Week 5 Flashcards

1
Q

draw a simplified model of prokaryotic gene expression and of eukaryotic gene expression

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define a gene

A

the entire nucleic acid sequence (usually DNA) that is necessary for the synthesis of a protein (and its variants) or RNA. In other words, genes are segments of DNA that are transcribed into RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

two types of genes when transcribed

A
  1. resulting RNA encodes a protein
  2. resulting RNA functions as RNA and may not be translated into protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RNA nucleotides are added in which direction?

A

5’ to 3’ (reads template strand 3’ TO 5’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

one important difference between RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase

A

ribonucleoside triphosphate used (ATP, UTP, CTP, GTP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

coding strand

A

non-template strand - almost identical to the RNA strand formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RNA nucleotides are linked by

A

phosphodiester bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DNA-RNA helix in RNA polymerase held together by

A

base pairing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

template for RNA polymerase is what type of DNA?

A

ssDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

label a functional RNAP

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DNA/RNA duplex

A

short region of DNA/RNA helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

nascent RNA

A

newborn RNA that is being synthesised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

promoter

A

signals to the RNA polymerase to start transcribing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

transcription cycle steps

A
  • Sigma factor binds to RNAP and finds promoter
    sequence
  • Localized unwinding of DNA, a few short
    RNAs synthesized initially & then RNAP clamps down–sigma factor released
  • NB: no primer needed
  • Elongation
  • Termination & release of RNA (terminator sequence is transcribed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

are sigma factors promoter-specific?

A

different sigma factors recognise different promoter sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

function of sigma factor

A

a bacterial transcription initiation factor that enables specific binding of RNA polymerase (RNAP) to gene promoters - reads sequences and recognises where to bind (by taking asymmetry into account) and which strand to bind to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is the sequence numbered?

A

counting backward from the start site using negative numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

upstream vs downstream

A

Upstream is toward the 5’ end of the synthesised RNA molecule, and downstream is toward the 3’ end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

promoter consensus sequences

A

-10 has the consensus sequence TATAAT. · The sequence at -35 has the consensus sequence TTGACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RNA secondary structure

A

gerald!
- conventional base pairs are made among different parts of the molecule
- hairpins etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

terminator sequence

A

GC rich areas followed by AT rich areas on the template strand (results in AUUUUU)
- strong hydrogen bonding between GC rich areas on RNA strand forms a termination hairpin, helping pull the RNA away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

difference between promoter and terminator sequences

A

promoter sequences not usually transcribed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

key changes in efficiency in the transcription cycle

A
  • initial steps of RNA synthesis are relatively inefficient
  • this is different from the elongation mode of RNA polymerase, which is highly processive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how do termination signals help to dissociate the RNA transcript from the polymerase?

A

disrupt H-bonding of new mRNA
transcript with DNA template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

difference between gene expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

translation in prokaryotes can occur concurrently with transcription due to the absence of the nucleus.
in eukaryotes, pre-mRNA is altered to become mature mRNA which is then exported out of the nucleus and translated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are UTRs ?

A

untranslating regions: segments of an mRNA molecule that are not translated into protein. They are located at both the 5’ and 3’ ends of the mRNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the function of UTRs?

A
  • regulation of translation: UTRs can influence the efficiency and rate at which a protein is synthesized by affecting ribosome binding and initiation.
  • mRNA stability: UTRs play a role in determining the half-life of an mRNA molecule, thereby influencing how long it remains available for translation.
28
Q

mRNAs

A

messenger RNAs, code for proteins

29
Q

rRNAs

A

ribosomal RNAs, form the basic structure of the ribosome and catalyse protein synthesis

30
Q

tRNAs

A

transfer RNAs, central to protein synthesis as the adaptors between mRNA and amino acids

31
Q

telomerase RNA

A

serves as the template for the telomerase enzyme that extends the ends of chromosomes

32
Q

snRNAs

A

small nuclear RNAs, function in a variety of nuclear processes, including the splicing of pre-MRNA

33
Q

snoRNAs

A

small nucleolar RNAs, help to process and chemically modify rRNAs

34
Q

lncRNAs

A

long noncoding RNAs, not all of which appear to have a function; some serve as scaffolds and regulate diverse cell processes, including X-chromosome inactivation

35
Q

miRNAs

A

microRNAs, regulate gene expression by blocking translation of specific mRNAs and causing their degradation

36
Q

siRNAs

A

usually double stranded. small interfering RNAs, turn off gene expression by directing the degradation of selective mRNAs and helping to establish repressive chromatin structure

37
Q

piRNAs

A

iwi-interacting RNAs, bind to kiwi proteins and protect the germ line from transposable elements

38
Q

distinguish between RNAPs in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

in prokaryotes, there is only one RNAP
in eukaryotes, there are three: RNA polymerase I, II, and III

39
Q

structure and function of RNAPs in eukaryotes

A
  • each RNAP is a multi-subunit protein
  • each RNAP is responsible for transcription of different RNAs
40
Q

genes transcribed by RNA polymerase I

A

most rRNA genes

41
Q

genes transcribed by RNA polymerase II

A

all protein-coding genes, miRNA genes, ;lus genes for other noncoding RNAs (eg those of the spliceosome)

42
Q

genes transcribed by RNA polymerase III

A

tRNA genes, 5S rRNA gene, genes for many other small RNAs

43
Q

distinguish between eukaryotic RNAP II and bacterial RNAP structure

A
  • bacterial RNAP has 5 subunits, eukaryotic RNA Pol II has 12
  • RNA pol II has a special carboxyl terminal domain (CTD) not found in bacterial or other eukaryotic RNAPs
44
Q

why do eukaryotic RNA polymerases require transcription factors?

A
  • these proteins help position them at the promoter
  • fulfil a similar role to the sigma subunit of the bacterial RNA polymerases
  • eukaryotic RNA polymerases need to deal with chromosomal structures so more/diverse transcription factors are needed as finding the gene to transcribe is harder
45
Q

sigma subunits

A

responsible for determining the specificity of promoter DNA binding and efficient initiation of RNA synthesis

46
Q

eukaryotic promoters

A

TATA box:
- helps position RNAP II
- A/T-rich sequence highly conserved
- found at ~30bp upstream from start site for transcription
- common, but there are also many other types of promoter sequences (elements)

47
Q

steps in the initiation of transcription

A
  1. binding of TBP (TATA box binding protein) subunit of TFIID (Transcription factor II D) to TATA box promoter in the minor groove, bending and distorting the DNA which makes all components proximal.
  2. this mobilizes the binding of TFIIB complex adjacent to the TATA box
  3. other transcription factors bind, helping orient and bind RNAP II to the DNA at the TSS (transcription start site)
  4. the helicase activity of TFIIH uses ATP to pry apart DNA strands at the TSS
  5. TFIIH also phosphorylates the C-terminal domain of RNA polymerase II, activating it so that transcription can begin.
48
Q

major vs minor groove of DNA

A

The major groove occurs where the backbones are far apart, the minor groove occurs where they are close together.

49
Q

why are additional factors required for transcription elongation in eukaryotes?

A

elongation factors act like a wedge prying DNA off histone so RNAP can perform its function. this prevents RNAP from stalling. Proteins are also involved in then reassembling the nucleosome

50
Q

describe the RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain

A
  • carboxyl terminal domain on the largest subunits
  • consists of tandem repeats of 7 amino acids
  • this happens in RNAP II only
  • repeat: (N terminal) Tyr-Ser-Pro-Thr-Ser-Pro-Ser (COOH terminal)
  • Ser AAs are phosphorylated by TFIIH in different patterns
  • Phosphorylation of the CTD serves as a binding platform for different RNA-processing factors, including those involved in capping, splicing, and polyadenylation.
51
Q

how many repeats of AAs does yeast enzyme vs human enzyme have?

A

yeast - 26
human - 52

52
Q

review qs on transcription initiation:

A

how is RNA polymerase II activated? phosphorylation
what is phosphorylated? See on CTD of RNAPII
how many proteins are involved in initiation eukaryotic transcription? >100 subunits of many proteins

53
Q

3 main steps of mRNA processing

A
  1. addition of 5’ cap
  2. splicing - removal of introns
  3. processing and polyadenylation of 3’ tail
54
Q

phosphorylation of C-terminal tail of RNAP II results in binding of:

A
  • RNA processing proteins
  • additional phosphorylation of CTD, including Ser 2 (done by other enzymes)
55
Q

capping proteins are attracted by

A

Ser 5 phosphorylation

56
Q

splicing proteins are attracted by

A

Ser 2 phosphorylation, which is not done by TFIIH but by a different kinds

57
Q

5’ pre-mRNA capping

A
  • requires 3 enzymes
  • 5’ cap consists of 7-methylguanosine and a 5’-5’ triphosphate bridge, which is not recognised by exonucleases so can’t be degraded
  • helps to protect RNA from nucleases
  • completed before mRNA full transcribed
58
Q

gene structure in prokaryotes vs eukaryotes

A

prokaryotes: promoter -> bacterial gene (coding sequence)

eukaryotes - promoter -> coding sequences (exons) -> noncoding sequences (introns) which are later spliced out ///

59
Q

how are introns removed from pre-RNA?

A
  1. branch point A (an adenosine (A) residue within the intron, located 20–50 nucleotides upstream of the 3’ splice site) is recognized by splicing factors.
  2. the 2’-OH group of the branch point A attacks the 5’ splice site, forming a 2’-5’ phosphodiester bond.
    This creates a looped structure called a lariat, where the intron is circularized with the branch point A at its center.
  3. the 3’ OH of the upstream exon attacks the 3’ splice site, releasing the lariat intron and joining the exons together.
60
Q

why is the catalytic mechanism of RNA splicing RNA dependent?

A
  • the 2’ OH group of the ribose sugar is not present in deoxyribose, so the DNA doesn’t self-splice
61
Q

how are snRNPs involved in the splicing reaction for most eukaryotic pre mRNAs?

A
  • pre-mRNAs are not able to self-splice
  • spliceosomes contain snRNAs bound to protein (snRNPs) plus other associated proteins
  • spliceosomes assemble on mRNA to remove introns
  • when splicing is complete, an exon junction complex is added
62
Q

order in which snRNPs are used

A
  1. U1 snRNP binds to the 5’ end of the intron; U2 snRNP binds to the 3’ end of the intron
  2. U6 replaces U1 (a form of checking)
  3. active site of spliceosome is created by U2 and U6
  4. splicing occurs by a transesterification reaction
  5. exon junction complex is added between exon 1 and exon 2 to signal to cell that mRNA is properly spliced
63
Q

what is a secondary function of alternative RNA splicing?

A

it increases the number of possible gene products

64
Q

examples of abnormal splicing

A
  1. a single-nucleotide change that destroys a normal splice site, thereby causing exon skipping
  2. a single-nucleotide change that destroys a normal splice site, thereby activating a cryptic splice site
  3. a single-nucleotide change that creates a new splice site, thereby causing a new exon to be incorporated
65
Q

??transcirption of the consensus sequences and recruitment of 3’ end modifying proteins

66
Q

3’ end processing

A
  • consensus sequences direct cleavage and polyadenylation of the 3’ end
  • 3’ end processing proteins move from CTD to mRNA
  • cleavage and addition of a poly-A 3’ tail along with poly-A binding proteins result in the mature mRNA
  • CTD is dephosphorylated, causing RNAP to detach
67
Q

how is mature mRNA exported from the nucleus to the cytosol?

A

leaves nucleus through nuclear pore complex in the nuclear envelope. proteins in the NPC check sequence and associated proteins. in the cytosol, proteins are exchanged with initiation factors for protein sequence