Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology + Pharm > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Question: What is B12 anemia?
A) A type of autoimmune disease
B) A type of macrocytic anemia
C) A bacterial infection
D) A skin condition

A

Answer: B) A type of macrocytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Question: What is the role of B12 in erythropoiesis?
A) It regulates heart rate
B) It stimulates brain function
C) It enhances the immune system
D) It is a nutritional requirement for the formation of red blood cells (RBCs)

A

Answer: D) It is a nutritional requirement for the formation of red blood cells (RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Question: What does B12 contribute to in the body?
A) Synthesis of DNA
B) Synthesis of RNA
C) Regulation of blood pressure
D) Formation of bones

A

Answer: A) Synthesis of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Question: What happens when there is a deficiency of B12 in the body?
A) DNA synthesis and cell division continue normally
B) RNA replication is impaired
C) Hemoglobin synthesis is blocked
D) DNA synthesis and cell division are delayed

A

Answer: D) DNA synthesis and cell division are delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Question: What is the consequence of asynchronous development in B12 deficiency?
A) Formation of small erythrocytes
B) Overproduction of hemoglobin
C) Normal-sized erythrocytes
D) Decreased hemoglobin production

A

Answer: B) Overproduction of hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Question: What is pernicious anemia characterized by?
A) Deficiency of red blood cells
B) Excess iron absorption
C) Absence of intrinsic factor (IF)
D) Overproduction of intrinsic factor (IF)

A

Answer: C) Absence of intrinsic factor (IF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Question: What causes B12 anemia?
A) Excessive dietary intake of B12-rich foods
B) Inability of the gut to absorb B12
C) Lack of iron in the diet
D) Overproduction of intrinsic factor

A

Answer: B) Inability of the gut to absorb B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Question: What is the consequence of B12 deficiency when intrinsic factor is lacking?
A) Increased B12 absorption
B) Rapid excretion of B12
C) Poor quality RBCs, often macrocytic
D) Enhanced neuronal function

A

Answer: C) Poor quality RBCs, often macrocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Question: What is the treatment for B12 anemia caused by insufficient dietary intake?
A) Subcutaneous injections
B) Boost dietary intake of B12-rich foods
C) High-dose oral replacement
D) Blood transfusions

A

Answer: B) Boost dietary intake of B12-rich foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Question: What is the primary source of B12 in the diet?
A) Fruits and vegetables
B) Animal meat, dairy products, and eggs
C) Grains and cereals
D) Legumes and nuts

A

Answer: B) Animal meat, dairy products, and eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Question: What is another name for “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Iron-Deficiency Anemia
D) Anemia of chronic inflammation

A

Answer: D) Anemia of chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Question: How is “Anemia of Chronic Disease” categorized in terms of cell size and hemoglobin content?
A) Microcytic-hypochromic
B) Macrocytic-hyperchromic
C) Normocytic-normochromic
D) Hypercytic-hypochromic

A

Answer: C) Normocytic-normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Question: Which of the following is NOT a type of normocytic-normochromic anemia?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Iron-deficiency anemia
D) Anemia of chronic disease

A

Answer: C) Iron-deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Question: What conditions are associated with “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Allergic reactions
B) Heart disease
C) Chronic infections, chronic inflammatory diseases, and malignancies
D) Neurological disorders

A

Answer: C) Chronic infections, chronic inflammatory diseases, and malignancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Question: What is the primary cause of “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Iron overload
B) Chronic inflammation
C) Vitamin deficiency
D) Genetic mutations

A

Answer: B) Chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Question: What is the mechanism of disease in “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Increased erythrocyte life span
B) Enhanced iron absorption
C) Dysregulation of iron homeostasis and cytokine involvement
D) Overproduction of erythropoietin

A

Answer: C) Dysregulation of iron homeostasis and cytokine involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Question: Which cytokine inhibits the production of erythropoietin in the kidney and promotes the degradation of RBCs?
A) TNF-a (tumor necrosis factor alpha)
B) IFN-y (interferon gamma)
C) IL-10
D) IL-6

A

Answer: A) TNF-a (tumor necrosis factor alpha)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Question: What is the primary treatment approach for “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Blood transfusions
B) Iron supplementation
C) No treatment unless symptomatic
D) Erythropoietin injections

A

Answer: C) No treatment unless symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Question: What is the typical clinical manifestation of “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Severe fatigue and weakness
B) Cardiovascular symptoms
C) Fewer and milder symptoms compared to other anemias
D) Neurological deficits

A

Answer: C) Fewer and milder symptoms compared to other anemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Question: Why do individuals with “Anemia of Chronic Disease” tend to have adequate hemoglobin levels despite their anemia?
A) They have a higher rate of erythropoiesis
B) They receive frequent blood transfusions
C) Chronic disease limits physical activity
D) They have a genetic predisposition for higher hemoglobin levels

A

Answer: C) Chronic disease limits physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Question: What is the term for abnormally small erythrocytes due to a lack of hemoglobin?
A) Macrocytic
B) Hypochromic
C) Microcytic
D) Normocytic

A

Answer: C) Microcytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Question: What is the characteristic of erythrocytes in hypochromic anemia?
A) Abnormally large erythrocytes
B) Reduced hemoglobin content in erythrocytes
C) High hemoglobin content in erythrocytes
D) Increased erythrocyte count

A

Answer: B) Reduced hemoglobin content in erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Question: What is the most common type of anemia in both developed and developing countries?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Iron-deficiency anemia
D) Hereditary anemia

A

Answer: C) Iron-deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Question: What happens when there is not enough iron available for hemoglobin synthesis?
A) Erythrocyte production continues normally with normal hemoglobin content
B) Erythrocyte production is halted
C) Erythrocytes become larger in size
D) Hemoglobin content of erythrocytes increases

A

Answer: A) Erythrocyte production continues normally with normal hemoglobin content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Question: Which population groups are at a higher risk of iron deficiency anemia?
A) Elderly individuals
B) Adolescents
C) Childbearing age women and children
D) Athletes

A

Answer: C) Childbearing age women and children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Question: What is the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia in females?
A) Gastrointestinal disorders
B) Menorrhagia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Iron-rich diet

A

Answer: B) Menorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Question: In which stage of iron deficiency anemia do hemoglobin-deficient red blood cells enter circulation, leading to clinical manifestations?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4

A

Answer: C) Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Question: What are early symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?
A) Koilonychia and glossitis
B) Numbness and tingling
C) Fatigue, weakness, and pale skin
D) Mental confusion and memory loss

A

Answer: C) Fatigue, weakness, and pale skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Question: What is a sensitive indicator for heme synthesis used to evaluate iron deficiency anemia?
A) Serum ferritin levels
B) Transferrin saturation
C) Total iron binding capacity
D) Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)

A

Answer: D) Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Question: What is the first step in treating iron deficiency anemia?
A) Blood transfusion
B) Eliminating the source of blood loss
C) Parenteral iron replacement
D) Dietary modifications

A

Answer: B) Eliminating the source of blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Question: What is the genetic mutation that characterizes Sickle Cell Disease by replacing one amino acid with another in hemoglobin?
A) Valine replaces glutamine
B) Glutamine replaces valine
C) Hemoglobin S replaces hemoglobin A
D) Hemoglobin A replaces hemoglobin S

A

Answer: A) Valine replaces glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Question: Under what conditions does hemoglobin S polymerize, leading to sickling of red blood cells?
A) High oxygenation and hydration
B) Low oxygenation and dehydration
C) Low oxygenation and high blood pH
D) High oxygenation and stress

A

Answer: B) Low oxygenation and dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Question: What triggers the sickling process in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?
A) Increased oxygen levels
B) High blood pH
C) Dehydration and decreased oxygen
D) Acute illness and temperature changes

A

Answer: D) Acute illness and temperature changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Question: What is the primary consequence of sickled red blood cells clogging blood vessels?
A) Increased blood circulation
B) Decreased viscosity of blood
C) Pain, vascular occlusion, and organ infarction
D) Improved oxygen delivery to tissues

A

Answer: C) Pain, vascular occlusion, and organ infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Question: Which type of crisis occurs when the spleen holds a large amount of blood due to hemolysis of sickled red blood cells?
A) Aplastic crisis
B) Sequestration crisis
C) Hyperhemolytic crisis
D) Vaso-occlusive crisis

A

Answer: B) Sequestration crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Question: In which crisis does the bone marrow fail to begin erythropoiesis despite the body needing more erythrocytes?
A) Aplastic crisis
B) Sequestration crisis
C) Hyperhemolytic crisis
D) Vaso-occlusive crisis

A

Answer: A) Aplastic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Question: What is the consequence of vaso-occlusion in the brain for individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?
A) Increased oxygenation of brain tissues
B) Improved cognitive function
C) Stroke
D) Improved memory

A

Answer: C) Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Question: What type of anemia is typically associated with Sickle Cell Disease?
A) Microcytic-hypochromic
B) Macrocytic-normochromic
C) Normocytic-normochromic
D) Hypochromic-normocytic

A

Answer: C) Normocytic-normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Question: What triggers the sickling process in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?
A) Increased oxygen levels
B) High blood pH
C) Dehydration and decreased oxygen
D) Acute illness and temperature changes

A

Answer: D) Acute illness and temperature changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Question: What is the consequence of sickled red blood cells having a lower oxygen affinity?
A) Improved oxygen delivery to tissues
B) Increased viscosity of blood
C) Reduced intracellular pH
D) Increased erythrocyte longevity

A

Answer: B) Increased viscosity of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Question: What is the primary factor influencing iron absorption?
A) Erythropoietin
B) Tissue oxygenation
C) Iron stores
D) Hemoglobin levels

A

Answer: C) Iron stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Question: Which type of anemia can be caused by iron overload, either primary or secondary?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Sideroblastic anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Normocytic anemia

A

D) Normocytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Question: What is the treatment for iron overload in cases of low to moderate anemia?
A) Therapeutic phlebotomy for iron depletion
B) Iron supplementation
C) Erythropoietin therapy
D) Blood transfusion

A

Answer: A) Therapeutic phlebotomy for iron depletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Question: What medication is used to treat iron overload in severe anemia without decreasing the effectiveness of transfusions?
A) Erythropoietin
B) Iron supplementation
C) Deferoxamine (iron chelating medication)
D) Therapeutic phlebotomy

A

Answer: C) Deferoxamine (iron chelating medication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Question: What is the initial compensation for a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
A) Decreased plasma volume
B) Movement of interstitial fluid out of the blood
C) Increase in blood viscosity
D) Decreased heart rate

A

Answer: B) Movement of interstitial fluid out of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Question: What is the consequence of “thinner” blood flowing faster and with more turbulence?
A) Decreased stroke volume
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Hyperdynamic circulatory state
D) Increased blood viscosity

A

Answer: C) Hyperdynamic circulatory state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Question: What cardiovascular changes can occur due to the hyperdynamic circulatory state caused by anemia?
A) Decreased stroke volume
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Cardiac dilation and heart valve insufficiency
D) Increased blood viscosity

A

Answer: C) Cardiac dilation and heart valve insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Question: What is the consequence of reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood?
A) Increased oxygen delivery to tissues
B) Ischemia
C) Improved tissue oxygenation
D) Decreased heart rate

A

Answer: B) Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Question: What is a common symptom experienced by individuals with anemia due to the body’s attempt to increase oxygen intake?
A) Decreased respiration rate
B) Decreased respiration depth
C) Exertional dyspnea
D) Reduced heart rate

A

Answer: C) Exertional dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Question: How does the body respond to tissue hypoxia caused by anemia?
A) By decreasing the rate and depth of respiration
B) By reducing the release of oxygen from hemoglobin
C) By increasing the rate and depth of respiration
D) By slowing down the heart rate

A

Answer: C) By increasing the rate and depth of respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Question: What can anemia-induced tissue hypoxia lead to in terms of symptoms?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Decreased respiration rate
C) Reduced dizziness
D) Improved fatigue

A

Answer: A) Increased heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Question: What is a common symptom of anemia related to tissue hypoxia?
A) Rapid and pounding heart rate
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Increased energy levels
D) Decreased rate and depth of respiration

A

Answer: A) Rapid and pounding heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Question: What does a Complete Blood Count (CBC) measure?
A) Red blood cells and white blood cells only
B) Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets only
C) Red blood cells, white blood cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelets
D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit only

A

Answer: C) Red blood cells, white blood cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Question: What does MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) measure in terms of red blood cells?
A) Their size
B) Their color
C) Their oxygen-carrying capacity
D) Their shape

A

Answer: A) Their size

51
Q

Question: What term is used to describe small-sized red blood cells with an MCV of less than 80?
A) Normocytic
B) Hyperchromic
C) Hypochromic
D) Microcytic

A

Answer: D) Microcytic

52
Q

Question: What term is used to describe red blood cells with a normal size and an MCV of 80-95?
A) Hyperchromic
B) Microcytic
C) Normocytic
D) Hypochromic

A

Answer: C) Normocytic

53
Q

Question: What term describes red blood cells with a very red color and high hemoglobin content?
A) Microcytic
B) Hypochromic
C) Hyperchromic
D) Normochromic

A

Answer: C) Hyperchromic

54
Q

Question: Which type of anemia is characterized by small-sized and pale red blood cells with low ferritin levels?
A) B12 anemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Anemia of chronic disease
D) Folate anemia

A

Answer: B) Iron deficiency anemia

55
Q

Question: What is the cause of B12 anemia?
A) Lack of intrinsic factor (IF)
B) Dietary intake of iron
C) Chronic inflammation or cancer
D) Lack of folate in the diet

A

Answer: A) Lack of intrinsic factor (IF)

56
Q

Question: What type of anemia is characterized by large, abnormally shaped red blood cells with normal hemoglobin levels?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Folate anemia
C) B12 anemia
D) Anemia of chronic disease

A

Answer: C) B12 anemia

57
Q

Question: Which type of anemia is associated with a lack of folate in the diet and affects RNA and DNA synthesis of red blood cells?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Folate anemia
C) B12 anemia
D) Sickle cell anemia

A

Answer: B) Folate anemia

58
Q

Question: What type of anemia is characterized by abnormal “sickle” cell shapes in red blood cells and dysfunction of hemoglobin synthesis?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) Anemia of chronic disease

A

Answer: A) Sickle cell anemia

59
Q

Question: Which type of anemia is associated with a congenital genetic defect of alpha and beta globin synthesis and results in microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) B12 anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) Anemia of chronic disease

A

Answer: C) Thalassemia

60
Q

Question: What is defined by vasoconstriction and platelet plug formation in response to blood vessel damage?
A) Secondary hemostasis
B) Tertiary hemostasis
C) Primary Hemostasis
D) Quaternary hemostasis

A

Answer: C) Primary Hemostasis

61
Q

Question: What are the three mechanisms that lead to vasoconstriction during primary hemostasis?
A) Endothelin release, myogenic reflex, and nociceptor activation
B) Platelet aggregation, ADP secretion, and serotonin release
C) Fibrinogen activation, glycoprotein IIb-IIIa expression, and vWf binding
D) Hemoglobin release, muscle contraction, and endothelial cell activation

A

Answer: A) Endothelin release, myogenic reflex, and nociceptor activation

62
Q

Question: What is the function of “von Willebrand factor” (vWf) in platelet plug formation?
A) It activates the coagulation cascade
B) It binds platelets to exposed collagen
C) It secretes ADP and TXA2
D) It inhibits platelet aggregation

A

Answer: B) It binds platelets to exposed collagen

63
Q

Question: Which receptor on platelets binds directly to collagen during platelet plug formation?
A) GPIIb/IIIa
B) GPIb
C) GPllb/llla
D) vWf receptor

A

Answer: B) GPIb

64
Q

Question: What happens when platelets are activated during platelet plug formation?
A) They secrete ADP, TXA2, and serotonin
B) They become inactive and detach from collagen
C) They release fibrinogen
D) They undergo apoptosis

A

Answer: A) They secrete ADP, TXA2, and serotonin

65
Q

Question: What is the role of fibrinogen in platelet aggregation?
A) It activates platelets
B) It inhibits platelet aggregation
C) It acts as a “glue molecule” between platelets
D) It causes vasoconstriction

A

Answer: C) It acts as a “glue molecule” between platelets

66
Q

Question: What does the aggregation of platelets create during primary hemostasis?
A) A positive charge on the phospholipid layer
B) A neutral charge on the phospholipid layer
C) A NET NEGATIVE CHARGE on the phospholipid layer
D) An increase in blood viscosity

A

Answer: C) A NET NEGATIVE CHARGE on the phospholipid layer

67
Q

Question: What is the role of tissue factor in thrombus formation?
A) It promotes platelet aggregation
B) It activates the fibrinolytic system
C) It prevents platelet adhesion
D) It collaborates with platelet factors to activate the coagulation system

A

Answer: D) It collaborates with platelet factors to activate the coagulation system

68
Q

Question: Where can arterial thrombi typically form, and what are they composed of?
A) In veins, composed mainly of RBCs
B) In arteries, composed of platelet aggregates held together with fibrin strands
C) In veins, composed of platelet aggregates
D) In arteries, composed mainly of RBCs

A

Answer: B) In arteries, composed of platelet aggregates held together with fibrin strands

69
Q

Question: What can thrombi that break off from vessel walls and float in circulation become?
A) Plaque formation
B) Emboli
C) Clotting factors
D) Hemorrhagic complications

A

Answer: B) Emboli

70
Q

Question: How can thrombi or emboli affect tissues and cells in the circulatory system?
A) By causing hypertension
B) By promoting plaque formation
C) By blocking small vessels, leading to ischemia
D) By increasing blood flow

A

Answer: C) By blocking small vessels, leading to ischemia

71
Q

Question: Which treatment option is used for thrombus prevention and management?
A) Hypertension medication
B) Antiplatelet drugs
C) Anticoagulants like heparin and warfarin
D) Pain relievers

A

Answer: C) Anticoagulants like heparin and warfarin

72
Q

Question: What is the role of tPA, uPA, and streptokinase in thrombus management?
A) They activate the coagulation system
B) They promote platelet aggregation
C) They activate the fibrinolytic system to break up clots
D) They increase blood viscosity

A

Answer: C) They activate the fibrinolytic system to break up clots

73
Q

Question: What is Virchow’s triad, and what factors does it encompass?
A) A musical composition, three types of instruments
B) A weather phenomenon, temperature, humidity, and wind speed
C) Factors that increase the risk of spontaneous thrombi formation, including injury to blood vessel endothelium, abnormalities in blood flow, and hypercoagulability
D) A type of food, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats

A

Answer: C) Factors that increase the risk of spontaneous thrombi formation, including injury to blood vessel endothelium, abnormalities in blood flow, and hypercoagulability

74
Q

Question: What is the pathophysiology of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)?
A) It is characterized by autoantibodies against platelets
B) It primarily affects males
C) Autoantibodies react with plasma membrane phospholipids and phospholipid-binding proteins, increasing the risk of thrombosis
D) It is not associated with thrombosis

A

Answer: C) Autoantibodies react with plasma membrane phospholipids and phospholipid-binding proteins, increasing the risk of thrombosis

75
Q

Question: What is the mechanism of action of ASA (acetylsalicylic acid)?
A) Selective inhibition of COX-2
B) Reversible inhibition of COX-1
C) Non-selective inhibition of COX-1
D) Activation of COX-1

A

Answer: C) Non-selective inhibition of COX-1

76
Q

Question: What is the primary indication for using ASA?
A) Allergy relief
B) Hypertension
C) Prevention of platelet aggregation
D) Treatment of bacterial infections

A

Answer: C) Prevention of platelet aggregation

77
Q

Question: What adverse effect is associated with chronic ASA use?
A) Hypertension
B) Acid reflux
C) Occult GI blood loss leading to anemia
D) Allergic reactions

A

Answer: C) Occult GI blood loss leading to anemia

78
Q

Question: In what special population is ASA contraindicated due to the risk of Reye syndrome?
A) Elderly individuals
B) Pregnant women
C) Children under 18 years old
D) Smokers

A

Answer: C) Children under 18 years old

79
Q

Question: When should ASA be held before elective surgery and childbirth?
A) 24 hours prior
B) 3 days prior
C) 1 week prior
D) It does not need to be held before surgery or childbirth

A

Answer: C) 1 week prior

80
Q

Question: In which condition might ASA use be justified despite the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding?
A) Mild headache
B) Risk of myocardial infarction (MI)
C) Mild toothache
D) Seasonal allergies

A

Answer: B) Risk of myocardial infarction (MI)

81
Q

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Unfractionated Heparin?
A) Inactivation of factor Xa
B) Binding with antithrombin to inactivate thrombin
C) Activation of platelets
D) Stimulation of red blood cell production

A

Answer: B) Binding with antithrombin to inactivate thrombin

82
Q

Question: What is a common adverse effect of Unfractionated Heparin?
A) Hypertension
B) Osteoporosis
C) Elevated cholesterol levels
D) Blurred vision

A

Answer: B) Osteoporosis

83
Q

Question: In which population is Unfractionated Heparin preferred due to its inability to cross the placenta?
A) Pregnant women
B) Elderly patients
C) Children
D) Athletes

A

Answer: A) Pregnant women

84
Q

Question: What is the primary monitoring parameter for Unfractionated Heparin therapy?
A) Blood pressure
B) Blood glucose levels
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Serum creatinine

A

Answer: C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

85
Q

Question: What is the antidote for Unfractionated Heparin?
A) Insulin
B) Aspirin
C) Warfarin
D) Protamine

A

Answer: D) Protamine

86
Q

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Fragmented Heparin (Low molecular weight)?
A) Activation of platelets
B) Inactivation of thrombin
C) Inactivation of factor Xa
D) Stimulation of red blood cell production

A

Answer: C) Inactivation of factor Xa

87
Q

Question: What is a common adverse effect of Fragmented Heparin (Low molecular weight)?
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Osteoporosis
C) Dizziness
D) Hemorrhage

A

Answer: D) Hemorrhage

88
Q

Question: In which condition should Low molecular weight heparins be avoided?
A) Hemodialysis
B) Venous thromboembolism (VTE)
C) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) <30 ml/min
D) Non-ST elevation acute coronary syndrome

A

Answer: C) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) <30 ml/min

89
Q

Question: What is the primary monitoring approach for Low molecular weight heparins?
A) Regular blood pressure checks
B) Continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring
C) Fixed dosage without laboratory monitoring
D) Frequent blood glucose testing

A

Answer: C) Fixed dosage without laboratory monitoring

90
Q

Question: What is the antidote for Low molecular weight heparins?
A) Vitamin K
B) Insulin
C) Aspirin
D) Protamine

A

Answer: D) Protamine

91
Q

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Activation of platelets
B) Suppression of coagulation by decreasing vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
C) Inhibition of blood vessel constriction
D) Promotion of platelet aggregation

A

Answer: B) Suppression of coagulation by decreasing vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

92
Q

Question: Which condition is a common indication for Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Atrial Fibrillation
D) Migraine

A

Answer: C) Atrial Fibrillation

93
Q

Question: What is the primary adverse effect of Warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Hypertension
B) Increased risk for heart attacks
C) Hemorrhage/increased risk for bleeding
D) Gastrointestinal ulcers

A

Answer: C) Hemorrhage/increased risk for bleeding

94
Q

Question: What is the recommended range for the INR (international normalized ratio) in most patients receiving Warfarin therapy?
A) 1.3-1.5
B) 3-5
C) 0.5-0.7
D) 2-3

A

Answer: D) 2-3

95
Q

Question: What is the antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin) overdose?
A) Aspirin
B) Insulin
C) Protamine
D) Vitamin K

A

Answer: D) Vitamin K

96
Q

Question: What is the primary use of NOACs (Novel Oral Anticoagulants)?
A) Reducing blood pressure
B) Reducing blood glucose levels
C) Reducing the risk of stroke and blood clots in non-valvular atrial fibrillation
D) Treating bacterial infections

A

Answer: C) Reducing the risk of stroke and blood clots in non-valvular atrial fibrillation

97
Q

Question: What is the onset of action for NOACs?
A) Delayed (several days)
B) Rapid (hours)
C) Prolonged (weeks)
D) Variable

A

Answer: B) Rapid (hours)

98
Q

Question: What is the primary advantage of NOACs over traditional anticoagulants?
A) Fixed dosage
B) Requires frequent blood tests
C) Long duration of action
D) High protein binding

A

Answer: A) Fixed dosage

99
Q

Question: What is the antidote available for NOACs in cases of overdose?
A) Andexanet alfa
B) Vitamin K
C) Insulin
D) Protamine

A

Answer: A) Andexanet alfa

100
Q

Question: What is the suggested dosing for Andexanet alfa in cases of life-threatening or uncontrolled bleeding due to NOAC use?
A) 100 mg IV bolus
B) 400 mg IV bolus followed by 408 mg/min infusion
C) 800 mg oral dose
D) No antidote available

A

Answer: B) 400 mg IV bolus followed by 408 mg/min infusion

101
Q

Question: What is the mechanism of action of Dabigatran?
A) Inhibition of factor Xa
B) Inhibition of antithrombin
C) Inhibition of factor IIa (thrombin)
D) Inhibition of factor XIII

A

Answer: C) Inhibition of factor IIa (thrombin)

102
Q

Question: What is the primary adverse effect associated with Dabigatran?
A) Hypertension
B) Hypercholesterolemia
C) Risk of bleeding
D) Gastric ulcers

A

Answer: C) Risk of bleeding

103
Q

Question: What is the antidote for Dabigatran in cases of overdose?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine
C) Idarucizumab
D) Activated charcoal

A

Answer: C) Idarucizumab

104
Q

Question: In what patients is Dabigatran contraindicated due to renal function?
A) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) > 50 ml/minute
B) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 30 ml/minute
C) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) > 100 ml/minute
D) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) between 30-50 ml/minute

A

Answer: B) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 30 ml/minute

105
Q

Question: Which of the following is an advantage of Dabigatran over Warfarin?
A) Delayed onset
B) Requires routine monitoring
C) Numerous drug-drug interactions
D) Lower risk of major bleeding

A

Answer: D) Lower risk of major bleeding

106
Q

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action for iron when it is absorbed by mucosal cells of the small intestine?
A) Stored as ferritin within the mucosal cells
B) Transported in the bloodstream as hemoglobin
C) Stored in the brain
D) Excreted from the body through the kidneys

A

Answer: A) Stored as ferritin within the mucosal cells

107
Q

Question: What is the recommended dose of regular-release ferrous sulfate for iron deficiency anemia?
A) 50 mg
B) 100 mg
C) 200 mg
D) 60-65 mg of elemental iron

A

Answer: D) 60-65 mg of elemental iron

108
Q

Question: What are common side effects associated with iron supplementation?
A) Increased energy
B) Headache
C) Nausea, heartburn, constipation, bloating or diarrhea
D) Improved vision

A

Answer: C) Nausea, heartburn, constipation, bloating, or diarrhea

109
Q

Question: In which special population should iron supplementation be avoided, particularly when they receive frequent blood transfusions?
A) Children
B) Pregnant women
C) Elderly adults
D) Athletes

A

Answer: C) Elderly adults

110
Q

Question: What is a common indicator of anemia in the elderly known as “anemia of chronic disease”?
A) High serum ferritin
B) High hemoglobin levels
C) Low serum ferritin
D) Low total iron-binding capacity

A

Answer: A) High serum ferritin

111
Q

Question: Which of the following is not commonly monitored to assess iron levels and anemia?
A) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
B) RBC count and RBC indices
C) Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation
D) Serum glucose concentration

A

Answer: D) Serum glucose concentration

112
Q

Question: What is the primary medical condition for which Recombinant human Erythropoietin (r-HuEPO) is commonly prescribed?
A) Hypertension
B) Anemia due to chronic renal failure
C) Diabetes
D) Cancer

A

Answer: B) Anemia due to chronic renal failure

113
Q

Question: What is the mechanism of action of Recombinant human Erythropoietin (r-HuEPO)?
A) It inhibits RBC production
B) It reduces blood viscosity
C) It directly binds to hemoglobin
D) It binds to erythropoietin receptors on proerythroblasts, increasing RBC production

A

Answer: D) It binds to erythropoietin receptors on proerythroblasts, increasing RBC production

114
Q

Question: What immediate effect does the administration of r-HuEPO have on blood?
A) Decreases reticulocyte count
B) Reduces erythrocyte levels
C) Increases blood viscosity
D) Increases reticulocyte count

A

Answer: D) Increases reticulocyte count

115
Q

Question: What significant side effect is associated with r-HuEPO administration?
A) Anemia
B) Hypotension
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Elevated cholesterol levels

A

Answer: C) Increased blood pressure

116
Q

Question: In which group of patients is the use of EPO typically not recommended, and it even has a black box warning?
A) Patients with hypertension
B) Cancer patients receiving palliative care
C) Patients with diabetes
D) Patients with infectious diseases

A

Answer: B) Cancer patients receiving palliative care

117
Q

Question: Under what condition do patients on dialysis have strict parameters before they can receive EPO?
A) If they have high cholesterol
B) If they have high blood pressure
C) If they have a high threshold for hemoglobin
D) If they have low platelet counts

A

Answer: C) If they have a high threshold for hemoglobin

118
Q

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Cyanocobalamin (B12 Supplement)?
A) Reducing blood pressure
B) Promoting DNA development in red blood cell production
C) Enhancing bone density
D) Suppressing appetite

A

Answer: B) Promoting DNA development in red blood cell production

119
Q

Question: Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with Cyanocobalamin (B12 Supplement) use?
A) Muscle pain
B) Vision changes
C) Tingling sensation in hands and feet
D) Hair loss

A

Answer: C) Tingling sensation in hands and feet

120
Q

Question: In which condition or situation is Cyanocobalamin typically used?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) Pernicious Anemia or insufficient dietary B12 intake
D) Hypertension

A

Answer: C) Pernicious Anemia or insufficient dietary B12 intake

121
Q

Question: Which route of administration is typically used for Cyanocobalamin in cases of pernicious anemia?
A) Oral (PO)
B) Intravenous (IV)
C) Intramuscular (IM)
D) Subcutaneous (SC)

A

Answer: B) Intramuscular (IM)

122
Q

Question: What is the recommended initial daily dose of Cyanocobalamin for treating pernicious anemia?
A) 500 mcg
B) 1000-2000 mcg
C) 2500 mcg
D) 5000 mcg

A

Answer: B) 1000-2000 mcg

123
Q

Question: Why should Cyanocobalamin not be administered with folic acid in cases of B12 deficiency?
A) It enhances the effect of Cyanocobalamin
B) Folic acid can alleviate neurologic deficits
C) Folic acid may mask the presence of B12 deficiency
D) Folic acid has no effect on B12 deficiency

A

Answer: C) Folic acid may mask the presence of B12 deficiency

124
Q

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of hydroxyurea?
A) Stimulation of red blood cell production
B) Inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase (RR)
C) Promotion of platelet count increase
D) Activation of white blood cells

A

Answer: B) Inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase (RR)

125
Q

Question: What is one common adverse effect associated with hydroxyurea use that may lead to a decrease in white blood cell count?
A) Lowered hemoglobin levels
B) Increased platelet count
C) Skin hyperpigmentation
D) Neutropenia

A

Answer: D) Neutropenia

126
Q

Question: What is the purpose of hydroxyurea increasing the production of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)?
A) To promote the synthesis of red blood cells
B) To stimulate the immune system
C) To prevent sickle hemoglobin from forming clumps
D) To induce melanonychia

A

Answer: C) To prevent sickle hemoglobin from forming clumps

127
Q

Question: In which patient populations is the use of hydroxyurea typically recommended?
A) Individuals with hypertension
B) Pregnant women
C) Patients with frequent painful episodes due to hemoglobin SS or Sβ0 thalassemia
D) People with allergies

A

Answer: C) Patients with frequent painful episodes due to hemoglobin SS or Sβ0 thalassemia

128
Q

Question: What dosing modifications should be considered for pregnant or lactating females in relation to hydroxyurea?
A) Higher daily doses are recommended
B) No dose modifications are necessary
C) Pregnant or lactating females should not use hydroxyurea
D) Lower daily doses are recommended

A

Answer: C) Pregnant or lactating females should not use hydroxyurea

129
Q

Question: What is the typical daily dose of hydroxyurea for patients with hemoglobin SS or Sβ0 thalassemia who experience frequent painful episodes?
A) 5–10 mg/kg/day
B) 15–20 mg/kg/day
C) 10–15 mg/kg/day
D) 20–25 mg/kg/day

A

Answer: C) 10–15 mg/kg/day

Pathophysiology + Pharm (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions