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MBChB Year 3 > Week 5 - Cardiology > Flashcards

Week 5 - Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for patients with chest pain, palpitations or blackouts?

A

ECG

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2
Q

For what 2 conditions is an ECG life-saving?

A
  1. Arrhythmias

2 Acute Myocardial Infarction

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3
Q

What are 2 ways to determine the heart rate in an ECG?

A
  1. 300 divided by the number of large squares between each QRS complex
  2. Number of QRS complexes across ECG (10sec) x6
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4
Q

What is the normal range for an ECG PR interval?

A
  • <1 large square

- <200ms

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5
Q

What is the normal range for an ECG QRS interval?

A
  • <3 small squares

- <120ms

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6
Q

What is the normal range for an ECG QT interval?

A
  • <11 small squares

- <440ms

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7
Q

What are the 5 questions to determine an ECG rhythm?

A
  1. What is the QRS rate?
  2. Are the QRS complexes regular?
  3. Is the QRS broad or narrow?
  4. Are there P waves?
  5. What is the P:QRS relation?
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8
Q

Describe normal sinus rhythm?

A
  • Normal QRS rate
  • Regular QRS complexes
  • Narrow QRS complex
  • P waves present
  • 1:1 P:QRS relation
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9
Q

Describe complete AV block?

A
  • Slow QRS rate
  • Regular QRS complexes
  • Can be broad or narrow QRS
  • P waves present
  • No P:QRS relation
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10
Q

Describe Second degree AV block?

A
  • Normal/Slow QRS rate
  • Irregular QRS complexes
  • Narrow QRS
  • P waves present
  • 1:1 or 2:1 P:QRS relation
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11
Q

What is left axis deviation in an ECG?

A

-30 to -90 degrees (predominantly negative QRS in II and aVF)

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12
Q

Describe the normal morphology of the P, QRS & T wave?

A
  • P wave is positive in the inferior leads
  • ST segment is flat
  • T wave has the same polarity as the QRS
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13
Q

What leads would show ST elevation in an anterior ST elevation in acute coronary occlusion?

A

V1-4

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14
Q

What leads would show ST elevation in a lateral ST elevation in acute coronary occlusion?

A
  • Lead I
  • aVL
  • V5&6
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15
Q

What leads would show ST elevation in an inferior ST elevation in acute coronary occlusion?

A
  • Lead II
  • Lead III
  • aVF
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16
Q

What 2 things are needed to show ST elevation MI?

A
  1. Does the patient have signs of MI

2. Reciprocal ST depression in the opposite leads of ST elevation

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17
Q

Describe Pericarditis on the ECG?

A
  • No reciprocal ST depression

- ST elevation across all the leads so not fitting a coronary distribution!

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18
Q

Describe a supraventricular tachycardia?

A
  • Fast QRS rate
  • Regular QRS complex
  • Narrow QRS
  • Can’t tell if there are P waves due to QRS going to quickly
  • No idea about the P:QRS relation
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19
Q

Describe regular broad complex tachycardia?

A
  • Fast QRS rate
  • Regular QRS complexes
  • Broad QRS
  • No idea if there are P waves
  • No idea about P:QRS relation
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20
Q

What is the gold standard for EBM?

A

RCT

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21
Q

What are guidelines evidence A?

A

Data derived from multiple randomised clinical trials or meta-analyses

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22
Q

What are guidelines evidence B?

A

Data derived from a single randomised clinical trial or large non-randomised studies

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23
Q

What are guidelines evidence C?

A

Consensus of opinion of the experts &/or small studies, retrospective studies, registries

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24
Q

What is a clinical trial?

A

Evaluation of a new therapeutic intervention (drug, device, procedure/surgery) in human volunteers

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25
Q

What must human volunteers be in clinical trials?

A

Healthy or patients with a disease

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26
Q

What is the clinical trial designed to be?

A

Unbiased, accurate, estimate of the effect of treatment

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27
Q

What are 4 questions to ask when interpreting a clinical trial introduction?

A
  1. What are they doing?
  2. Does it make sense?
  3. Is it an important problem?
  4. Does it relate to my patients?
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28
Q

What is the most important section in a clinical trial?

A

Methods

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29
Q

What are the 4 questions to ask when interpreting the clinical trial methods?

A 
1. Who did the study?- academics, industry (degree of
involvement)
2. Who was included?
3. Who was excluded?
4. Do they represent real life patients?
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30
Q

What are the 3 questions to ask when interpreting the clinical trial inclusion/exclusion criteria?

A
  1. What were the inclusion criteria?
  2. What were the exclusion criteria?
  3. Are the reasons for exclusion clear?- Intervention not thought to work in some, Safety
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31
Q

What are the 5 types of clinical trials?

A
  1. Randomized double blind placebo controlled trial
  2. Cluster randomized trial
  3. Factorial trial
  4. Cross over trial
  5. Adaptive trial design
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32
Q

What are 4 types of comparators?

A
  1. Placebo
  2. Active
  3. Factorial
  4. Blinding
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33
Q

What are the 4 outcomes of clinical trials?

A
  1. Hard endpoints- death, MI
  2. Soft endpoints- QoL
  3. Surrogates- decline in renal function
  4. Safety- angioedema
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34
Q

Describe the statistical analysis of clinical trials?

A
  • Should be specified a priori
  • Changes should be clearly documented with good
    reason
  • Appropriate power calculation
  • Interim analysis- was the trial stopped early?
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35
Q

What are the 4 factors to statistical analysis specified priori?

A
  1. Primary analysis
  2. Secondary analysis
  3. Subgroups
  4. Intention to treat
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36
Q

What is the formula to clinical trials results?

A
  1. Describe the population
  2. Effect on outcomes
  3. Subgroups
  4. Safety
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37
Q

Describe the CONSORT flow diagram & what it includes?

A
  • Accounts for every patient
  • Withdrawals
  • Protocol violations
  • Loss to follow up
  • Exclusions
  • Final number randomised and analysed
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38
Q

What are the 3 population questions to ask to check for bias in a clinical trial?

A
  1. Do they look like the patients they said they would enrol?
  2. Do they look like my patients?- characteristics, background therapy
  3. Are the groups balanced?
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39
Q

What are the 5 questions to ask regarding clinical trials effect size?

A
  1. What is the effect size?
  2. Is it clinically meaningful?- NNT
  3. Is it statistically robust?- P value, 95% confidence interval
  4. Is it consistent for different endpoints especially
    the components of a primary composite?
  5. Is it consistent across subgroups?- Internal validity
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40
Q

Describe the composites of clinical trials?

A
  • Equal numbers of the two components

- Same direction and size of effect in both components of the composite

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41
Q

What are the 4 questions to ask regarding clinical trials discussion?

A
  1. Does the interpretation reflect the data?
  2. Is it a fair reflection?
  3. Does it frame it in the context of the wider literature?
  4. Are there any glaring omissions?
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42
Q

What are the 4 main factors interpreting a clinical trial?

A
  1. Take each section in turn
  2. Pay particular attention to the methods- Bias
  3. Are the results clinically meaningful and
    robust?- Efficacy and safety
  4. Do they apply to the patients that you see?
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43
Q

What is the definition of Heart Failure?

A

Failure of the heart to pump blood (=oxygen) at a rate sufficient to meet the metabolic requirements of the tissues

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44
Q

What is heart failure caused by?

A

Abnormality of any aspect of cardiac function & with adequate cardiac filling pressure.

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45
Q

What is heart failure characterised by?

A

Typical haemodynamic changes (e.g. systemic vasoconstriction) & neurohumoral activation

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46
Q

What does heart failure cause clinically?

A

Breathlessness, effort intolerance, fluid retention & is associated with frequent hospital admission & poor survival

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47
Q

Describe the disabling effects of heart failure?

A
  • Associated with a worse quality of life than almost any other medical condition
  • Because of symptoms (dyspnoea, fatigue) & frequent deterioration leading to hospital admission
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48
Q

What is the chance of deadly outcomes in heart failure?

A
  • Worse survival than most forms of cancer

- 50% mortality within 5 years

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49
Q

List the 5 common (in UK) causes of heart failure?

A
  1. Coronary artery disease (MI)
  2. Hypertension
  3. “Idiopathic” (i.e. unknown)
  4. Toxins (alcohol, chemotherapy)
  5. Genetic?
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50
Q

List the 6 less common (in UK) causes of heart failure?

A
  1. Valve disease
  2. Infections (virus, Chaga’s)
  3. Congenital heart disease
  4. Metabolic (e.g. haemochromatosis, amyloid, thyroid disease)
  5. Pericardial disease (e.g. TB)
  6. Endocardial disease
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51
Q

List the 4 main types of heart failure?

A
  1. HF-REF (“systolic HF”)
  2. HF-PEF (“diastolic HF”)
  3. Chronic (“congestive”)
  4. Acute (“decompensated”)
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52
Q

Describe HF-REF (“systolic HF”)?

A
  • Reduce ejection fraction
  • Younger
  • More often male
  • Coronary aetiology
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53
Q

Describe HF-PEF (“diastolic HF”)?

A
  • Preserved ejection fraction
  • Older
  • More often female
  • Hypertensive aetiology
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54
Q

Describe Chronic (“congestive”)?

A
  • Present for a period of time

- May have been acute or may become acute

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55
Q

Describe Acute (“decompensated”)?

A
  • Usually admitted to hospital
  • Worsening of chronic
  • New onset (“de novo”)
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56
Q

List the pathophysiology result of myocardial injury?

A

Left ventricular systolic dysfunction –> Perceived reduction in circulating volume & pressure –> Neurohumoral activation –> Systemic vasoconstriction. Renal sodium & water retention

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57
Q

List the 4 neurohumoral activations during myocardial injury?

A
  1. Sympathetic nervous system
  2. RAAS
  3. ET, AVP etc
  4. Natriuretic peptides
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58
Q

List 3 symptoms of heart failure?

A
  1. Dyspnoea (orthopnoea, PND) & cough
  2. Ankle swelling (also legs/abdomen)
  3. Fatigue/tiredness
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59
Q

List 6 signs of heart failure?

A
  1. Peripheral oedema (ankles, legs, sacrum, abdomen)
  2. Elevated JVP
  3. Third heart sound
  4. Displaced apex beat (cardiomegaly)
  5. Pulmonary oedema (lung crackles)
  6. Pleural effusion
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60
Q

What classification system is used in heart failure diagnosis?

A

New York Heart Association Functional Classification (class 1-4)

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61
Q

Describe Class 1 heart failure according to the New York Heart Association Functional Classification?

A

No symptoms & no limitation in ordinary physical activity, e.g. shortness of breath when walking, climbing stairs etc.

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62
Q

Describe Class 2 heart failure according to the New York Heart Association Functional Classification?

A

Mild symptoms (mild shortness of breath &/or angina) & slight limitation during ordinary activity

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63
Q

Describe Class 3 heart failure according to the New York Heart Association Functional Classification?

A
  • Marked limitation in activity due to symptoms, even during less-than-ordinary activity, e.g. walking short distances (20–100 m)
  • Comfortable only at rest
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64
Q

Describe Class 4 heart failure according to the New York Heart Association Functional Classification?

A
  • Severe limitations
  • Experiences symptoms even while at rest
  • Mostly bedbound patients
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65
Q

List the 6 investigations that you would do in all patients with suspected heart failure?

A
  1. ECG
  2. CXR (exclude lung pathology, pulmonary oedema)
  3. Echocardiogram (chamber size, systolic & diastolic function, valves), CMR alternative
  4. Blood chemistry (U&Es, Cr, urea, LFTs, urate)
  5. Haematology (Hb, RDW)
  6. Natriuretic peptides (BNP, NT-proBNP)
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66
Q

What are the 4 stages to diagnosing heart failure?

A
  1. Signs & symptoms
  2. Examination
  3. Natriuretic peptides
  4. Echocardiography
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67
Q

What are the 5 investigations that you would do for selected heart failure patients?

A
  1. Coronary angiography
  2. Exercise test
  3. Ambulatory ECG monitoring
  4. Myocardial biopsy
  5. Genetic testing
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68
Q

Describe the SIGN guidelines for heart failure treatment?

A
  1. Beta blocker & ACE inhibitor
  2. MRA added to ACE inhibitor or ARB
  3. Sacubitril/Valsartan, stop ACE inhibitors & ARBS, continue beta blocker & MRA
  4. ICD or CRT-P/CRT-D, Ivabradine if sinus rhythm heart rate is >75bpm
  5. Digoxin, Hydralazine/isosorbide denigrate if intolerant to ACE inhibitor, ARB or Sacubitril/Valsartan due to renal dysfunction, hyperkalaemia or other side effects
  6. Referral to National Transplant Unit (LVAD/cardiac transplantation)
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69
Q

What are 2 conditions that you would use diuretics?

A
  1. Pulmonary oedema

2. Peripheral oedema

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70
Q

What is an ARB an alternative to?

A

Patients intolerant of an ACE inhibitor due to cough

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71
Q

What are the most evidence-based therapies in heart failure?

A

Beta-blockers

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72
Q

What does LCZ696 (Sacubitril/Valsartan) do?

A
  • Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibition (ARNI)

- Blocks Neprilysin & AT1 Receptor

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73
Q

List 5 products of Natriuretic peptides (BK, ADM Subs-P, VIP, CGRP)?

A
  1. Vasodilation
  2. Natriuresis (excretion of sodium in urine)
  3. Diuresis
  4. Inhibition of pathologic growth/fibrosis
  5. Degradation products
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74
Q

List the 3 different devices for heart failure?

A
  1. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
  2. Biventricular/multi-site pacing or “cardiac resynchronisation” therapy with implantable cardioverter defibrillator (CRT- D)
  3. “Cardiac resynchronisation” therapy with pacing (CRT-P)
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75
Q

What drug inhibits the sinus node?

A

Ivabradine

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76
Q

What does SHIFT stand for?

A

Systolic Heart failure treatment with the inhibitor ivabradine Trial

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77
Q

What are the 2 types of ventricular assist devices?

A
  1. Pulsatile-Flow Left Ventricular Assist device

2. Continuous-Flow Left Ventricular Assist Device

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78
Q

What is SynCardia/ CardioWest?

A

Total artificial heart

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79
Q

What type of heart failure do we still not have evidence-based treatment for?

A

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

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80
Q

List 6 treatments for acute heart failure?

A
  1. Bilevel or continuous positive airway pressure (preload reduction)
  2. Dobutamine, dopamine, milrinone (increase inotropy)
  3. Furosemide (natriuresis)
  4. Nitrates, morphine (venodilation)
  5. Nitroprusside (arterial vasodilation)
  6. Ultrafiltration (aqual natriuresis)
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81
Q

What would you do for patients with cardiogenic shock in acute heart failure?

A
  • Circulatory support (pharmacological, mechanical)

- Immediate stabilisation & transfer to ICU/CCU

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82
Q

What would you do for patients with respiratory failure in acute heart failure?

A
  • Ventilatory support (oxygen, non-invasive positive pressure ventilation, mechanical ventilation)
  • Immediate stabilisation & transfer to ICU/CCU
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83
Q

What is the CHAMP mnemonic for identification of acute aetiology?

A
  • Coronary syndrome
  • Hypertension emergency
  • Arrhythmia
  • Mechanical cause
  • Pulmonary embolism
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84
Q

List the 7 clinical features of acute heart failure congestion?

A
  1. Pulmonary oedema
  2. Orthopnoea/Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
  3. Peripheral (bilateral) oedema
  4. Jugular venous dilatation
  5. Congested hepatomegaly
  6. Gut congestion, ascites
  7. Hepatojugular reflux
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85
Q

List the 4 clinical features of acute heart failure hypoperfusion?

A
  1. Cold sweating extremities
  2. Oliguria
  3. Mental confusion
  4. Dizziness
  5. Narrow pulse pressure
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86
Q

What would you get with hypoperfusion no congestion in acute heart failure?

A

Cold-dry (inadequate peripheral perfusion, hypovolemic)

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87
Q

What would you get with no hypoperfusion and no congestion?

A

Warm-dry (adequate peripheral perfusion = compensated)

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88
Q

What would you get with no hypoperfusion and positive congestion?

A

Warm-wet (adequate peripheral perfusion)

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89
Q

Would you get with hypoperfusion and congestion?

A

Cold-wet (inadequate peripheral perfusion)

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90
Q

Describe the blood pressure in a patient with warm-wet acute heart failure?

A

Elevated or normal systolic blood pressure

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91
Q

What are the 2 forms of warm-wet acute heart failure?

A
  1. Vascular type- fluid redistribution, hypertension predominates
  2. Cardiac type- fluid accumulation, congestion predominates
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92
Q

How would you treat vascular type warm-wet acute heart failure?

A
  • Vasodilator

- Diuretic

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93
Q

How would you treat cardiac type warm-wet acute heart failure?

A
  • Diuretic
  • Vasodilator
  • Ultrafiltration (consider if diuretic resistance)
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94
Q

How would you treat warm-dry acute heart failure?

A

Adjust oral therapy

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95
Q

How would you treat cold-dry acute heart failure?

A
  • Consider fluid challenge

- Consider inotropic agent if still hypoperfused

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96
Q

Describe the blood pressure in a patient with cold-wet acute heart failure?

A

Systolic blood pressure <90mmHg or normal

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97
Q

How would you treat cold-wet acute heart failure with a decreased systolic blood pressure?

A
  • Inotropic agent
  • Consider vasopressor in refractory cases
  • Diuretic (when perfusion corrected)
  • Consider mechanical circulatory support if no response to drugs
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98
Q

How would you treat cold-wet acute heart failure with a normal systolic blood pressure?

A
  • Vasodilators
  • Diuretics
  • Consider inotropic agent in refractory cases
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99
Q

What does the presence of congestion in acute heart failure indicate?

A

“Wet” patient

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100
Q

What does NO presence of congestion in acute heart failure indicate?

A

“Dry” patient

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101
Q

Describe stage 1 heart failure?

A
  • Redistribution

- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 13-18mmHg

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102
Q

Describe stage 2 heart failure?

A
  • Intersitial oedema

- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 18-25mmHg

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103
Q

Describe the chest X-ray appearance of stage 1 heart failure?

A
  • Redistribution pulmonary vessels

- Cardiomegaly

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104
Q

Describe the chest X-ray appearance of stage 2 heart failure (interstitial oedema)?

A
  • Kerley Lines
  • Peribronchial Cuffing
  • Hazy contours of vessels
  • Thickened interlobar fissures
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105
Q

Describe stage 3 heart failure?

A
  • Alveolar oedema

- PCWR >25mmHg

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106
Q

Describe the chest X-ray appearance of stage 3 heart failure (alveolar oedema)?

A
  • Consolidation
  • Air bronchogram
  • Cottonwool appearance
  • Pleural effusions
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107
Q

Describe class I congestive heart failure?

A

Pulmonary hypertension with no limitation of usual physical activity

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108
Q

Describe class II congestive heart failure?

A
  • Pulmonary hypertension with mild limitations of physical activity
  • No discomfort at rest, but normal physical activity causes increased dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain or pre-syncope
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109
Q

Describe class III congestive heart failure?

A
  • Pulmonary hypertension with marked limitation of physical activity
  • No discomfort at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes increased dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain or pre-syncope
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110
Q

Describe class IV congestive heart failure?

A
  • Pulmonary hypertension, unable to perform any physical activity & who have signs of right ventricular failure at rest
  • Dyspnea &/or fatigue may be present at rest & symptoms are increased by almost any physical activity
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111
Q

Where are the biggest vessels in a normal chest X-ray?

A

Vessels in lower zones are larger than equivalent vessels in upper zones

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112
Q

What should be considered when a chest X-ray shows upper zone vessels are equal to or greater than equivalent lower zone vessels?

A

Elevation of pulmonary venous pressure

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113
Q

What is the basic anatomic unit of pulmonary structure & function?

A

Secondary lobule (smallest lung unit that is surrounded by connective tissue septa)

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114
Q

What does the central terminal bronchiole supply?

A

5-15 pulmonary acini, that contain the alveoli for gas exchange

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115
Q

Describe Kerley B lines?

A
  • Septal Lines: fluid leakage into interlobular septa

- Seen at the bases perpendicular to the pleural surface & measure 1-2cm

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116
Q

What is the diagnosis if the Kerley B lines are transient/rapidly developing?

A

Interstitial pulmonary oedema

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117
Q

Describe Kerley A lines?

A

Oblique lines longer than Kerley B lines

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118
Q

What are Kerley A lines caused by?

A

Distension of the anastomotic channels between

the peripheral & central lymphatics

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119
Q

Describe Kerley C lines?

A

Reticular opacities at the lung bases

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120
Q

Describe Peribronchial cuffing?

A
  • Normally walls of bronchi are invisible

- When fluid collects in peribronchial interstitial space the bronchial walls become visible

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121
Q

Describe the hazy contour of vessels in interstitial oedema?

A

Vessels enlarge & lose their defined margin due to surrounding oedema, requires previous examinations

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122
Q

What is subpleural pulmonary oedema?

A

Fluid accumulated in the loose connective tissue beneath the visceral pleura

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123
Q

Describe the X-ray appearance of subpleural pulmonary oedema?

A

Sharply defined band of increased density:

  • If adjacent to a fissure makes the fissure look thick
  • When in costophrenic angle produces a lamellar-shaped fluid collection resembling a pleural effusion
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124
Q

What is alveolar oedema?

A

Represents spill of fluid from interstitium into alveolar spaces resulting in airspace opacity

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125
Q

Describe alveolar oedema?

A
  • Bilateral usually
  • If unilateral predisposition for right lung
  • “Bat’s wing” or “Butterfly” distribution (perihilar shadowing predominantly in central portions & fades out)
  • Rapid change
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126
Q

What are pleural effusions?

A

Fluid within potential space between parietal and visceral fluid

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127
Q

Describe pleural effusions?

A
  • Divided into transudates & exudates

- Protein levels >30g/l, LDH>200IU, pH <7.1 consistent with exudate

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128
Q

Give 6 causes for transudate alveolar oedema?

A
  1. Left Ventricular failure
  2. Cirrhosis
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Myxoedema
  5. PE
  6. Sarcoidosis
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129
Q

Give 5 causes for exudate alveolar oedema?

A
  1. PE
  2. Bacterial infection
  3. Bronchial cancer
  4. Fungal/viral infection
  5. Lymphoma
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130
Q

What % of pleural effusions in chronic heart failure are bilateral?

A

70%

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131
Q

How much fluid in alveolar oedema must be present to be seen on a PA and supine chest X-ray?

A

PA- 175ml

Supine- 500ml

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132
Q

What can larger effusion cause?

A

Obscure heart border & displace mediastinum, airways & diaphragm

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133
Q

What are the 4 principle signs of subpulmonic effusion?

A
  1. Lateral peak of hemidiaphragm
  2. Costophrenic angle ill-defined or blunted
  3. Posterior costophrenic sulcus is fluid-filled
  4. On left increased distance between lung & gastric air bubble
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134
Q

What is the difference between acute & chronic heart failure?

A

AHF often used to mean new onset acute or decompensation of CHF characterised by signs of pulmonary +/or peripheral oedema

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135
Q

What is the definition of a valve?

A

Device for controlling the passage of fluid through a pipe or duct, especially an automatic device allowing movement in one direction only

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136
Q

List 5 possible abnormalities in the heart valve leaflets?

A
  1. Calcification
  2. Thickening
  3. Degeneration
  4. Infection
  5. Prolapse
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137
Q

List the 3 signs of acute rheumatic fever?

A
  1. Painful joints
  2. Fever
  3. Rash
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138
Q

Describe rheumatic valve disease?

A
  • 1-3% of strep pyogenes throat infections
  • Caused by antibody cross reactivity affecting connective tissue
  • Cardiac injury generated by recurrent inflammation & fibrinous repair & scarring
  • Less prevalent in antibiotic age
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139
Q

Describe the aortic valve?

A
  • Lies between LV & aorta
  • 3 cusps: trileaflet
  • Right, left, non coronary
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140
Q

List 4 causes of aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Thickening
  2. Calcification
  3. Rheumatic valve disease
  4. Congenital
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141
Q

What does aortic stenosis cause?

A
  • Increased LV cavity pressure

- Pressure overload –> LV hypertrophy

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142
Q

List the 5 symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Shortness of breath
  2. Presyncope
  3. Syncope
  4. Chest pain
  5. Reduced exercise capacity
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143
Q

List 5 causes of aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Degeneration
  2. Rheumatic valve disease
  3. Aortic root dilatation
  4. Systemic disease
  5. Endocarditis
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144
Q

Give 4 examples of systemic diseases which can cause aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Marfan’s syndrome
  2. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
  3. Ankylosing Spondylitis
  4. SLE
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145
Q

What does aortic regurgitation cause?

A
  • Volume overload

- LV dilatation

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146
Q

List the 2 symptoms of aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Shortness of breath

2. Reduced exercise capacity

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147
Q

What % of the population have a bicuspid valve (two leaflet aortic valve instead of the normal 3 leaflet)?

A

1-2%

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148
Q

Describe the problem with the bicuspid valve (two leaflet aortic valve instead of the normal 3 leaflet)?

A
  • Prone to premature dysfunction
  • Associated with aortic abnormalities
  • Genetic component (~10%)
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149
Q

Describe the mitral valve?

A
  • Lies between LA & LV
  • 2 leaflets
  • Anterior & posterior
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150
Q

List 6 potential causes of mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Rheumatic valve disease
  2. Pressure overload
  3. Dilated LA
  4. Atrial fibrillation
  5. Pulmonary hypertension
  6. Secondary right heart dilatation
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151
Q

List the 5 symptoms of mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Shortness of breath
  2. Palpitation
  3. Chest pain
  4. Haemoptysis
  5. Right heart failure symptoms
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152
Q

List the 5 possible causes of mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Volume overload – LA / LV
  2. LV & LA dilatation
  3. Pulmonary hypertension
  4. Secondary right heart dilatation
  5. Atrial fibrillation
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153
Q

List the 3 symptoms of mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Shortness of breath
  2. Palpitation
  3. Right heart failure symptoms
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154
Q

Describe the pulmonic/pulmonary valve?

A
  • 3 leaflets
  • Lies between RV & pulmonary artery
  • Issues tend to be a disease of childhood/early adulthood
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155
Q

Describe the tricuspid valve?

A
  • 3 leaflets
  • Lies between RA & RV
  • Isses tend to be a disease of childhood but can also arise in adulthood
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156
Q

List 6 ways of investigating valvular heart disease?

A
  1. Echo
  2. CT
  3. MRI
  4. Exercise Tolerance Test
  5. Cardiopulmonary Exercise Testing (CPET)
  6. Stress echo
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157
Q

How can you diagnose valvular heart disease?

A

Left/Right heart catheterisation

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158
Q

What are 3 ways of treating valvular heart disease?

A
  1. Medication
  2. Surgical intervention- valve replacement
  3. Procedural intervention- TAVI, Mitraclip, valvuloplasty
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159
Q

What are the 4 factors to take into consideration when performing a valve replacement?

A
  1. Mechanical vs tissue valve
  2. Durability (age/life expectancy)
  3. Anticoagulation (compliance)
  4. “Next intervention”
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160
Q

What does TAVI stand for?

A

Transcatheter aortic valve implantation

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161
Q

Describe a TAVI?

A
  • Non-surgical alternative to open heart surgery
  • Carried out in a cardiac catheterisation laboratory
  • Normally takes 1-2hrs
  • Tube up from the leg to crush the original valve & inflate a large stent with the new valve inside
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162
Q

What is the Mitraclip typically for?

A

Mitral regurgitation when the patient isn’t fit for surgery

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163
Q

What is a valvuloplasty?

A
  • Also known as balloon valvuloplasty/balloon valvotomy
  • Repairs a heart valve that has a narrowed opening
  • The valve flaps (leaflets) may become thick or stiff & they may fuse together (stenosis)
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164
Q

What is the Melody valve?

A
  • Replacement pulmonary heart valve (stenosis)
  • Used to replace a blocked or leaky valve that has been previously repaired to correct congenital heart defects present at birth
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165
Q

What is endocarditis?

A
  • Infection of endocardium (lining of heart) & usually involves the heart valves
  • Formation of a vegetation
  • Results in damage to cusp of valves
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166
Q

List the 4 heart valves in order of whats most –> least likely to develop endocarditis?

A
  1. Mitral valve
  2. Aortic valve
  3. Tricuspid valve
  4. Pulmonary valve
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167
Q

Describe the vegetation in endocarditis?

A

Mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms & scant inflammatory cells

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168
Q

What are the 2 types of bugs causing endocarditis?

A
  1. Bacterial

2. Fungal

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169
Q

What is a common bacteria causing endocarditis?

A

Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)

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170
Q

What are 2 types of gram positive bacterial cocci causing endocarditis?

A
  1. Staphylococci

2. Streptococci

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171
Q

What are 2 types of Staphylococci bacteria causing endocarditis?

A
  1. Coagulase negative Staphylococci (CoNS)

2. Staph. aureus (MRSA, MSSA)

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172
Q

What are 2 types of Streptococci bacteria causing endocarditis?

A
  1. Strep. viridans

2. Enterococci

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173
Q

What is a common fungus causing endocarditis?

A

Candida species

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174
Q

What are 3 different types of gram negative bacteria causing endocarditis?

A
  1. HACEK organisms
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  3. Enterobacteriales (Coliforms) ie. E.coli
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175
Q

What are the 3 classifications of endocarditis?

A
  1. Native valve endocarditis (NVE)
  2. Endocarditis in IVDUs (intravenous drug user)
  3. Prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE)
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176
Q

What is a common organism causing Native valve endocarditis (NVE)?

A

Streptococcus viridans

177
Q

What are 3 common organisms causing Endocarditis in IVDUs?

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Gram Negative Organisms
  3. Fungi
178
Q

What are 3 common organisms causing Prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE)?

A
  1. Coagulase negative Staphylococci (CoNS)
  2. Gram Negative Organisms
  3. Fungi
179
Q

Describe the general epidemiology of endocarditis?

A
  • Common!
  • Rates vary according to: age & incidence of IVDU
  • 3x more common in men
  • Increasing in elderly patients: 25-50% of cases occur in the over 60s
180
Q

What are the risk factors for Native valve endocarditis (NVE)?

A

Underlying valve abnormalities in 55-75%

  • Aortic stenosis
  • Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)
181
Q

What are the 3 different aetiologies of aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Age-related calcification in ~50%
  2. Calcification of congenitally abnormal valve ~30-40%
  3. Rheumatic fever ~10%
182
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of strep pyogenes in rheumatic heart disease?

A

Infection –> Partially/Not Treated –> Liberation of the toxin –> Anti-Streptolysin O (ASO) Antibodies produced against Streptolysin –> Cardiac valve also attacked by antibodies –> Stenosis/Regurgitation

183
Q

What valve is most likely to be affected in Endocarditis in IVDU?

A

Tricuspid valve endocarditis more common than aortic/mitral

184
Q

List the 3 general clinical features of acute endocarditis?

A
  1. Toxic presentation
  2. Progressive valve destruction & metastatic infection developing in days to weeks
  3. Most commonly caused by S. aureus
185
Q

List the 4 general clinical features of subacute endocarditis?

A
  1. Mild toxicity
  2. Presentation over weeks to months
  3. Rarely leads to metastatic infection
  4. Most commonly Strep. viridans or Enterococcus
186
Q

Describe the early manifestations of endocarditis?

A
  • Fever + Murmur = infective endocarditis until proven otherwise
  • Fatigue & malaise
187
Q

What is the incubation period of endocarditis?

A

2 weeks (longer in prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE)

188
Q

What % of endocarditis presents with a murmur?

A

80-85% (often absent in tricuspid endocarditis)

189
Q

Describe the embolic events associated with endocarditis?

A
  • Can take days-weeks to occur
  • Seen earlier in acute endocarditis
  • Small/Large emboli
  • Right sided endocarditis- septic pulmonary emboli
190
Q

Give 3 features of small emboli in endocarditis?

A
  1. Petechiae
  2. Splinter haemorrhages
  3. Haematuria
191
Q

Give 2 features of large emboli in endocarditis?

A
  1. CVA (Stroke)

2. Renal infarction

192
Q

What are the long term effects of endocarditis?

A
  • Oslers nodes
  • Immunological reaction
  • Tissue damage
193
Q

Describe Oslers nodes?

A
  • Painful palpable lesions

- Found on hands & feet

194
Q

List 4 immunological reactions seen in long term endocarditis?

A
  1. Splenomegaly
  2. Nephritis
  3. Vasculitic lesions of skin & eye
  4. Clubbing
195
Q

List 2 forms of tissue damage seen in long term endocarditis?

A
  1. Valve destruction

2. Valve abscess

196
Q

In what 3 scenarios would you think its infective endocarditis?

A
  1. All patients with S. aureus bacteraemia (SAB)
  2. IVDU with any positive blood cultures
  3. All patients with prosthetic valves & positive blood cultures
197
Q

What is the most important investigation when diagnosing endocarditis?

A

Blood cultures

198
Q

Describe how endocarditis is diagnosed?

A
  • Constant bacteraemia
  • 3 sets of blood cultures
  • Volume most important factor (10mls/bottle)
  • Before antibiotics
  • Aseptic technique
199
Q

What are the 2 different echocardiographs you can use to diagnose endocarditis?

A
  1. Transthoracic (TTE)

2. Transoesophageal (TOE)

200
Q

Describe a Transthoracic (TTE) echocardiograph?

A
  • Non-invasive
  • Transducer placed at front of chest
  • 50% sensitivity
201
Q

Describe a Transoesophageal (TOE) echocardiograph?

A
  • Invasive
  • Transducer placed in oesophagus
  • 85-100% sensitivity
202
Q

What is major endocarditis according to the Duke Criteria?

A
  • Typical organism in 2 separate blood cultures

- Positive echocardiogram or new valve regurgitation

203
Q

What is minor endocarditis according to the Duke Criteria?

A
  • Predisposition (heart condition or IVDU)
  • Fever >38 ̊C
  • Vascular phenomena (eg. septic emboli)
  • Immunological phenomena (eg. oslers nodes)
  • Positive blood cultures (not meet major criteria)
204
Q

What are the 3 indications for surgical intervention for endocarditis?

A
  1. Heart failure
  2. Uncontrollable infection (abscess, Persisting fever + positive blood cultures >7 days, Infection caused by multi-drug resistant organisms)
  3. Prevention of Embolism (Large vegetations + embolic episode)
205
Q

Describe antimicrobial therapy for endocarditis?

A
  • Bactericidal agents at high doses
  • Treatment tailored to organism susceptibility
  • Duration of therapy (NVE: 4 weeks, PVE: 6 weeks)
  • IV therapy for duration in most cases
206
Q

What would the antimicrobial therapy be for endocarditis via Streptococcus species?

A

Benzylpenicillin +/- Gentamicin

207
Q

What would the antimicrobial therapy be for endocarditis via Enterococcus species?

A

Amoxicillin or Vancomycin +/- Gentamicin

208
Q

What would the antimicrobial therapy be for endocarditis via S.aureus (MSSA)?

A

Flucloxacillin +/- Gentamicin

209
Q

What would the antimicrobial therapy be for endocarditis via S.aureus (MRSA)?

A

Vancomycin +/- Gentamicin

210
Q

What would the antimicrobial therapy be for endocarditis via Coagulase Negative Staphylococci (CoNS)?

A

Vancomycin +/- Gentamicin +/- Rifampicin

211
Q

What are the 3 purposes of cardiovascular imaging?

A
  1. Define the structure/anatomy of the heart
  2. Detail the function or physiology (valve function, coronary physiology)
  3. Image the heart during stress (provoke ischaemia, assess valve function)
212
Q

What are the 2 basic forms of cardiovascular imaging?

A
  1. CXR

2. ECG

213
Q

What are the 3 advanced forms of cardiovascular imaging?

A
  1. Ultrasound (Transthoracic Echocardiography, Transoesophageal Echocardiography)
  2. Ionising radiation (nuclear, CT, invasive angiography)
  3. MRI
214
Q

What does an ECG do?

A
  • Visual representation of the electrical activity of the heart
  • Abnormalities of rhythm, conduction, repolarisation
215
Q

What is the coronary difference between STEMI & NSTEMI?

A
  • STEMI: coronary blocked/no flow

- NSTEMI: coronary partially blocked/persistent flow

216
Q

What 5 things does a chest X-ray show?

A
  1. Cardiac silhouette (size & position)
  2. Pulmonary vasculature
  3. Great vessels
  4. Pulmonary oedema
  5. Pleural effusions
217
Q

What are the 4 standard views of the heart in imaging?

A
  1. Left parasternal long axis view (PLAX)
  2. Short axis view of left ventricle (PSAX)
  3. Short axis view, aortic valve (PSAX)
  4. Apical four chamber view
218
Q

What 3 things can an echo doppler show on cardiovascular imaging?

A
  1. Assessment of flow
  2. Valve function
  3. Pericardial effusion
  4. Ejection fraction
219
Q

Describe contrast echocardiography?

A
  • Technique for improving echocardiographic resolution & providing real time assessment of intracardiac blood flow
  • Inject tiny bubbles into the venous system & they refract ultrasound beams
220
Q

Describe a Transoesophageal echocardiograph (TEE)?

A
  • Invasive but safe
  • TEE probe into mouth & down oesophagus
  • TEE probe can also be placed in the stomach
  • Sound waves create pictures of the heart
  • Patient lies on left side
221
Q

What are the 4 indications for echocardiography?

A
  1. Structure + function of heart
  2. Valve assessment
  3. Pericardial assessment
  4. Assess inducable ischaemia (stress)
222
Q

What are the 4 PROS of echocardiography?

A
  1. Cheap
  2. Available
  3. Portable
  4. No radiation
223
Q

What are the 2 CONS of echocardiography?

A
  1. Requires good acoustic window

2. User dependent

224
Q

What are the 3 types of functional stress testing (imaging for ischaemia)?

A
  1. Exercise stress testing
  2. Nuclear stress testing
  3. Echo stress testing
225
Q

What are the 2 indications for nuclear perfusion imaging?

A
  1. Assess ischaemia

2. Assess ejection fraction

226
Q

What are the PROS & CONS of nuclear perfusion imaging?

A
  • PROS: availability

- CONS: radiation, no structural assessment

227
Q

What would we use a coronary artery calcium scan for?

A
  • Refine clinically predicted risk of CHD beyond that predicted by standard cardiac risk factors
  • Used in asymptomatic patients
228
Q

What is coronary calcium present in direct proportion to?

A

Extent of atherosclerosis (20% of plaque is calcified)

229
Q

What are the 2 indications for cardiac CT?

A
  1. Coronary artery anatomy

2. Great vessel anatomy

230
Q

What are the 2 PROS of cardiac CT?

A
  1. Good “rule out” for CAD

2. Low risk

231
Q

What are the 3 CONS of cardiac CT?

A
  1. Radiation dose
  2. Requires low heart rate
  3. No functional assessment of ischaemia
232
Q

Describe hwo to perform a coronary angiography?

A
  • Percutaneously pass wires through the radial arteries, then pass a catheter to directly inject contrast into the coronary arteries
  • Then we image these to look for any stenosis
233
Q

What are the 4 indications for invasive angiography?

A
  1. Ischaemia
  2. Primary PCI
  3. Valve assessment
  4. Assessment ventricular pressures R+L
234
Q

What are the 3 PROS for invasive angiography?

A
  1. Gold standard
  2. Option for intervention during same procedure
  3. Availability
235
Q

What are the 2 CONS for invasive angiography?

A
  1. Radiation

2. Risks: CVA, MI, contrast reaction, bleeding & death

236
Q

What is the contrast used in cardiac MRIs?

A

Gadolinium to assess scar tissue (fibrosis)

237
Q

What are the 4 indications for cardiac MRI?

A
  1. Assess structure & function
  2. Perfusion/stress
  3. Assess great vessels
  4. Tissue characterisation (infiltrative cardiomyopathies, precious infarction)
238
Q

What are the 3 PROS for cardiac MRI?

A
  1. Gold standard LV assessment
  2. Reproducable
  3. No radiation
239
Q

What are the 4 CONS of cardiac MRI?

A
  1. Cost
  2. Availability
  3. Clostrophobia
  4. Pacemakers
240
Q

What is the most detailed way to assess heart function?

A

Cardiac MRI

241
Q

What 2 things can an aortic root abscess cause?

A
  1. Heart block

2. NSTEMI- coronary artery involvement

242
Q

List the 8 potential symptoms of an MI?

A
  1. Chest pain
  2. Back pain
  3. Jaw pain
  4. Indigestion
  5. Sweatiness, clamminess
  6. Shortness of breath
  7. None (diabetes/dementia)
  8. Death
243
Q

List the 6 potential signs of an MI?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Distressed patient
  3. Heart Failure (crackles/ raised JVP)
  4. Shock
  5. Arrhythmia
  6. None
244
Q

What is troponin?

A
  • Part of the cardiac myocyte
  • Release into blood stream is a marker of cardiac necrosis
  • High sensitivity troponin (able to detect very small MIs)
245
Q

What is the universal definition of MI?

A

Any elevation in troponin in clinical setting consistent with myocardial ischaemia

246
Q

What are the different types of MI?

A
  • Type 1
  • Type 2
  • Type 3
  • Type 4a
  • Type 4b
  • Type 5
247
Q

Describe type 1 MI?

A

Spontaneous MI due to a primary coronary event (coronary artery plaque rupture & formation of thrombus)

248
Q

Describe type 2 MI?

A

Increased oxygen demand or decreased oxygen supply

249
Q

Describe type 3 MI?

A

Sudden cardiac death

250
Q

Describe type 4a MI?

A

MI associated with percutaneous coronary intervention (doctor induced)

251
Q

Describe type 4b MI?

A

MI Stent thrombosis documented by angiography or post mortem (doctor induced)

252
Q

Describe type 5 MI?

A

MI associated with CABG (doctor induced)

253
Q

Describe the condition of the coronary arteries in type 2 MI?

A
  • Fixed atherosclerosis & supply-demand imbalance OR

- Supply-demand imbalance alone

254
Q

List the 6 causes of type 2 MI’s?

A
  1. Congestive heart failure- acute
  2. Tachy-arrhythmias
  3. Pulmonary embolism
  4. Sepsis
  5. Apical ballooning syndrome (Takosubo cardiomyopathy)
  6. Anything that stresses the heart (eg critically unwell patient)
255
Q

List 3 non coronary causes of chronic elevated troponin (not an MI)?

A
  1. Renal failure
  2. Chronic heart failure
  3. Infiltrative cardiomyopathies eg amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, sarcoidosis
256
Q

What is unstable angina?

A

An acute coronary event without a rise in troponin

257
Q

Give 2 examples of unstable angina presentations?

A

Clinical presentation of an MI + ECG changes
Or
Tight narrowings on coronary angiography

258
Q

How is unstable angina rare now?

A

Because of high sensitivity troponin

259
Q

What 3 conditions could an NSTEMI be?

A
  1. Unstable angina
  2. Non-Q-wave acute myocardial infarction (NQMI)
  3. MI
260
Q

What 2 conditions could a STEMI be?

A
  1. Q wave myocardial infarction (Qw MI)

2. MI

261
Q

What does ST elevation on an ECG reflect?

A

Occlusion of a coronary artery (occurs in regional patterns)

262
Q

Describe a posterior infarct on the ECG?

A

Location means ST elevation not seen

263
Q

Describe a left bundle branch block on the ECG?

A
  • If NEW can indicate infarction

- If OLD can obscure ST elevation during an infarct (always ask senior advice as to whether to treat as a STEMI or not)

264
Q

What coronary arteries are affected in an inferior infarct?

A

RCA (mostly) or Left circumflex artery

265
Q

What coronary arteries are affected in a posterior infarct?

A

Circumflex (mostly) or RCA

266
Q

What coronary arteries are affected in a lateral infarct?

A

Left circumflex artery

267
Q

What coronary arteries are affected in an anteroseptal infarct?

A

LAD

268
Q

What are the 2 ECG anterior leads?

A
  1. aVR

2. V1-6

269
Q

What are the 2 ECG lateral leads?

A
  1. aVL

2. Lead I

270
Q

What are the 3 ECG inferior leads?

A
  1. Lead III
  2. aVF
  3. Lead II
271
Q

What leads would show reciprocal ST depression in an anterior STEMI?

A

Lead II&III, aVF (inferior leads)

272
Q

What leads would show ST elevation in a high lateral STEMI?

A
  • Lead I
  • aVL
    (often missed)
273
Q

What leads would show reciprocal ST depression in a high lateral STEMI?

A

Lead II&III & aVF

inferior leads

274
Q

What leads would show reciprocal ST depression in an inferior STEMI?

A

Lead I & aVL

high lateral leads

275
Q

Describe the ECG appearance with a posterior wall infarction?

A
  • No ECG leads 􏰁look􏰀 directly at the posterior wall of the heart
  • Anterior leads are directly opposite = anterior ST depression
  • Often associated with inferior/lateral ST elevation
276
Q

Describe the ECG appearance with a left bundle branch block?

A
  • QRS >120ms-1 (3 small squares)
  • Dominant S wave in V1
  • Deflected QRS in V1
  • Broad R wave with deep S wave & inverted T wave in V6
277
Q

What are the 9 steps to immediate management of a STEMI?

A
  1. ABCDE assessment
  2. Put in an ambulance attached to defibrillator
  3. Aspirin 300mg PO
  4. Unfractionated heparin 5000U IV
  5. Morphine 5-10mg iv
  6. Anti-emetics
  7. Clopidogrel (in ambulance)
  8. Ticagrelor 180mg (in hospital)
  9. Activate PPCI team at Golden Jubilee National Hospital
278
Q

What are the 2 different doses of Clopidogrel for management of a STEMI?

A
  1. 600mg if for PPCI

2. 300mg if for Thrombolysis (75mg if aged > 75)

279
Q

What 6 benefits are there to using PCI instead of thrombolysis in a STEMI?

A
  1. Improves survival
  2. Reduces strokes
  3. Reduces the chance of further MI
  4. Reduces the chance of further angina
  5. Speeds up recovery
  6. Shortens the time spent in hospital
280
Q

What should the median door to balloon time be (DBT)?

A

<30mins

281
Q

What are the 5 steps to subsequent management for a STEMI?

A
  1. Monitor in Coronary Care Unit for complications of MI
  2. Drugs for secondary prevention
  3. Echocardiogram for LV function & cardiac structure
  4. Cardiac rehabilitation
  5. If LVSD at >9 months consider primary prevention ICD
282
Q

List the 4 drugs you would give an MI patient for secondary prevention?

A
  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. Beta blockers
  3. Statins
  4. Eplerenone (potassium-sparing diuretic)- only for diabetes & LVSD/clinical HF
283
Q

List the 5 complications of an MI?

A
  1. Arrhythmias (VT/AF)
  2. Heart failures
  3. Cardiogenic shock (intra-aortic balloon pump)
  4. Myocardial rupture
  5. Psychological (anxiety, depression, cardiac rehab)
284
Q

Describe the 3 different types of myocardial ruptures in MI complications?

A
  1. Septum- Ventricular Septal Defect- surgery
  2. Papillary muscle- mitral regurgitation- surgery
  3. Free wall- tamponade- usually fatal
285
Q

What does IABP stand for?

A

Intra-aortic balloon pump = ventricular assist device

286
Q

List the 4 step subsequent management plan for an NSTEMI?

A
  1. Monitor in Coronary Care Unit for complications of MI (Aspirin, Clopidogrel or ticagrelor, Low molecular weight heparin or fondaparinux)
  2. Drugs for secondary prevention
  3. Echocardiogram for LV function & cardiac structure
  4. Cardiac Rehabilitation
287
Q

What scoring system is used to assess someones ACS risks?

A

GRACE score (low, intermediate & high)

288
Q

Describe the relevance of Timing of Coronary Revascularisation in NSTEMI (TIMACS)?

A
  • Randomised to early (< 24h) or delayed (minimum 36h, median 50h) angiography+/- PCI
  • No significant reduction in death/MI
  • Substantial benefit in high risk group
  • No benefit in lower risk groups
289
Q

If patients “stabilise” post admission what do the WoS guidelines suggest?

A
  • Low risk: discharge on medical treatment
  • Intermediate risk: discharge to be readmitted for
    angiogram within 1-2/52
  • High risk (GRACE>140): urgent inpatient angiogram
  • ALL VIA SCI gateway: E-REFERRAL
290
Q

What does DAPT stand for?

A

Dual anti-platelet therapy

291
Q

Give an example of a P2Y12 inhibitor?

A

Ticagrelor

292
Q

What is the recommended DAPT treatment for type I MI?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor (ticagrelor), in addition to aspirin, for 12 months unless there are contradictions such as excessive risk of bleeds

293
Q

What is the recommended DAPT treatment for type IIb MI?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor (ticagrelor) for 3-6months after DES implantation may be considered in patients deemed at high bleeding risk

294
Q

What is the recommended DAPT treatment for type IIb MI?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor (ticagrelor) in addition to aspirin for beyond 1hr may be considered after careful assessment of the ischaemic & bleeding risks of the patient

295
Q

What are the 5 peri-operative CVS complications?

A
  1. Surgical stress response
  2. Altered myocardial O2 supply/demand
  3. Fluid shifts
  4. Altered coagulation
  5. Disruption to medication
296
Q

What 4 things do you look at to work out if you can safely anaesthetise a patient?

A
  1. Risk
  2. Optimisation
  3. Myocardial oxygen supply/demand
  4. Peri-operative pitfalls
297
Q

What 4 questions do you want to ask in a heart disease pre-surgical history?

A
  1. Normal status for patient?- onset, symptoms, duration, relief, frequency, Stable/unchanged OR unstable/deteriorating
  2. New/worrying features-
    Symptoms at rest or minimal exertion, Orthopnoea
  3. Treatment?
  4. Previous (recent) anaesthesia?
298
Q

What are 4 conditions requiring further action before heart surgery?

A
  1. Unstable coronary syndromes
  2. Decompensated heart failure
  3. Significant arrhythmias
  4. Severe valve disease
299
Q

What is the ASA scoring system in assessing a patients peri-operative risk?

A 
1 = healthy
2 = mild systemic disease
3 = severe systemic disease
4 = severe disease / constant threat to life
5 = moribund
6 = organ donor
E = emergency
300
Q

What is the metabolic equivalent of task (METs) in assessing a patients peri-operative risk?

A 
1 MET = basal metabolic... TV
3 METs = walking 100m flat
4 METs = one flight stairs / gardening
7 METs = jogging
10 METs = strenuous sport
301
Q

_______ METs is associated with increased peri-operative risk?

A

<4 METs

302
Q

When is Lee’s Revised cardiac risk index used?

A
  • Validated for elective surgery

- Predicts cardiac event rate

303
Q

Describe Lee’s Revised cardiac risk index?

A
  • High risk surgery = 1pt
  • Ischaemic heart disease = 1pt
  • History heart failure = 1pt
  • Cerebrovascular disease = 1pt
  • Insulin therapy = 1pt
  • Creatinine > 177μmol/l = 1pt
304
Q

What is the % risk for a Lee’s Revised cardiac risk index score of 0,1,2 and ≥3 pts?

A
  • 0pts= 0.4%
  • 1pt= 0.9%
  • 2pts= 6.6%
  • ≥3pts=11%
305
Q

How would you optimise a patient before heart surgery?

A
  • Meet patient, discuss issues, allay fears: bloods, G&S, ECG etc. Anaemia: diagnose & treat
  • Take correct meds!
  • Minimise fasting & keep hydrated
  • Operating list management / communication
  • Prophylactic revascularisation? Not unless needed anyway
306
Q

Describe the myocardial oxygen supply?

A
  • Oxygen content of blood

- Coronary blood flow: CO/MAP, HR / diastolic time, Anatomy/pathophysiology

307
Q

Describe the myocardial oxygen demand?

A
  • Heart rate
  • Contractility
  • Pre-load
  • Afterload
308
Q

What is the amount of oxygen that a haemoglobin will carry?

A

1.34mls

309
Q

What is the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood?

A

0.003

310
Q

Describe how to avoid the peri-operative pitfalls?

A
  • Specific technique probably less important than prerequisite skill & care
  • Maintain optimal hydration (not ’dry’ or ‘wet’) & early return to normal diet
  • Adequate analgesia intra/post operatively
  • Avoid post-op N/V
  • Normal medications as appropriate
  • Early mobilisation
311
Q

Describe the 3 structural components of the anatomical heart?

A
  1. Atrial chambers- Atrioventricular valves
  2. Ventricular mass- Ventriculoarterial valves
  3. Great arteries
312
Q

Describe the morphology of the right ventricle?

A

Trabeculated endocardium, insertion of chordae to interventricular septum, moderator band

313
Q

Describe the morphology of the left ventricle?

A

Smooth endocardium, sphere cavity

314
Q

Describe the morphology of the right atrium?

A
  • Sinoatrial node

- Broad appendage

315
Q

Describe the morphology of the left atrium?

A
  • Narrow

- Long appendage

316
Q

What are the 2 forms of atrial septal defects?

A
  1. Secundum (most common)

2. Primum

317
Q

What is the difference between the secundum & primum atrial septal defect (ASD)?

A

Primum is far more complex & better thought of as ‘partial AVSD’

318
Q

Describe the Secundum ASD?

A
  • Shunts left to right when in isolation

- Right heart volume loading

319
Q

What would the examination show in Secundum ASD?

A
  • Pulmonary flow murmur

- Fixed, split second heart sound

320
Q

What 5 things may Secundum ASD lead to?

A
  1. RV failure
  2. Tricuspid regurgitation
  3. Atrial arrhythmias
  4. Pulmonary hypertension
  5. Eisenmenger syndrome
321
Q

Describe a coarctation of the aorta?

A
  • Highly variable in severity
  • Tends to form after LSA in a ‘juxta-ductal’ position
  • Age at presentation depends on position and severity
322
Q

What can a pre-ductal coarctation of the aorta cause?

A

Lower limb cyanosis

323
Q

List the 4 clinical signs of coarctation of the aorta?

A
  1. Upper body hypertension
  2. Berry aneurysms
  3. Claudication
  4. Renal insufficiency
324
Q

What does a coarctation of the aorta have a strong association with?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

325
Q

What may be present in a Chest X-ray of coarctation of the aorta?

A

Rib notching due to retrograde flow from high pressure anterior intercostal arteries to low pressure posterior

326
Q

What are the 3 ways that you can surgically repair a coarctation of the aorta via thoracotomy?

A
  1. Subclavian flap
  2. End to end
  3. Jump graft
327
Q

What clinically is common in coarctation of the aorta?

A

Accelerated coronary artery disease & may suggest a more generalised arteriopathy

328
Q

What is a Cyanotic lesion?

A
  • Group-type of congenital heart defect (CHD) that occurs due to deoxygenated blood bypassing the lungs & entering the systemic circulation OR
  • Mixture of oxygenated & unoxygenated blood entering the systemic circulation
329
Q

Describe the foetal circulation?

A
  • In-utero oxygenation is by the maternal placenta
  • Pulmonary circulation is minimal & at high resistance
  • Of the blood that is pumped to the pulmonary artery via the right ventricle, most passes to the aorta via the ductus arteriosus
330
Q

Describe the pathway of oxygenated blood in the foetal circulation?

A
  • Returns to RA via IVC

- It then bypasses the RV/PA via the foramen ovale

331
Q

Describe Transposition of the great arteries?

A
  • Congenital
  • Abnormal development of the fetal heart during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy
  • Aorta is connected to the R ventricle & the pulmonary artery is connected to the L ventricle (swap)
332
Q

Describe what happens in an atrial switch operation?

A

A baffle or channel is created to redirect the blood flow within the heart

333
Q

What heart chamber ends up pumping blood to the systemic circulation in an atrial switch?

A

Right ventricle (not designed for this role and can therefore begin to fail)

334
Q

List the 4 complications of an atrial switch operation?

A
  1. Dilatation
  2. Tricuspid regurgitation
  3. Heart failure
  4. Atrial arrhythmias
335
Q

Describe what happens in an arterial switch operation?

A
  • Aorta is detached from the R atrium (above the valve) & connected to the L atrium
  • Pulmonary artery is detached (above the valve) from the L atrium and tied to the R atrium
  • Coronary arteries are cut out of the pulmonary artery & attached to the aorta
336
Q

What heart chamber ends up pumping blood to the systemic circulation in an arterial switch?

A

Left ventricle

337
Q

What is the possible complication with an arterial switch?

A

Coronary artery complications

338
Q

What are the 4 defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Ventricular septal defect
  2. Overiding aorta
  3. Right ventricular outflow tract tachycardia (RVOT)
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
339
Q

What are the 2 operations available for Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. BT shunt

2. Complete repair

340
Q

Describe a BT shunt for Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • Surgical procedure used to increase pulmonary blood flow for palliation in duct dependent cyanotic heart defects
  • Patient will not have a recordable blood pressure
341
Q

Describe the 3 steps to complete repair of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Pulmonary artery & R ventricle enlarged using a patch
  2. Muscular obstruction is removed
  3. VSD close with a patch
342
Q

What 3 things can happen when repairing Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Significant pulmonary regurgitation- RV dilatation +/- dysfunction
  2. Arrhythmia- Particularly ventricular tachycardia (SVT with RBBB can be similar)
  3. Pulmonary arterial/branch PA stenoses
343
Q

Describe a Univentricular Heart?

A
  • Rare within CHD
  • 1 functioning ventricle reliant on shunts for mixing of the blue & red blood
  • The aim of surgery will always be to create 2 functioning ventricles
344
Q

What may be created if surgery is not feasible in the treatment of a Univentricular Heart?

A

Fontan circulation will be created

345
Q

What 4 anatomical factors can lead to a Univentricular Heart?

A
  1. Opening between ventricles (VSD)
  2. Underdeveloped right ventricle
  3. Opening between atria (ASD)
  4. Absent tricuspid valve
346
Q

Describe a Fontan Circulation?

A
  • IVC & SVC are directly plumbed into the pulmonary arteries bypassing the heart altogether
  • The single functional ventricle is used to support the systemic circulation
347
Q

What does the pulmonary circulation depend on?

A

High systemic venous pressure & low pulmonary vascular resistance

348
Q

What are the 4 issues with a Fontan Circulation?

A
  1. PE- due to increased pulmonary vascular resistance
  2. Arrhythmia- due to increased preload & stroke volume affected
  3. Dehydration- reduced systemic venous pressure
  4. Bleeding- collapses systemic circulation
349
Q

What may heart shunts be?

A

Cyanotic or not cyanotic

350
Q

What 3 things defines systemic hypertension?

A
  1. Persistent elevation in arterial BP >140/90mmHg
  2. BP level that increases the vascular risk in patients sufficient to require intervention
  3. Threshold at which benefits of action (i.e. therapeutic intervention’) exceed those of inaction
351
Q

What has a linear relationship with blood pressure?

A

CV events such as MI, stroke, heart failure & PVD

352
Q

What are the 3 pathophysiological factors of hypertension?

A
  1. Defects in renal sodium haemostasis
  2. Functional vasoconstriction
  3. Defects in vascular smooth muscle growth & structure
353
Q

What 2 physiological abnormalities result in hypertension?

A
  1. Increased cardiac output (autoregulation)

2. Increased total peripheral resistance

354
Q

List what systemic hypertension is an independent risk factor for?

A

Development of coronary artery disease, cerebrovascular disease, peripheral artery disease & heart failure

355
Q

Describe the effect of hypertension on risk of CV mortality?

A

Cardiovascular disease risk doubles for every 20mmHg increase in systolic & 10mmHg increase in diastolic pressure

356
Q

List the 7 classifications of hypertension?

A
  1. Optimal (<120/80)
  2. Normal (120-129/80-84)
  3. High normal (130-139/85-89)
  4. Grade 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99)
  5. Grade 2 hypertension (160-179/100-109)
  6. Grade 3 hypertension (>180/110)
  7. Isolated systolic hypertension (>140/<90)
357
Q

Describe Primary Hypertension?

A
  • 90-95% cases of hypertension
  • No identificable cause
  • Associated with non-modifiable/modifiable risk factors
358
Q

List the 4 non-modifiable risk factors for primary hypertension?

A
  1. Age
  2. Gender
  3. Ethnicity
  4. Genetic factors
359
Q

List the 5 modifiable risk factors for primary hypertension?

A
  1. Diet (high salt, low fruit/veg)
  2. Physical activity
  3. Obesity
  4. Alcohol in excess
  5. Stress
360
Q

List the 5 possible causes of secondary hypertension?

A
  1. Endocrine- hyperaldosteronism, phaechromocytoma, thyroid disorders, Cushing’s syndrome
  2. Vascular- co-artation of aorta
  3. Renal- renal artery stenosis, renal parenchymal disease
  4. Drugs- NSAID, herbal, cocaine, exogenous steroid
  5. Other- obstructive sleep apnoea
361
Q

What does uncontrolled hypertension do?

A

Affects specific organ groups leading to end organ damage

362
Q

List the 4 possible complications of hypertension?

A
  1. Stroke (35-40%)
  2. MI (20-25%)
  3. Heart failure (50%)
  4. Renal failure (35-40%)
363
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of hypertension?

A
  • Generally asymptomatic, discovered incidentally

- Uncommonly associated with headache & visual disturbance

364
Q

What should a hypertension diagnosis not be made on?

A

A single elevated BP reading, there needs to be at least 2 readings, 5mins between readings over at least 2 visits

365
Q

Describe 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring?

A
  • Portable measurement device

- BP taken 20-30 mins throughout the day, 2 hourly overnight

366
Q

Describe home blood pressure monitoring?

A

2 readings, twice a day, taken over 4-7 days

367
Q

What is the office BP definition of hypertension?

A
  • SBP= >140mmHg
    &/or
  • DBP= >90mmHg
368
Q

What is the ambulatory BP definition of hypertension?

A
  • Daytime/awake mean= SBP >135mmHg &/or
    DBP >85mmHg
  • Nighttime/asleep mean= SBP >120mmHg &/or DBP >70mmHg
  • 24hr mean= SBP >130 &/or DBP >80mmHg
369
Q

What is the home BP definition of hypertension?

A
  • SBP= >135mmHg
    &/or
  • DBP= >85mmHg
370
Q

Describe the 4 diagnostic evaluation steps of a patient with hypertension?

A
  1. Confirm the diagnosis with an out of office blood pressure monitoring
  2. Assess cardiovascular risk
  3. Determine the presence of end organ damage or associated complications (e.g. IHD, CKD, PVD, CVA)
  4. Assess presence of secondary hypertension
371
Q

What are the 6 factors to ask about in a hypertensive patients history?

A
  1. Risk factors
  2. Family history
  3. Relevant medical condition- CKD, OSA, Diabetes
  4. Established complications- stroke, IHD, heart failure, PVD
  5. Current & past BP medications
  6. Other Drugs
372
Q

List 6 other drugs which are relevant in a hypertensive history?

A
  1. OCP
  2. Liquorice
  3. Steroids
  4. NSAIDS
  5. Cyclosporin
  6. Illicit substances
373
Q

List the 11 things that you would assess in a hypertensive examination?

A
  1. BP measured both arms
  2. Weight/BMI
  3. Xanthelasma
  4. Pulses
  5. Oedema
  6. Rashes
  7. Heart- murmurs
  8. Lungs- failure
  9. Abdomen- renal masses
  10. Vascular bruits- kidneys, carotids
  11. Eyes
374
Q

List the 7 initial investigations that you would do in a hypertensive patient?

A
  1. U&Es
  2. Glucose/HbA1c
  3. Lipid profile
  4. TFTs
  5. LFTs
  6. Urine dipstick +/- ACR
  7. 12-lead ECG (?LVH)
375
Q

List the 5 additional tests that you would do in a hypertensive patient?

A
  1. Renin & aldosterone (primary hyperaldosteronism)
  2. 24hr urine catecholamines (phaechromocytoma)
  3. Echo
  4. Renal ultrasound
  5. MRA renal
376
Q

How would you assess a patients CV risk?

A
  • Based on BP category, presence of end organ damage, presence of diabetes, CV or renal disease
  • There are various calculators available to calculate CV risk (QRISK, ASSIGN SCORE)
377
Q

What are the 3 ways to manage hypertension?

A
  1. Lifestyle measures
  2. Pharmacological management
  3. Device based therapies
378
Q

List the 6 lifestyle interventions for hypertension?

A
  1. Exercise
  2. Weight loss (10kg)
  3. Reduction in sodium intake (6g NaCl)
  4. Reduction in alcohol intake
  5. DASH diet
  6. Smoking cessation
379
Q

How do we treat a high normal BP (130-139/85-89mmHg)?

A
  • Lifestyle advice

- Consider drug treatment in very high risk patients with CVD, esp coronary artery disease

380
Q

How do we treat a grade 1 hypertensive patient (BP 140-159/90-99mmHg)?

A
  • Lifestyle advice
  • Immediate drug treatment in high/very high risk patients with CVD, renal disease or hypertension-mediated organ damage (HMOD)
  • Drug treatment in low moderate risk patients without CVD, renal disease or HMOD after 3-6months of lifestyle intervention if BP not controlled
381
Q

How do we treat a grade 2 hypertensive patient (BP 160-179/100-109mmHg)?

A
  • Lifestyle advice
  • Immediate drug treatment in all patients
  • Aim for BP control within 3months
382
Q

How do we treat a grade 3 hypertensive patient (BP >180/110mmHg)?

A
  • Lifestyle advice
  • Immediate drug treatment in all patients
  • Aim for BP control within 3months
383
Q

What are the 4 types of pharmacological managements for hypertension?

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. ACE-i/angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARB)
  3. Vasodilators
  4. Others ie. methyldopa, hydralazine, monoxidine
384
Q

What are 3 types of diuretics?

A
  1. Loop
  2. Thiazide
  3. Potassium sparing
385
Q

What are 3 types of vasodilators?

A
  1. Calcium channel blockers
  2. Beta blockers
  3. Alpha blockers
386
Q

What step 1 antihypertensive drug treatment would you use in a patient under 55years?

A

ACE inhibitor or low-cost angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)

387
Q

What step 2 antihypertensive drug treatment would you use in a patient under 55years?

A
  • ACE inhibitor or low-cost angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) +
  • Calcium-channel blocker (CCB)
388
Q

What step 3 antihypertensive drug treatment would you use in a patient under 55years?

A
  • ACE inhibitor or low-cost angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) +
  • Calcium-channel blocker (CCB) +
  • Thiazide-like diuretic
389
Q

What step 4 antihypertensive drug treatment would you use in a resistant patient?

A
  • ACE inhibitor or low-cost angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) +
  • Calcium-channel blocker (CCB) +
  • Thiazide-like diuretic +
  • Consider further diuretic or alpha- or beta-blocker +
  • Referral
390
Q

What step 1 antihypertensive drug treatment would you use in a patient over 55years/ black person of African/Caribbean origin of any age?

A

Calcium-channel blocker (CCB)

391
Q

What 4 factors are taken into consideration when choosing the most appropriate anti-hypertensive for a patient?

A
  1. More important to achieve control of BP rather than “fret” over the choice of anti-hypertensives
  2. Co-morbidities
  3. Marked differences between drugs in side effect profile
  4. Often, more than 1 drug will be required
392
Q

Give 3 examples of how co-morbidites can affect how you chose an anti-hypertensive drug?

A
  1. Beta-blockers in heart failure/ asymptomatic coronary heart disease
  2. ACEi in heart failure
  3. ACEi in diabetes mellitus
393
Q

What did a meta-analysis on 11,000 patients from 42 anti-hypertensive drug trials show?

A

Combination therapy is ~5x more effective than increasing the dose of 1 drug (monotherapy; stepped care approach)

394
Q

What are the BP treatment targets?

A
  • <140/90

- Ideally <130/80 if tolerated

395
Q

Give 2 examples of device based therapies used in hypertension management?

A
  1. Renal denervation

2. Baroceptor stimulation

396
Q

Describe the prevalence of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • Commonest sustained cardiac arrhythmia ž
  • Affects 1.5-2% of the population
  • ž A major risk factor for stroke (5-fold increase)
397
Q

Describe the symptoms of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • ž Palpitation
  • ž Dyspnoea
  • ž Rarely, chest pain, syncope
  • ž May present with complications, e.g. stroke
398
Q

What are the 2 factors to diagnosing atrial fibrillation?

A
  1. Irregular pulse: “irregularly irregular”,— confirmed by 12-lead ECG
  2. ž May require prolonged ambulatory ECG recordings to detect paroxysmal AF
399
Q

What are the 3 types of atrial fibrillations?

A
  1. Paroxysmal intermittent, starting & stopping
  2. — Persistent- needs intervention to terminate the arrhythmia, e.g. IV antiarrhythmic injection/DC cardioversion
  3. — Permanent
400
Q

Describe the ECG appearance of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • Rate variable

- Irregular, narrow QRS - No P waves

401
Q

Describe the ECG appearance of atrial flutter?

A
  • Rate variable
  • Regular narrow QRS
  • Sawtooth atrial activity 300bpm, variable AV block
402
Q

Describe the prevalence of atrial flutter?

A
  • More common with increased age

- More common in males

403
Q

List 11 conditions which predispose to the progression of atrial fibrillation?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Symptomatic heart failure
  3. Valvular heart disease
  4. Cardiomyopathies
  5. Atrial septal defects
  6. Coronary artery disease
  7. Thyroid dysfunction
  8. Obesity
  9. Diabetes mellitus
  10. COPD
  11. Chronic renal disease
404
Q

What are the 5 objectives for atrial fibrillation treatment?

A 
1. Prevention of stroke
ž2. Symptom relief
3.ž Optimum management of concomitant cardiovascular disease
ž4. Rate control
ž5. +/- Correction of rhythm disturbance
405
Q

What are the 4 essential investigations for atrial fibrillation?

A
  1. ECG
  2. ž Echocardiogram
  3. ž Thyroid Function Tests
  4. ž Liver Function Tests
406
Q

What is the target heart rate for atrial fibrillation?

A
  • <110/min

- ž If still symptomatic, aim for <80/min

407
Q

What should AF patients without heart failure be started on?

A
  • Beta-blocker (bisoprolol 2.5-5mg OD or Atenolol 25-50mg BD)
    OR
  • Rate-limiting Ca2+ antagonist (Verapamil MR 120-240mg OD)
408
Q

What is the 2nd line treatment for atrial fibrillation?

A

Digoxin

409
Q

What are the 3 major risk factors for stroke & thrombi-embolism in non-valvular AF?

A
  1. Previous stroke
  2. TIA or systemic embolism
  3. Age >75 years
410
Q

What are the 6 clinical relevant non-major risk factors for stroke & thrombi-embolism in non-valvular AF?

A
  1. CHF or moderate-severe LV systolic dysfunction (LV EF <40%)
  2. Hypertension
  3. Diabetes mellitus
  4. Age 65-74years
  5. Female sex
  6. Vascular disease
411
Q

Describe the stroke risk factor-based point-based scoring system for AF patients (CHA2DS2-VASc)?

A
  • Congestive heart failure/LV dysfunction= 1
  • Hypertension= 1
  • Age >75= 2
  • Diabetes mellitus= 1
  • Stroke/TIA/thrombo-embolism= 2
  • Vascular disease= 1
  • Age 65-74= 1
  • Sex category (female)= 1
412
Q

What is the main issue with warfarin?

A

Narrow therapeutic window (can cause intracranial bleed)

413
Q

List the 4 new oral anticoagulant drugs (NOACs) & what they work on?

A
  1. Dabigatran- Thrombin inhibitor —
    2.ž Rivaroxaban- Factor Xa inhibitor —
    ž3. Apixaban- Factor Xa inhibitor —
    4.ž Edoxaban- Factor Xa inhibitor
414
Q

Describe the clinical pharmacology of Apixaban?

A
  • ~50% oral bioavailability
  • Not a pro-drug
  • No food effects
  • ~27% renal clearance
  • 12hr t1/2
  • 3-4hr Tmax
415
Q

Describe the clinical pharmacology of Rivaroxaban?

A
  • 80-100% oral bioavailability
  • Not a pro-drug
  • 20mg & 15mg doses need to be taken with food
  • ~33% renal clearance
  • 5-9hr t1/2 in young, 11-13hr t1/2 in elderly
  • 2-4hr Tmax
416
Q

Describe the clinical pharmacology of Dabigatran?

A
  • ~6.5% oral bioavailability
  • Pro-drug
  • No food effects
  • 85% renal clearance
  • 12-16hr t1/2
  • 0.5-2hr Tmax
417
Q

Describe the clinical pharmacology of Edoxaban?

A
  • 62% oral bioavailability
  • Not a pro-drug
  • No food effects
  • 50% renal clearance
  • 10-14hr t1/2
  • 1-2hr Tmax
418
Q

What 4 main effects did the meta-analysis of NOACs trials show?

A
  1. Reduced stroke / systemic embolism by 19%
  2. Reduced all-cause mortality by 10%
  3. Reduced intracranial haemorrhage by 52%
  4. Increased risk of GI bleeding
419
Q

What is the management for an AF patient with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0?

A

No antiplatelet or anticoagulant treatment

420
Q

What is the management for an AF patient with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 1?

A

Oral anticoagulants should be considered (IIaB)

421
Q

What is the management for an AF patient with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of >2?

A

Oral anticoagulants indicated (NOAC, warfarin) but assess for contra-indications & correct reversible bleeding risk factors

422
Q

What treatment may be considered in patients with clear contra-indications for Oral anticoagulants?

A

Left atrial appendage occlusion devices

423
Q

What is IIaB treatment?

A

Catheter ablation

424
Q

What are the 5 types of patients that need to be referred for operation specialist assessment?

A
  1. Still symptomatic despite adequate rate control
    ž2. Young age (<60)
    3.ž Inadequate rate control despite β blocker (or Ca++ antagonist) + digoxin
    ž4. Structural heart disease on echo
    ž5. AF & coexisting heart failure
425
Q

When would “rhythm control” be affective in AF patients?

A

Younger patients & patients with ongoing symptoms despite good rate control

426
Q

What are the 3 options for rhythm control in AF patients?

A
  1. Direct current cardioversion (for persistent AF) —
  2. Antiarrhythmic drugs
  3. — Catheter ablation
427
Q

What are the 3 types of Antiarrhythmic drugs used in the treatment of AF?

A
  1. Class 1 (Na+ channel blockers)
  2. Class 3 (K+ channel blockers, prolong action potential duration / QT interval)
  3. Multichannel blockers
428
Q

Give 2 examples of Class 1 Antiarrhythmic drugs used in AF treatment?

A
  1. Flecainide 100mg bd

2. Propafenone 150-300mg bd

429
Q

Give 2 examples of Class 3 Antiarrhythmic drugs used in AF treatment?

A
  1. Sotalol (β blocker with additional Class 3 activity) 80mg bd
  2. Amiodarone 200 mg daily
430
Q

Give an example of a multichannel blocking Antiarrhythmic drugs used in AF treatment?

A

Dronedarone 400 mg bd

431
Q

What are Antiarrhythmic drugs usually used in combination with for AF treatment?

A

Beta blocker

432
Q

What is catheter ablation used for?

A

Identification of triggers for paroxysmal AF in the pulmonary veins

433
Q

Describe the outcomes of Pulmonary vein isolation in paroxysmal/persistent AF?

A
  • Paroxysmal: curative in up to 65-80%

- Persistent: 50-60% curative

434
Q

What are the 2 different types of catheter ablation?

A
  1. Radiofrequency current (“burning”)

2. Cryo-ablation (“freezing”)

435
Q

What are the 2 types of AF patients that should be considered for referral to an arrhythmia specialist for consideration of ablation according to SIGN?

A
  1. Highly symptomatic paroxysmal AF resistant to 1+ antiarrhythmic drugs & little/no comorbidity
  2. Symptomatic AF (paroxysmal/persistent), symptomatic HF & left ventricular systolic dysfunction with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 25–35%
436
Q

What should Catheter ablation techniques for atrial fibrillation focus on according to SIGN?

A

Electrical isolation of the pulmonary veins

437
Q

What should be considered for highly symptomatic patients with little or no comorbidity according to SIGN?

A

An early ablation strategy

438
Q

What should patients who present with typical atrial flutter be offered according to SIGN?

A

Radiofrequency catheter ablation

MBChB Year 3 (15 decks)

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