Loves Kids”

  • $Prostate
  • Testes/thyroid
  • Breast
  • Lung
  • Kidney (renal cell carcinoma)

Lytic (destroy bone) or blastic, create new bone (prostate). Bone pain; epidural spinal cord compression; Lytic cause hypercalcemia.

53
Q

A 40-year-old woman treated with lisinopril for stage I hypertension becomes pregnant. The patient’s ACE inhibitor (lisinopril) should be stopped immediately. What centrally acting α2-agonist is often used to treat hypertension in pregnancy?

A

α-Methyldopa

54
Q

N-acetylcysteine is used to loosen mucus plugs associated with cystic fibrosis. What are the common pulmonary infections seen in cystic fibrosis? What are the other, extrapulmonary effects of mucus thickening?

A

Pulmonary infections:

Pseudomonas
S. aureus

Extrapulmonary effects: Pancreatic insufficiency

55
Q

A 36-year-old man is found to have an elevated blood pressure at the dentist’s office. Today, the patient’s blood pressure is 155/94 and urinalysis reveals hematuria and proteinuria. Further urine microscopic evaluation reveals RBC casts indicating nephritic syndrome. How does nephritic syndrome differ from nephrotic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome - Inflammatory process

Nephrotic syndrome

  • Massive proteinuria
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Fatty casts
  • Edema
56
Q

What nephritic syndromes are characteristic of the following clinical features and glomerular changes: Malar rash + Wire-loop appearance (light microscopy)

A

SLE or MPGN

57
Q

What nephritic syndromes are characteristic of the following clinical features and glomerular changes: After acute gastroenteritis + After acute gastroenteritis

A

Berger disease

58
Q

What nephritic syndromes are characteristic of the following clinical features and glomerular changes: Hemoptysis + Crescent-moon shaped lesion (light microscopy)

A

Rapidly Progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN )

59
Q

What nephritic syndromes are characteristic of the following clinical features and glomerular changes: Pediatric patient with recent infection + Enlarged, hypercellular glomeruli with neutrophils

A

Minimal change disease

60
Q

What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

Why does it happen?

What causes it?

A

Repeating cycles:

  • Apnea and hypercapnia
  • Compensatory hyperventilation and hypocapnea

Due to diminished sensitivity to the medullary respiratory center

Caused by drug overdose, cerebral atherosclerosis, cerebral lesions, prolonged circulation time in CHF

61
Q

A 42-year-old man with a significant smoking history complains of his fingers becoming painful and pale in cold weather. Also his hand muscles will become very painful after too much continuous use playing high-intensity shooter video games. Physical exam also reveals an ulcer on his foot. The patient has no history of diabetes and his blood sugar is within normal limits.

What is the classic presentation of a patient with Buerger’s disease?

What is the treatment?

A

Buerger Disease

  • Heavy smoker
  • Intermittent claudication
  • Superficial nodular phlebitis
  • Raynaud phenomenon
  • Severe pain in the affected body part
  • Treatment: Quit smoking
62
Q

A 45-year-old man with albinism is seeing you for the first time for a physical exam and to establish care. You know that an important aspect of this patient’s preventative care will be frequent skin cancer screenings. Why is this patient at higher risk for skin cancer? What are the congenital deficiencies that lead to a lack of melanin?

A

Lack of melanin ↑ skin cancer risk

Congenital deficiency

  • Tyrosinase defect
  • Defective tyrosinase transporter