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Pathophysiology + Pharm > week 4 > Flashcards

week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

1st Line of Defense:

Question 1:

Question: What are physical and mechanical barriers in the first line of defense primarily composed of?
Options:
a. Blood and lymph
b. Epithelial cells of the skin and mucous membranes
c. Antibodies and white blood cells
d. Red blood cells and platelets

A

Answer: b. Epithelial cells of the skin and mucous membranes

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2
Q

Question 2:

Question: Which substance, secreted by sebaceous glands in the skin, creates an acidic environment detrimental to most bacteria in the first line of defense?
Options:
a. Mucus
b. Lysozyme
c. Fatty acids and lactic acid
d. Antimicrobial peptides

A

Answer: c. Fatty acids and lactic acid

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3
Q

Question 3:

Question: Which type of antimicrobial peptides can disrupt cholesterol-free bacterial cell membranes and are found in various parts of the body, including the skin and gut?
Options:
a. β-defensins
b. Mucus peptides
c. α-defensins
d. Lysozymes

A

Answer: a. β-defensins

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4
Q

2nd Line of Defense:

Question 1:

Question: What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation?
Options:
a. Heat, redness, swelling, and pain
b. Cold, itchiness, numbness, and tingling
c. Sweating, paleness, fatigue, and shivering
d. Discoloration, tenderness, dryness, and scarring

A

Answer: a. Heat, redness, swelling, and pain

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5
Q

Question 2:

Question: Which characteristic of inflammation allows for a faster immune response and enhances the activity of immune cells?
Options:
a. Rapid initiation
b. Cellular and chemical components
c. Vascularization
d. Nonspecific response

A

Answer: c. Vascularization

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6
Q

Question 3:

Question: What is a drawback of the nonspecific nature of the inflammatory response?
Options:
a. It ensures a rapid and effective immune response
b. It minimizes tissue damage
c. It can sometimes lead to an autoimmune response
d. It only occurs in vascularized tissues

A

Answer: c. It can sometimes lead to an autoimmune response

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7
Q

1st Line of Defense:

Question 4:

Question: What is the primary function of the physical and mechanical barriers in the first line of defense?
Options:
a. Initiating the adaptive immune response
b. Preventing damage to the individual
c. Promoting bacterial growth
d. Facilitating communication between immune cells

A

Answer: b. Preventing damage to the individual

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8
Q

Question 5:

Question: Which component of the first line of defense traps and moves pathogens in the upper respiratory tract?
Options:
a. Mucus
b. Fatty acids
c. Lysozyme
d. Epithelial cells

A

Answer: d. Epithelial cells

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9
Q

Question 6:

Question: Prolonged treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics can lead to an overgrowth of opportunistic pathogenic microorganisms. What is an example of such a microorganism mentioned in the text?
Options:
a. E. coli
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Streptococcus
d. Lactobacillus

A

Answer: b. Clostridium difficile

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10
Q

2nd Line of Defense:

Question 4:

Question: What does the term “nonspecific” mean in the context of the inflammatory response?
Options:
a. It varies depending on the type of stimulus.
b. It leads to a quicker response if previously exposed to the same stimulus.
c. It always results in the same immune reaction.
d. It only occurs in vascularized tissues.

A

Answer: c. It always results in the same immune reaction.

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11
Q

Question 5:

Question: What is the primary benefit of a rapid inflammatory response?
Options:
a. Minimizing tissue damage
b. Allowing more time for pathogens to establish a foothold
c. Preventing the activation of the adaptive immune system
d. Enhancing the activity of pathogens

A

Answer: a. Minimizing tissue damage

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12
Q

Question 6:

Question: Which components are involved in the inflammatory response?
Options:
a. Only cellular components
b. Cellular and chemical components
c. Humoral components only
d. Vascular and bone components

A

Answer: b. Cellular and chemical components

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13
Q

Question 7:

Question: What is the role of anaphylatoxins C3a and C5a in the complement system?
Options:
a. Promote cell lysis
b. Enhance phagocytosis
c. Trigger mast cell degranulation
d. Activate fibrin formation

A

Answer: c. Trigger mast cell degranulation

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14
Q

Question 8:

Question: Which pathway in the complement system is activated by antibodies binding to antigens on the surface of pathogens?
Options:
a. Classical pathway
b. Alternative pathway
c. Lectin pathway
d. Kinin pathway

A

Answer: a. Classical pathway

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15
Q

Clotting System:

Question 9:

Question: What is the primary function of the clotting system during inflammation?
Options:
a. Promoting vasodilation
b. Trapping microorganisms
c. Forming clots to stop bleeding
d. Enhancing phagocytosis

A

Answer: c. Forming clots to stop bleeding

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16
Q

Question 10:

Question: Which factor is activated in the Extrinsic Pathway of the clotting system when there is damage to the blood vessel wall?
Options:
a. Factor VIIa
b. Factor Xa
c. Factor XIIa
d. Prekallikrein

A

Answer: a. Factor VIIa

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17
Q

Question 11:

Question: What is the common endpoint of both the Extrinsic and Intrinsic pathways in the clotting system?
Options:
a. Formation of fibrin
b. Activation of Factor XIIa
c. Release of histamines
d. Activation of kinins

A

Answer: a. Formation of fibrin

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18
Q

Plasma Protein Synthesis:

Question 12:

Question: What induces the liver to produce acute-phase reactants during inflammation?
Options:
a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
b. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
c. Interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
d. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)

A

Answer: a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

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19
Q

Question 13:

Question: Which lab test for inflammation measures the rate at which red blood cells (RBC) settle in a tube over a certain time span?
Options:
a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
b. C-reactive protein (CRP)
c. Complete blood count (CBC)
d. Serum albumin level

A

Answer: a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

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20
Q

Question 14:

Question: Which plasma protein is a better indicator of inflammation in the body and is produced by the liver during the inflammation process?
Options:
a. Fibrinogen
b. Hemoglobin
c. C-reactive protein (CRP)
d. Albumin

A

Answer: c. C-reactive protein (CRP)

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21
Q

Kinin System:

Question 15:

Question: What initiates both the clotting and kinin systems by activating factor XIIa?
Options:
a. Bradykinin
b. Prekallikrein
c. Kininogen
d. Hageman factor (factor XII)

A

Answer: d. Hageman factor (factor XII)

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22
Q

Question 16:

Question: What is the final product of the kinin system that causes dilation of blood vessels, induces pain, causes smooth muscle cell contraction, and increases vascular permeability?
Options:
a. Kininogen
b. Bradykinin
c. Factor XIIa
d. Prostaglandin

A

Answer: b. Bradykinin

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23
Q

Question 17:

Question: What is the inner lining of blood vessels called and plays a role in coordinating blood clotting and the passage of cells and fluid into the tissue during inflammation?
Options:
a. Mast cells
b. Vascular endothelium
c. Dendritic cells
d. Platelets

A

Answer: b. Vascular endothelium

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24
Q

Question 18:

Question: Which blood cell component carries oxygen to tissues?
Options:
a. Platelets
b. White blood cells (WBCs)
c. Red blood cells (RBCs)
d. Granulocytes

A

Answer: c. Red blood cells (RBCs)

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25
Q

Question 19:

Question: Which type of white blood cells are the most common and include basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils?
Options:
a. Monocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Granulocytes
d. Macrophages

A

Answer: c. Granulocytes

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26
Q

Question 20:

Question: What cells are involved in the innate and acquired immune response and can be found inside the blood vessel (monocytes) and in the tissue (macrophages)?
Options:
a. Mast cells
b. Dendritic cells
c. Red blood cells (RBCs)
d. Platelets

A

Answer: b. Dendritic cells

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27
Q

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) and Classes:

Question 21:

Question: What do immune cells use to recognize “danger signals” associated with microbial attack, leading to the release of cytokines and inflammatory mediators?
Options:
a. Chemokines
b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
c. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)
d. Complement receptors

A

Answer: c. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)

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28
Q

Question 22:

Question: What type of molecules are recognized by some PRRs that are expressed by infectious agents?
Options:
a. Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)
b. Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs)
c. Interleukins
d. Cytokines

A

Answer: a. Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

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29
Q

Question 23:

Question: What are the products of cellular damage, associated with infection or cells killed by viruses, recognized by some PRRs?
Options:
a. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
b. Complement receptors
c. Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs)
d. Chemokines

A

Answer: c. Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs)

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30
Q

Question 24:

Question: What is the primary role of Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs), a type of PRR?
Options:
a. Recognize cytokines
b. Attract leukocytes to sites of inflammation
c. Recognize Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)
d. Induce phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens

A

Answer: c. Recognize Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

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31
Q

Question 25:

Question: Which class of PRRs are primarily found on macrophages and facilitate recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens and damaged cells?
Options:
a. Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs)
b. Scavenger receptors
c. Complement receptors
d. NOD-like receptors (NLRs)

A

Answer: b. Scavenger receptors

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32
Q

Cellular Products of Inflammation:

Question 26:

Question: What family of small-molecular-weight soluble intercellular-signaling molecules come from cells, bind to specific cell membrane receptors, and regulate innate or adaptive immunity?
Options:
a. Cytokines
b. Chemokines
c. Interleukins
d. Growth factors

A

Answer: a. Cytokines

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33
Q

Question 27:

Question: What is the primary function of chemokines, which are members of a special family of cytokines?
Options:
a. Induce cell division and differentiation
b. Facilitate recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens
c. Attract leukocytes to sites of inflammation
d. Regulate adaptive immunity

A

Answer: c. Attract leukocytes to sites of inflammation

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34
Q

Question 28:

Question: Which family of growth factors induces cell division and differentiation of various cell types, such as immature blood cells, in response to inflammation?
Options:
a. Interleukins
b. Cytokines
c. Chemokines
d. Growth factors

A

Answer: d. Growth factors

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35
Q

Mast Cell Overview:

Question 29:

Question: Where are mast cells primarily located in the body?
Options:
a. In the blood
b. Near lymph nodes
c. In connective tissues near blood vessels
d. In the liver

A

Answer: c. In connective tissues near blood vessels

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36
Q

Question 30:

Question: What is the major function of mast cells?
Options:
a. Synthesizing antibodies
b. Initiating blood clotting
c. Regulating blood sugar
d. Cellular activator of the inflammatory response

A

Answer: d. Cellular activator of the inflammatory response

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37
Q

Question 31:

Question: Which blood cells likely function similarly to tissue mast cells?
Options:
a. Red blood cells (RBCs)
b. Platelets
c. Basophils
d. White blood cells (WBCs)

A

Answer: c. Basophils

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38
Q

Question 32:

Question: How do mast cells release pre-stored mediators upon stimulation?
Options:
a. Phagocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Degranulation
d. Synthesis

A

Answer: c. Degranulation

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39
Q

Question 33:

Question: Which of the following is a mediator released from mast cell degranulation that causes smooth muscle constriction and postcapillary venule dilation?
Options:
a. Platelet-Activating Factor (PAF)
b. Leukotrienes
c. Cytokines
d. Histamine

A

Answer: d. Histamine

40
Q

Question 34:

Question: Which receptor promotes inflammation when histamine binds to it?
Options:
a. H1 receptor
b. H2 receptor
c. H3 receptor
d. H4 receptor

A

Answer: a. H1 receptor

41
Q

Question 35:

Question: What effect does histamine binding to the H2 receptor generally have?
Options:
a. Promotes inflammation
b. Suppresses leukocyte function
c. Causes bronchoconstriction
d. Dilation of blood vessels

A

Answer: b. Suppresses leukocyte function

42
Q

Question 36:

Question: What does binding to the H1 receptor on smooth muscle cells, especially in the bronchi, cause?
Options:
a. Dilation of blood vessels
b. Suppression of leukocyte function
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Increases adherence of leukocytes to endothelium

A

Answer: c. Bronchoconstriction

43
Q

Question 37:

Question: Where is the H2 receptor especially abundant?
Options:
a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Adrenal glands
c. Parietal cells of the stomach mucosa
d. Kidneys

A

Answer: c. Parietal cells of the stomach mucosa

44
Q

Question 38:

Question: How many known TLRs (Toll-Like Receptors) are there in humans?
Options:
a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 11

A

Answer: d. 11

45
Q

Platelet Activating Factor (PAF):

Question 39:

Question: What is the source of platelet activating factor (PAF)?
Options:
a. Produced by the liver
b. Derived from plasma lipoproteins
c. Derived from the phospholipids of the cell membrane
d. Synthesized by macrophages

A

Answer: c. Derived from the phospholipids of the cell membrane

46
Q

Question 40:

Question: Which of the following is a function of PAF in the body?
Options:
a. Synthesizing antibodies
b. Inhibiting platelet activation
c. Inducing muscle contraction
d. Inducing inflammation, vasodilation, and immune cell recruitment

A

Answer: d. Inducing inflammation, vasodilation, and immune cell recruitment

47
Q

Question 41:

Question: What is the primary function of PAF related to platelets?
Options:
a. Inducing platelet aggregation
b. Suppressing platelet activity
c. Promoting platelet proliferation
d. Inhibiting blood clotting

A

Answer: a. Inducing platelet aggregation

48
Q

Question 42:

Question: PAF is more potent than histamine in which aspect of inflammation?
Options:
a. Initiating blood clotting
b. Inducing vasodilation
c. Triggering bronchoconstriction
d. Recruiting immune cells

A

Answer: d. Recruiting immune cells

49
Q

Prostaglandins:

Question 43:

Question: Prostaglandins are produced by the action of which enzyme on arachidonic acid?
Options:
a. Phospholipase A2
b. Lipoxygenase
c. Cyclo-oxygenase (COX)
d. Prostaglandin synthase

A

Answer: c. Cyclo-oxygenase (COX)

50
Q

Question 44:

Question: What is the primary role of prostaglandins in inflammation?
Options:
a. Inhibiting neutrophil chemotaxis
b. Reducing vascular permeability
c. Suppressing pain perception
d. Increasing vascular permeability

A

Answer: d. Increasing vascular permeability

51
Q

Question 45:

Question: Which of the following is responsible for the synthesis and release of interleukin-1 (IL-1) when it binds to macrophages?
Options:
a. TNF-α
b. IL-4
c. PAF
d. COX-2

A

Answer: a. TNF-α

52
Q

Question 46:

Question: What is the primary role of TNF-α in the body?
Options:
a. Reducing body temperature
b. Increasing blood sugar levels
c. Inducing muscle growth
d. Promoting inflammation and fever

A

Answer: d. Promoting inflammation and fever

53
Q

Interleukins:

Question 47:

Question: Which cells primarily produce interleukins (ILs) in response to Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) or other cytokines?
Options:
a. Red blood cells
b. Neutrophils
c. Macrophages and lymphocytes
d. Platelets

A

Answer: c. Macrophages and lymphocytes

54
Q

Question 48:

Question: What is the primary function of interleukins (ILs) regarding the innate and adaptive immune responses?
Options:
a. Enhancing blood clotting
b. Inhibiting the production of adhesion molecules
c. Attracting leukocytes to sites of inflammation
d. Promoting bacterial growth

A

Answer: c. Attracting leukocytes to sites of inflammation

55
Q

Question 49:

Question: Which interleukins trigger the overall inflammatory process and call for reinforcements in the vasculature?
Options:
a. IL-1 and IL-6
b. IL-2 and IL-3
c. IL-4 and IL-5
d. IL-12 and IL-13

A

Answer: a. IL-1 and IL-6

56
Q

Question 50:

Question: What role does interleukin 6 (IL-6) play in the body?
Options:
a. Induces bronchoconstriction
b. Promotes blood clotting
c. Increases body temperature
d. Stimulates wound healing and growth of fibroblasts

A

Answer: d. Stimulates wound healing and growth of fibroblasts

57
Q

Dendritic Cells:

Question 52:

Question: What is the primary location where dendritic cells are found in the body?
Options:
a. Brain
b. Bone marrow
c. Peripheral organs and skin
d. Lungs

A

Answer: c. Peripheral organs and skin

58
Q

Interferons:

Question 51:

Question: What is the primary role of interferons (IFNs) in the body, especially type II interferon (IFN-γ)?
Options:
a. Directly killing viruses
b. Inhibiting bacterial growth
c. Enhancing the development of acquired immune responses against viruses
d. Reducing inflammation

A

Answer: c. Enhancing the development of acquired immune responses against viruses

59
Q

Question 53:

Question: What is the primary function of dendritic cells related to the immune response?
Options:
a. Initiating blood clotting
b. Regulating vascular mediators
c. Linking innate and adaptive immune responses
d. Producing growth factors for wound healing

A

Answer: c. Linking innate and adaptive immune responses

60
Q

Phagocytes:

Question 54:

Question: What is the main role of neutrophils during early inflammation?
Options:
a. Producing antibodies
b. Regulating vascular mediators
c. Debris removal and bacteria destruction
d. Initiating wound repair

A

Answer: c. Debris removal and bacteria destruction

61
Q

Question 55:

Question: What is the primary role of eosinophils in the immune system?
Options:
a. Initiating inflammation
b. Defending against parasites
c. Attracting neutrophils
d. Promoting angiogenesis

A

Answer: b. Defending against parasites

62
Q

Question 56:

Question: What is the primary role of basophils?
Options:
a. Regulating vascular mediators
b. Producing IL-4
c. Initiating inflammation
d. Initiating wound repair

A

Answer: b. Producing IL-4

63
Q

Question 57:

Question: What type of cells produce specific cytokines to direct the maturation of T-helper cells, which oversee the development of functional B and T cells?
Options:
a. Red blood cells
b. Dendritic cells
c. Basophils
d. Macrophages

A

Answer: b. Dendritic cells

64
Q

Differences Between Neutrophils and Macrophages:

Question 58:

Question: Which type of white blood cell is faster?
Options:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages

A

Answer: a. Neutrophils

65
Q

Question 59:

Question: Which type of white blood cell can survive and divide?
Options:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages

A

Answer: b. Macrophages

66
Q

Question 60:

Question: What is the primary difference in chemotactic factors that attract neutrophils and macrophages?
Options:
a. They are attracted by the same substances.
b. Neutrophils are attracted by bacteria, while macrophages are attracted by viruses.
c. Different substances attract them.
d. They are not attracted by any substances.

A

Answer: c. Different substances attract them

67
Q

Mechanisms of Phagocytosis:

Question 61:

Question: What is the first step in the process of phagocytosis?
Options:
a. Destruction of the target
b. Recognition and adherence of phagocyte to target
c. Engulfment (ingestion)
d. Formation of a phagosome

A

Answer: b. Recognition and adherence of phagocyte to target

68
Q

Question 62:

Question: What is the last step in the process of phagocytosis?
Options:
a. Recognition and adherence of phagocyte to target
b. Formation of a phagosome
c. Engulfment (ingestion)
d. Destruction of the target

A

Answer: d. Destruction of the target

69
Q

Mechanisms of Microbial Killing:

Question 63:

Question: Which of the following is an oxygen-dependent mechanism of microbial killing?
Options:
a. Acidic pH of phagolysosome
b. Cationic proteins
c. Production of toxic oxygen species like superoxide
d. Bacterial growth inhibition

A

Answer: c. Production of toxic oxygen species like superoxide

70
Q

Release & Effects of Dead Phagocytes:

Question 64:

Question: What role do inhibitors play regarding dead phagocytes?
Options:
a. They promote tissue damage.
b. They do not affect dead phagocytes.
c. They release their contents.
d. They minimize tissue damage.

A

Answer: d. They minimize tissue damage

71
Q

Role in Immune Response:

Question 65:

Question: Which type of phagocyte plays a role in activating the adaptive immune system?
Options:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Both neutrophils and macrophages
d. None of the above

A

Answer: b. Macrophages

72
Q

Local and Systemic Manifestations of Inflammation:

Question 66:

Question: Which manifestation of local acute inflammation results from the accumulation of exudate and pressure exerted by it?
Options:
a. Swelling
b. Heat
c. Erythema
d. Pain

A

Answer: a. Swelling

73
Q

Question 67:

Question: What is the primary cause of increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) during inflammation?
Options:
a. Increased production of antibodies
b. Increased levels of circulating plasma proteins
c. Increased adhesion between erythrocytes
d. Increased levels of red blood cells

A

Answer: c. Increased adhesion between erythrocytes

74
Q

Question 68:

Question: Why is C-reactive protein (CRP) a preferred marker for inflammation in clinical practice?
Options:
a. It has greater specificity and sensitivity than ESR.
b. It measures the number of leukocytes in the blood.
c. It has a higher degree of erythrocyte sedimentation.
d. It can be used to diagnose the cause of inflammation directly.

A

Answer: a. It has greater specificity and sensitivity than ESR.

75
Q

Acute vs. Chronic Inflammation:

Question 69:

Question: Which type of inflammation is typically self-limiting and resolves upon threat elimination?
Options:
a. Acute inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation

A

Answer: a. Acute inflammation

76
Q

Question 70:

Question: How long does acute inflammation typically last?
Options:
a. 2 weeks or longer
b. 8 to 10 days

A

Answer: b. 8 to 10 days

77
Q

Question 71:

Question: Which type of inflammation often leads to tissue damage and may result from persistent infections or foreign objects?
Options:
a. Acute inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation

A

Answer: b. Chronic inflammation

78
Q

Question 72:

Question: What is a characteristic feature of chronic inflammation?
Options:
a. Rapid onset of local manifestations
b. Granuloma formation
c. Self-limiting nature
d. Resolution within 2 weeks

A

Answer: b. Granuloma formation

79
Q

Question 73:

Question: Which of the following is a systemic manifestation typically associated with acute inflammation but not with chronic inflammation?
Options:
a. Granuloma formation
b. Increased plasma proteins
c. Leukocytosis (increased white blood cells)
d. Fever

A

Answer: d. Fever

80
Q

Three Phases of Wound Healing:

Question 74:

Question: During which phase of wound healing does inflammation transition to healing and the fibrin mesh acts as a scaffold for cells?
Options:
a. Phase 1: Inflammation
b. Phase 2: Proliferation and New Tissue Formation
c. Phase 3: Remodeling and Maturation

A

Answer: a. Phase 1: Inflammation

81
Q

Question 75:

Question: Which cells are involved in the proliferation phase and are responsible for synthesizing collagen and promoting angiogenesis?
Options:
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Eosinophils
d. Lymphocytes

A

Answer: a. Macrophages

82
Q

Question 76:

Question: During which phase of wound healing does tissue remodeling and maturation begin?
Options:
a. Phase 1: Inflammation
b. Phase 2: Proliferation and New Tissue Formation
c. Phase 3: Remodeling and Maturation

A

Answer: c. Phase 3: Remodeling and Maturation

83
Q

Dysfunction Associated with Healing:

Question 77:

Question: Which of the following can cause excessive scarring and adhesions in the healing process?
Options:
a. Adequate nutrients
b. Ischemia
c. Excessive bleeding
d. Infection

A

Answer: c. Excessive bleeding

84
Q

Question 78:

Question: Which condition results in raised, invasive scar tissue that is likely to recur after removal?
Options:
a. Hypertrophic scar
b. Keloid
c. Granuloma
d. Abscess

A

Answer: b. Keloid

85
Q

Question 79:

Question: Which of the following is a common complication of sutured wounds where the wound pulls apart at the suture line?
Options:
a. Ischemia
b. Keloid formation
c. Dehiscence
d. Granuloma formation

A

Answer: c. Dehiscence

86
Q

Aged-Related Factors Affecting Innate Immunity in Geriatric Population:

Question 80:

Question: What is the impact of aging on the number of immune cells in the geriatric population?
Options:
a. Increased number of immune cells
b. Reduced number of immune cells

A

Answer: b. Reduced number of immune cells

87
Q

Question 81:

Question: What is one consequence of aging on phagocytic activity and cytokine release in the geriatric population?
Options:
a. Enhanced phagocytic activity
b. Decreased phagocytic activity and cytokine release

A

Answer: b. Decreased phagocytic activity and cytokine release

88
Q

Question 82:

Question: Which of the following comorbidities can increase the risk of impaired healing and infection in the geriatric population?
Options:
a. Perfect vision
b. Peripheral vascular disease

A

Answer: b. Peripheral vascular disease

89
Q

Question 83:

Question: What impact does medication like NSAIDs and steroids have on wound healing in the geriatric population?
Options:
a. Accelerate wound healing
b. Impede wound healing

A

Answer: b. Impede wound healing

90
Q

Question 84:

Question: How does the loss of subcutaneous tissue in the geriatric population affect their vulnerability to injury?
Options:
a. Increases protection from injury
b. Decreases protection from injury

A

Answer: b. Decreases protection from injury

91
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) Pathophysiology and Clinical Manifestations:

Question 85:

Question: What is the main characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
Options:
a. It is an infectious disease
b. It is an autoimmune disease

A

Answer: b. It is an autoimmune disease

92
Q

Question 86:

Question: Which type of cells are activated by an unknown antigenic agent in the pathophysiology of RA?
Options:
a. B cells
b. T cells

A

Answer: b. T cells

93
Q

Question 87:

Question: What is the primary role of T cells in the pathophysiology of RA?
Options:
a. Directly destroy joint tissue
b. Stimulate synovial macrophages and fibroblasts

A

Answer: b. Stimulate synovial macrophages and fibroblasts

94
Q

Question 88:

Question: Which cellular activity leads to the formation of a “pannus” in RA?
Options:
a. Fibroblasts attacking articular cartilage
b. Proliferation of osteoclasts

A

Answer: a. Fibroblasts attacking articular cartilage

95
Q

Question 89:

Question: What is the role of B cells in RA?
Options:
a. Decrease the rate of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) production
b. Increase the rate of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) production

A

Answer: b. Increase the rate of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) production

96
Q

Question 90:

Question: In RA, what happens when Rheumatoid Factors (RF) bind with their self-antigens?
Options:
a. They form immune complexes
b. They enhance joint healing

A

Answer: a. They form immune complexes

Pathophysiology + Pharm (18 decks)

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