Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the thalamus

A

The thalamus composes about four fifths of the diencephalon and forms most of the walls of the third ventricle. Consists of paired masses of gray matter, each positioned immediately below the lateral ventricle of its respective cerebral hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the function of the thalamus*

A

Primarily as a relay center through which all sensory information (except smell!) passes on the way to the cerebrum. Sensory nuclei lead to the thalamus and project to areas of the cerebral cortex. This is part of the system that promotes alertness and causes arousal from sleep in response to strong sensory stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the epithalamus and what does it do?

A

The epithalamus is the dorsal segment of the diencephalon and contains a choroid plexus over the third ventricle where cerebrospinal fluid is formed. It also contains the Pineal Gland which secretes the hormone melatonin that regulates circadian rythms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the hypothalamus and what does it do

A

the most inferior portion of the diencephalon, located below the thalamus and forming part of the lateral walls of the third ventricle.

Contains neural centers for hunger and thirst, regulation of body temperature, and hormone secretion from the pituitary gland. Also contributes to regulation of sleep, wakefulness, sexual arousal and performance, and emotions such as anger, fear, pain, pleasure. It connects with the medulla oblongata and limbic system to evoke visceral response to emotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

*Describe the different areas of the hypothalamus and what they do

A

Lateral hypothalamus: stimulates eating

Medial hypothalamus: inhibits eating

Preoptic area: causes shivering in response to cold and hyperventilation, vasodilation, salivation, and sweat secretion in response to heat. Also causes fever when sick

Other areas (not specific) have osmoreceptors to stimulate thirst and release of Antidiuretic Hormone from the posterior pituitary

Supraoptic and Paraventricual Nuclei: produce two hormones. Antidiuretic Hormone (vasopressin) stimulates kidneys to reabsorb water and excrete less urine. Oxytocin is the “love” hormone and stimulates contraction of the uterus in labor. These transport via the hypothalamic hypophyseal tract to the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) for release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

*Where is the pituitary gland and what does it do? Specific regions!

A

Located immediately inferior to the hypothalamus, only connected to diencephalon by a stalk

The neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) stores and releases ADH and oxytocin (NOT made here, they are made in the hypothalamus and transported via the hypothalamic hypophyseal tract. remember that NEURAL tracts go the the NEUROhypophysis.)

The adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) receives releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus that regulate the ability of the anterior pituitary to produce and secrete its hormones (TSH, LH, FSH, ACTH, GH, and more), which then regulate other endocrine glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN)

A

Bilaterally located within the anterior hypothalamus. Neurons function as “clock cells” with electrical activity that oscillates in a 24-hour pattern. The SCN is the master regulator of the body’s circadian rhythms: the 24-hour interval of physiological processes including metabolism, sleep, temperature, blood pressure, hormone secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does the suprachiasmatic nuclei detect light/dark cycles

A

By tracts from the retina (neural layer of the eyes) to the hypothalamus called retinohypothalamic tracts. These are activated by retinal ganglion cells (NOT rods/cones) that contain a light sensitive pigment melanopsin. The photosensitive retinal ganglion cells in the retina act via retinohypothalamic tracts to “entrain” the circadian clocks of the SCN to daily light/dark.

They are also responsible for the pupillary reflex constriction in response to light!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the molecular mechanism for the circadian clock

A

There are certain genes found in the suprachiasmatic nuclei whose expression control the circadian clock. The genes have been found in other areas of the brain and peripheral organs and appear to work in complex negative feedback loops that suppress clock gene transcription after a delay, causing circadian oscillations. Although the peripheral “clock” cells have daily cycles of activity, they would not be synchronized without the suprachiasmatic nuclei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe some of the outputs of the suprachiasmatic nuclei

A

connects to other hypothalamus nuclei, thalamus, arcuate nucleus, amygdaloid body, and more to influence circadian rhythms of temperature, feeding, movements, autonomic nervous system, and endocrine secretions. One important example is the SCN’s regulation (via sympathetic nerves) of the pineal gland and melatonin secretion, which is highest at night. Melatonin then influences other processes such as insulin secretion and blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

list important areas are located in the midbrain

A

Nigrostriatal dopamine system
Mesolimbic dopamine system
Ventral tegmental area
Nucleus accumbens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the two dopamine systems located in the midbrain

A

Nigrostriatal: projects from substantia nigra to the corpus striatum of basal nuclei. Required for motor coordination. Degeneration produces Parkinson’s disease

Mesolimbic: Projects dopaminergic input to the limbic system (forebrain) via the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area. Involved in behavioral reward and implicated in addiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the nucleus accumbens

A

Located by head of caudate nucleus and anterior putamen as a part of the ventral striatum (although considered part of limbic system due to emotional reward function).
The rewarding effect of addictive drugs are believed to be due to a rapid increase of dopamine released in the nucleus accumbens - the “dopamine hypothesis” of addiction. The nucleus accumbens receives emotional information from the limbic system and has output to the corpus striatum, this enables it to relate emotions to motivated actions. Continued exposure to addictive drugs (or smartphones) causes down regulation of dopamine receptors in the nucleus accumbens, requiring higher doses for the effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the effect of THC on the brain?

A

THC from marijuana stimulates mesolimbic dopamine release, but long term use appears to blunt activity of the mesolimbic system in a way that correlates with declines in working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What brain structures are involved in relapse?

A

Stopping the use of an addictive drug cause withdrawal symptoms including fear and anxiety caused by circuits with the nucleus accumbens and amygdaloid body. People relapse to avoid this state. Relapse may result from failure of the glutamate-releasing axons that project from the prefrontal cortex (controls drug seeking behavior) to the nucleus accumbens and other limbic systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

structures in the metencephalon

A

Pons

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the pons location and function. *name the specific areas of importance

A

Pons is on the underside of the brain between midbrain and medulla oblongata. It connects to the cerebellum and has fibers included in motor and sensory tracts that pass from medulla, through pons, to midbrain. Pons and medulla nuclei regulate breathing, the pons has two respiratory control centers: the apneustic and pneumotaxic centers. (medulla has one respiratory center)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does damage to the pons cause

A

Locked-in syndrome is caused by damage to the Ventral Pons. There is paralysis of all voluntary muscles except eye blinks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe functions of cerebellum

A
Smooth, goal directed movements
Maintaining posture and balance
Learning new movement activities
Autonomic function
Cognitive skills
Muscle memory
The cerebellum receives sensory input from proprioceptors and works with motor areas of cerebral cortex to coordinate body movements. Purkinje cells carry the output of the cerebellum via inhibitory signals ONLY.

May also be involved in sensory data, memory, emotion, speech, schizophrenia, autism, (motivation and reward in mice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the function of the medullar oblongata and its important nuclei

A

The only structure of the myelencephalon, continuous with pons and spinal cord. All of the descending and ascending fiber tracts that provide communication between the spinal cord and brain pass through the medulla. Many cross over (decussation) to the contralateral side in elevated triangular structures called pyramids. Reason why brain controls opposite body side!

Vagus nuclei: give rise to important parasympathetic vagus nerve (X)
Vital centers:
-vasomotor center: controls autonomic innervation of blood vessels (vasoconstriction and vasodilation)
-cardiac control center: associated with vasomotor center and regulates autonomic nerve control of the heart
-rhythmicity (respiratory) center: acts with centers in the pons to control breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the reticular activating system do generally?

A

The normal cycles of sleep (and the ability to tune out stimuli/be awoken by stimuli) depend on activation and inhibition of neural pathways from the pons through midbrain reticular formation. This constitutes an ascending arousal system known as the Reticular Activating System (RAS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does the RAS work? where are the networks and what neurotransmitters do they use?

A

The RAS includes groups of cholinergic neurons in the brain stem that project to the thalamus, enhancing transmission of sensory information from thalamus to cerebral cortex. Also has neurons in hypothalamus and basal forebrain which release monoamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, histamine, serotonin) that project to cerebral cortex.
Other RAS neurons in the *lateral hypothalamic area release arousal neurotransmitters, like orexin (hypocretin-1) which promotes wakefulness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What area inhibits RAS arousal pathways?

A

Neurons in the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO) of the hypothalamus release GABA to increase the depth of sleep. The inhibitory VLPO neurons and the arousal neurons that release monoamines are believed to mutually inhibit each other, creating a switch that controls falling asleep and waking up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain the brain region that is defective in Narcolepsy

A

Narcolepsy is caused by autoimmune destruction of orexin (hypocretin-1) neurons in the lateral hypothalamic area (LHA). Orexin stimulates wakefulness and suppresses REM sleep, as well as playing roles in craving food/drugs, physical activity, metabolic rate, and elevation of blood pressure and heart rate.
side note: An orexin antagonist drug has recently been made to help promote sleep called Lemborexant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What would damage to the RAS cause

A

Unconsciousness and coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the roles of the gray and white matter in the spinal cord?

A

Gray: central matter, arranged in an “H” with two dorsal (posterior) horns and two ventral (anterior) horns
White: outside matter, composed of ascending and descending fiber tracts (myelinated!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are the fiber tracts within the white matter of the spinal cord named?

A

Ascending (sensory/afferent) start with the prefix spino- and end with the name of the brain region where spinal cord fibers first synapse. e.g. anterior spinothalamic tract

Descending (motor/efferent) begin with a prefix denoting the brain region that gives rise to the fibers and end with suffix -spinal. e.g. lateral corticospinal tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the ascending fiber tracts function

A

convert sensory information from cutaneous receptors, proprioreceptors (muscle/joints), and visceral receptors. Decussation occurs as signals from one side of the body cross over to the opposite side of the brain. Crossing mostly happens in the Medulla, but some cross in the spinal cord.

29
Q

Describe the Pyramidal descending fiber tracts

A
Pyramidal tracts (corticospinal tracts) descend DIRECTLY from cerebral cortex to spinal cord. Cell bodies of this tract are located in precentral gyrus, forming the primary motor cortex. But about 10% of the corticospinal tract fibers come from the supplementary motor complex. 
80-90% of these fibers decussate in medulla and descend as Lateral Corticospinal Tracts (control fine dexterity movements), the rest decussate in spinal cord and form Anterior Corticospinal Tracts (control skeletal muscles, abdomen muscles, and stabilize spinal column)
30
Q

What are the effects of brain damage to one hemisphere?

A

loss of function on the opposite side called contralateral paralysis, the one-sided loss of function is called hemiplegia. However, left hemisphere lesions often cause problems in both hands, indicating the left is important for both hands control via the communication across the corpus callosum.

31
Q

Describe the Extrapyramidal motor tracts of the descending tracts

A

Largely controlled by motor circuit structures (corpus striatum, substantia nigra, thalamus) hence why Parkinson’s sympoms are often called “extrapyramidal symptoms”. Tract is needed for body movements, posture, facial muscles, and more.
If pyramidal tracts are cut, movements can still occur by stimulation of cerebral cortex, cerebellum, and basal nuclei because extrapyramidal tracts still work! This indicates that those structures only influence movement INDIRECTLY via extrapyramidal tracts.

32
Q

What are the major descending tracts of the extrapyramidal system

A

Reticulospinal tracts: originate in the reticular formation and receive input from cerebrum and cerebellum. There are no descending tracts from the cerebellum, it only influences movements indirectly by nuclei which connect to reticular formation and then down spinal cord via vestibulospinal tracts, rubrospinal tracts, and reticulospinal tracts
idk how important this knowledge is for test……

33
Q

General features of the cranial nerves

A

12 pairs, 2 arising from forebrain and 10 from midbrain/hindbrain. Most are mixed nerves with both sensory and motor neuron fibers. The cranial nerves associated with senses (like olfactory, optic) are only sensory fibers.

34
Q

features of spinal nerves

A

31 pairs, each of them are mixed nerves with both sensory and motor fibers. They are packaged together but separate near the attachment of the nerve to the spinal cord. There are two roots of each nerve, the dorsal root (sensory, afferent) and the ventral root (motor, efferent). An enlargement of the dorsal root, called the dorsal root ganglion, contains the cell bodies of the sensory neurons. Other cell bodies are located elsewhere (this is discussed more later?)

35
Q

Describe the reflex arc

A

*Reflexes PRECEDE sensation (does not go through brain first)

Stimulation of sensory receptors evokes action potentials conducted into spinal cord by sensory neurons. Sensory neuron synapses with interneuron synapses with somatic motor neuron. Somatic motor neuron conducts impulse out of spinal cord to muscle and stimulates reflex contraction.
Some are even simpler and have the sensory neuron synapse directly with a motor neuron (like the knee-jerk reflex) and are called “monosynaptic reflexes” although that’s not entirely true…

36
Q

What do the autonomic motor neurons do?

A

innervate organs whose functions are not under voluntary control like cardiac muscle, smooth muscles, and glands (the visceral organs).

37
Q

*describe how the two categories of motor neurons transmit signals differently

A

Somatic motor neurons: Conduct impulses along single axon from spinal cord to neuromuscular junction

Autonomic motor neurons: involves two axons, one Preganglionic neuron with cell body in the gray matter whose axon synapses with a second neuron within an autonomic ganglion. This is always a nicotinic ACh synapse. The second Postganglionic neuron has an axon extending from the autonomic ganglion to an effector organ where it synapses with target tissue.

38
Q

Describe the similarities between autonomic nerve reflexes and somatic motor reflexes

A

Sensory neurons that conduct information have the same anatomy in both systems: sensory information enters the spinal cord on the DORSAL root of the spinal nerves. However, some sensory information can instead enter the brain in cranial nerves that are mixed nerves. (like info about blood pressure, plasma pH, oxygen concentration)

39
Q

Describe the two compartments of the testes

A

Seminiferous tubules: where spermatogenesis occurs. Accounts for 90% of testes weight

Interstitial tissue: contains testosterone secreting interstial endocrine cells, Leydig cells. Also rich in blood and lymphatic capillaries to transport the hormones.

40
Q

Describe the hormone secretion of a boy at puberty. What hormones are secreted and where they originate and end up

A

FSH secretion increases at puberty and stimulates seminiferous tubules to increase testicular volume. Receptors for FSH are located only on the seminiferous tubules on Sertoli cells. LH receptors are only on interstitial Leydig cells, and testosterone secretion by Leydigs is stimulated by only LH. FSH stimulates spermatogenesis

41
Q

What happens to hormone levels in a castrated male? why?

A

Immediate rise in LH and FSH demonstrating a negative feedback control of gonadotrophin secretion by the testes hormones. This is a great example of a negative feedback loop. LH stimulates testosterone secretion by Leydig cells, and testosterone inhibits pituitary secretion of LH. It takes additional hormone to suppress FSH however, this hormone is produced by Sertoli cells and is called inhibin.

42
Q

Describe the level of androgen secretion through a males life

A

The negative feedback effects of testosterone and inhibit maintain a constant (non cyclic) secretion of gonadotropins and androgens. The secretions decline only gradually with age, the mechanism is not understood but it must be due to a blunted response of the Leydig cells to LH stimulation (which does not decrease). Testosterone levels decline slowly until reaching a hypogonadal state by age 70. Age, physical inactivity, obesity, and drugs all factor into the decline. The result of low testosterone is reduction in lean muscle and bone mass and sexual drive (libido)

43
Q

What does testosterone and its derivatives cause?

A

These hormones are also called anabolic steroids because they stimulate anabolism leading to growth of muscle and other structures.

During puberty, testosterone grows accessory sex organs like seminal vesicles and prostate (no androgens = atrophy of organs).

They also stimulate growth of the larynx (lowering voice), hemoglobin synthesis (males have higher hemoglobin than females), and bone growth (this is self-limiting, eventually preventing further lengthening)

44
Q

What other endocrine products come from the testes besides testosterone

A

Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, and developing sperm secrete estradiol. Estradiol receptors are found in Sertoli and Leydig cells (and some others lining reproductive tract) and even on developing sperm cells. This suggests estrogen has a role in spermatogenesis

45
Q

Describe the process of spermatogenesis

A

Germ cells that migrate from the yolk sac to testes in the embryo become Spermatogenic Stem Cells called Spermatogenia (diploid). These undergo meiosis: first DNA duplicates and homologous chromosomes are separated into two daughter cells, each haploid with 23 chromosomes called Secondary Spermatocytes. Second division separates the chromatids into daughter cells resulting in 4 haploid cells called Spermatids. The 4 spermatids are interconnected still, they then develop into separate mature Spermatozoa (Spermatozoon singular) via spermatogenesis in Sertoli cells where Protamines induce great compaction of chromatin, cause change to shape, development of flagellum, removal of germ cell cytoplasm, and appearance of the acrosome. The Spermatozoon is released into the lumen!

46
Q

How does spermatogenesis occur continuously without exhausting the number of spermatogonia

A

Spermatogonia duplicate themselves by mitotic division and then one of the two cells made, the Primary Spermatocyte, undergoes meiotic division. This allows production of 300 million sperm a day!

47
Q

Explain the locations of the different stages of spermatogenesis within the seminiferous tubules

A

Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes are located toward the outer side of the tubule whereas spermatids and mature spermatozoa are located on the side of the tubule facing the lumen. This makes sense as spermatogenesis progresses towards release into the lumen. Note that the stages of spermatogenesis is staggered along the length of the tubule to allow constant rate of production and release of sperm into lumen.

48
Q

What happens to the body when autonomic nerves are damaged?

A

Involuntary effectors are somewhat independent of their innervation, so damage to an autonomic nerve does not stop its activity. Instead, the target tissue is actually more sensitive than normal to stimulating agents. This is called Denervation Hypersensitivity.

Cardiac and smooth muscles can even contract rhythmically in the absence of nerve stimulation. This is due to the “resting tone” or baseline firing rate of autonomic nerves which is only increased or decreased by innervation, not caused by it.

49
Q

Compare the excitatory/inhibitory roles of the somatic and autonomic motor neurons on their effector organs

A

Somatic motor neurons always stimulate their effector organs (skeletal muscles) via Acetylcholine. Autonomic motor neurons can either excite OR inhibit their effector organs, like the vagus nerve which sends inhibitory signals to the heart and slows its beating.

50
Q

Describe the fiber locations in the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

A

Also called the Thoracolumbar division because preganglionic fibers exit the spinal cord in ventral roots from the first thoracic (T1) to second lumbar (T2) levels. Nerve fibers synapse with postganglionic neurons within Paravertebral Ganglia (a double row of sympathetic ganglia on either side of spinal cord). The ganglia are interconnected forming a Sympathetic Chain of Ganglia that parallels the spinal cord on each lateral side. The nerve fibers that interconnect the ganglia form a Sympathetic Trunk.

Myelinated preganglionic axons exit spinal cord in the ventral roots and diverge within short pathways called White Rami Communicantes. These enter the sympathetic trunk to synapse with different postganglionic neurons which are unmyelinated and form the Gray Rami Communicantes. These return to spinal nerves and travel to effector organs.

51
Q

Where does divergence and convergence occur in the sympathetic division

A

Divergence occurs in the sympathetic trunk as preganglionic fibers branch to synapses their postganglionic neurons. Convergence also occurs in the trunk as postganglionic neurons receive synaptic input from a large number of preganglionic fibers. This large divergence/convergence allows for Mass Activation of almost all sympathetic neurons for tonic (constant) activation of the entire sympathetic division. Activity increases in response to “fight or flight” situations. Mass activation does not always occur in response to stimuli, the sympathetic division also works to direct appropriate localized increases/decreases to maintain homeostasis

52
Q

When do sympathetic preganglionic fibers NOT synapse at the sympathetic trunk?

A

(Exception to the rule)
Splanchnic nerves synapse in collateral/prevertebral ganglia with postganglionic neurons that innervate organs of the digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. These splanchnic nerves include the celiac, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric ganglia.

53
Q

*Describe the Sympathoadrenal system and the structure of the adrenal gland

A

Adrenal Glands are located above each kidney. Two parts (functionally different glands): Outer Cortex secretes steroid hormones and Inner Medulla contains Pheochromocytes (chromatin cells) which secrete epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine.

The adrenal medulla is like a modified sympathetic ganglion (cells are derived from the same embryonic tissue that forms postganglionic sympathetic neurons). It is innervated directly by fibers of the greater Splanchnic nerve and then secretes epinephrine as a response. Epinephrine is complementary to the norepinephrine released by other sympathetic nerve endings. The adrenal medulla is also stimulated by mass activation of the sympathetic system. Because the two are so connected, they are often grouped together as a single Sympathoadrenal system.

54
Q

Describe the location of fibers in the Parasympathetic division

A

Also known as Craniosacral division because preganglionic fibers originate in the brain. These synapse in ganglia located next to (or within) the organs innervated. These Terminal Ganglia supply the postganglionic fibers that synapse with effector cells. Most parasympathetic fibers do not travel within spinal nerves as sympathetic fibers do! Therefore, cutaneous effectors (blood vessels, sweat glands, arrestor pili muscles) receive sympathetic but NOT parasympathetic innervation.

55
Q

Describe 4 important cranial nerves

A

Oculomotor (III). Originates in oculomotor nuclei and synapse in the ciliary ganglion, innervating ciliary muscle and constrictor fibers in the iris of the eye
Facial (VII)
Glossopharyngeal (IX). Mixed nerve
Vagus (X) meaning “wanderer” because it synapses in widespread regions of the body. The other three all synapse in the head. Mixed nerve originates in medulla oblongata and provides major parasympathetic innervation in the body. Synapses with postganglionic neurons are located within the innervated organs, so the preganglionic neurons are very long

56
Q

Compare how the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions synapse with visceral organs

A

Parasympathetic: often synapses within the effector organ so there is a very long preganglionic neuron which travels to the terminal ganglia located within the organ. So PRE neurons constitute the parasympathetic nerves to visceral organs

Sympathetic: the preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons at the sympathetic trunk and then the postganglionic neurons travel to the effector organ. So POST neurons constitute the sympathetic nerves to visceral organs

57
Q

Compare the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

A

Sympathetic: mass activation prepares the body for intense physical activity in emergencies: heart rate increases, blood glucose rises, pupils dilate, and blood is diverted to skeletal muscles. “Fight or Flight”. NOTE: system is tonically (continuously) active to regulate heart, blood vessels, other organs with a more tailored, moment to moment regulation

Parasympathetic: system is not normally active as a whole, stimulation results in slowing of heart, dilation of visceral blood vessels, constrict pupils, and increased activity of digestive tract. “Rest and Digest” or “Repast and Repose”

58
Q

What neurotransmitters are used by the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

A

Acetylcholine: ALL preganglionic axons (both para and symp) use nicotinic ACh receptors. ACh is also the transmitter released by most parasympathetic postganglionic axons at muscarinic ACh receptors. = CHOLINERGIC transmission

Norepinephrine: used by most postganglionic sympathetic nerves. = ADRENERGIC transmission. Adrenal medulla also uses epinephrine and norepinephrine

(some postganglionic sympathetic nerves use ACh)

59
Q

Describe the synapses where postganglionic autonomic neurons enter into their target organs

A

Varicosities are numerous swellings that contain neurotransmitters. They can therefore be released along a length of axon instead of just at the terminal. This forms synapses en passant with the target.

60
Q

What does nicotine do in the brain?

A

Nicotine from tobacco stimulates dopaminergic neurons in the midbrain (mesolimbic reward system) by means of nicotinic ACh receptors. Chronic exposure to nicotine desensitizes the nicotinic ACh receptors in the midbrain, contributing to nicotine tolerance and increased dependence

61
Q

What do opioids do in the brain?

A

opioids (heroin and morphine) stimulate opioid receptors in the midbrain (mesolimbic dopamine reward). These drug effects lead to reduced activity of GABA-releasing inhibitory neurons that synapse on the dopaminergic neurons in the ventral tegmental area.

62
Q

What do cannabinoids do in the brain?

A

Cannabinoids (from marijuana) stimulate endocannabinoid receptors in the midbrain (mesolimbic reward). These drug effects lead to reduced activity of GABA-releasing inhibitory neurons that synapse on the dopaminergic neurons in the ventral tegmental area.

63
Q

What does cocaine/amphetamine do in the brain?

A

Cocaine and amphetamines promote dopamine stimulation in the nucleus accumbens by inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine into presynaptic axons. Ironically, drug abuse can desensitize neurons to dopamine and so lessen the rewarding effects of dopamine release.

The amphetamines also promote wakefulness by inhibiting the dopamine reuptake transporter and enhancing dopamine action in the monoamine arousal pathways of the RAS

64
Q

What does ethanol do in the brain?

A

Ethanol (alcohol) stimulates the mesolimbic dopamine pathways, particularly in the nucleus accumbens. In addition to this reward pathway, alcohol acts as a CNS depressant. It causes the release of GABA and it inhibits the activity of the NMDA glutamate receptors, thereby affecting the function of a variety of brain regions.

65
Q

Describe the effects of damage to the cerebellum

A

Cerebellum disorders are usually characterized by ataxia—the loss of coordination, resulting in disorders of gait, balance, eye movements, and swallowing. The movements may resemble those of someone intoxicated with alcohol, and indeed alcohol has been shown to affect the cerebellum. A person with cerebellum damage may display intention tremor when attempting to touch an object, where the limb misses the object and then moves in the opposite direction and back again, resulting in oscillation of the limb. Cerebellum disorders may have a variety of causes, including trauma, stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA), and viral infections. If caused by a virus, the symptoms will usually resolve spontaneously.

66
Q

What are hypnotic drugs and how do they work?

A

Hypnotic drugs promote sleep by acting on the RAS. The antihistamine Benadryl, for example, promotes drowsiness by crossing the blood–brain barrier and inhibiting histamine-releasing neurons of the RAS. (The nondrowsy antihistamine Claritin cannot cross the blood–brain barrier.) Barbiturates, anesthetic gases, and the benzodiazepines (such as Valium and Xanax) act to enhance the effectiveness of GABA, thereby inhibiting the RAS to reduce arousal and promote sleep. The benzodiazepines and the later developed nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic drugs (such as Ambien), which act like the benzodiazepines but are chemically different, are the most frequently prescribed drugs for promoting sleep.

67
Q

What does caffeine do to the brain

A

Caffeine taken too close to bedtime antagonizes receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that promotes sleep, thereby increasing restlessness and the time required to fall asleep.

68
Q

What is Babinski’s reflex and when is it present

A

The Babinski reflex (or the Babinski sign) occurs normally in infants and children under two years old. This reflex involves an upward movement of the big toe and a fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stimulated, due to a reflex contraction of the extensor muscles of the toes. Once the central nervous system has developed more fully, the descending pyramidal tracts inhibit this reflex. In adults, the same stimulation usually evokes a downward flexion, or curling, of the toes. A Babinski reflex in an adult can indicate CNS damage due to such conditions as spinal cord injury, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), multiple sclerosis (MS), brain tumors, and others.

69
Q

What are sympathomimetics

A

Sympathomimetic drugs mimic the effects of sympathoadrenal stimulation. Such drugs include the naturally occurring catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine) and their analogs, as well as drugs that promote the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, block their reuptake from the synaptic cleft, and block their degradation (such as the MAO inhibitor drugs). Many of these drugs have medical uses, but some abused drugs are sympathomimetics. Amphetamine and its derivatives (methamphetamine and mephedrone) promote the presynaptic release of norepinephrine; cocaine blocks its reuptake into presynaptic terminals. Sympathomimetic toxicity can cause tachycardia, diaphoresis (profuse perspiration), and hypertension, and is frequently a cause of cardiac arrest and death from abused drugs.