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ISOM > Week 3/4 > Flashcards

Week 3/4 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term diploid mean?

A

46 chromosomes. 2 complete sets of chromosomes (1 from each parent)

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2
Q

What does 4n refer to in genetics?

A

4 copies of a gene (2 copies from each parent)

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3
Q

Which phase of mitosis contains the checkpoint?

A

metaphase

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4
Q

How many total checkpoints are in the cell cycle?

A

3 (in G1 phase, end of G2 phase, and metaphase of mitosis)

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5
Q

Gametes are haploid which means ____.

A

there are 23 chromosomes in each.

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6
Q

How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis in males?

A

4 daughter cells (1n)

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7
Q

What does 1n refer to in genetics?

A

there is 1 copy of a gene

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8
Q

When does crossing over occur in meosis?

A

prophase I

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9
Q

At the end of meiosis I the gametes are __ploid and __n.

A

haploid, 2n

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10
Q

What is the yield product of meiosis in females?

A

1 egg and 2 polar bodies

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11
Q

This immunosuppressive factor appears in the mom’s plasma within hours of fertilization:

A

Early pregnancy factor

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12
Q

The earliest attachment between the embryo and the endometrium typically corresponds to

A

shedding of the zona pellucida

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13
Q

The first sign of differentiation of embryo into different cell groups occurs at the stage of

A

blastocyst

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14
Q

The first mitotic cell division in the zygote occurs ________ after fertilization

A

30 hours

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15
Q

This is the most common site for fertilization

A

ampulla of the fallopian tube

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16
Q

____ is an isomer with the same chemical formula except for different configuration at one asymmetric carbon.

A

Epimer

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17
Q

____ is an isomer which is a mirror image of one another.

A

Enantiomer

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18
Q

____ are cyclic monosaccharides/glycosides that differ in configuration at the hemiacetal or acetal carbon.

A

Anomers

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19
Q

Lactose is

A

Galactose B(1-4) glucose

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20
Q

Sucrose is

A

glucose a(1-2) fructose

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21
Q

Maltose is

A

glucose a(1-4) glucose

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22
Q

Isomaltose is

A

glucose a(1-6) glucose

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23
Q

Glycogen is linked by ___ bonds and __ bonds connect branches.

A

a(1-4), a(1-6)

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24
Q

What type of GLUT transporter is found in RBCs and the brain?

A

GLUT1

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25
Q

GLUT1 transporters are ___-affinity

A

high

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26
Q

GLUT2 transporters are ___-affinity and ____-capacity.

A

low, high

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27
Q

Which GLUT transporter is known as the glucose sensor?

A

GLUT2

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28
Q

Which tissues contain GLUT2 transporters?

A

hepatocytes, pancreatic B-cells

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29
Q

GLUT3 transporters are ___-affinity

A

high

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30
Q

This type of GLUT transporter is insulin-dependent and has a high-affinity.

A

GLUT4

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31
Q

GLUT4 transporters are found in

A

skeletal muscle and adipocytes

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32
Q

What is the key and regulated step of glycolysis?

A

Fructose 6-phosphate –> Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (catalyzed by PFK-1)

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33
Q

What are the regulated rxns of glycolysis?

A

Fructose 6-phosphate –> Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (catalyzed by PFK-1)
Glucose –> glucose 6-phosphate (catalyzed by hexokinase)
PEP –> pyruvate (catalyzed by pyruvate kinase)

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34
Q

In which tissues is glucokinase found?

A

liver and pancreatic beta cells

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35
Q

Hexokinase has a ___ Km and ___ Vmax.

A

low, low

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36
Q

Glucokinase has a ___ Km and a ___ Vmax.

A

high, high

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37
Q

Which one is induced by insulin, glucokinase or hexokinase?

A

glucokinase

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38
Q

In glycolysis, fructose 1,6-bisphosphate ___ the enzyme pyruvate kinase.

A

activates (it ensures glycolysis proceeds efficiently)

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39
Q

Name one of allosteric inhibitor of PKA.

A

ATP

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40
Q

What are the 3 main precursors of gluconeogenesis?

A

glucogenic AAs, lactate, glycerol

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41
Q

How do glucogenic AAs enter gluconeogenesis?

A

converted to pyruvate or OAA

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42
Q

How does lactate enter gluconeogenesis?

A

converted to pyruvate

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43
Q

How does glycerol enter gluconeogenesis?

A

its phosphorylated to G3P by glycerol kinase (ONLY FOUND IN THE LIVER) and further oxidized to DHAP by G3P dehydrogenase

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44
Q

What is the first bypass rxn of gluconeogenesis?

A

pyruvate converts to OAA by pyruvate carboxykinase. OAA then converts to PEP by PEP carboxykinase.

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45
Q

NAD+/NADP+ are the biologically active form of _____

A

niacin/nicotinic acid (Vitamin B3)

46
Q

FAD is the biologically active form of

A

riboflavin

47
Q

The 5 coenzymes required for PDH cycle include

A

CoA, TPP, NAD+, FAD, lipoic acid

48
Q

What are the substrates and products of PDH cycle?

A

Substrates: pyruvate, CoA, NAD+
Products: Acetyl-CoA, NADH, CO2

49
Q

Explain the allosteric inhibition of PDH cycle.

A

Allosteric inhibition (product inhibition). The products Acetyl-CoA and NADH inhibit the catalytic activity of PDH.

50
Q

If PDH kinase is ON, then is PDH activity ON or OFF?

A

OFF

51
Q

If PDH kinase is OFF, then is PDH ON or OFF?

A

ON

52
Q

What regulates PDH kinase activity?

A

High energy (ATP and NADH) and product accumulation (Acetyl-CoA) will turn ON its activity

53
Q

What regulates PDH phosphatase activity?

A

insulin and Ca2+ are STRONG STIMULATORS of PDH phosphatase; PDH is ON

54
Q

What is the net yield of one turn of the TCA cycle?

A

2 CO2, 1 GTP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2

55
Q

How is citrate synthase inhibited in the TCA cycle?

A

it is competitively inhibited by its product citrate

56
Q

How is isocitrate dehydrogenase regulated in the TCA cycle?

A

Stimulates: low energy (ADP)
Inhibits: high energy (ATP, NADH)

57
Q

How is alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase regulated in the TCA cycle?

A

Stimulates: Ca2+
Inhibits: NADH, Succinyl-CoA (its product)

58
Q

What are the anaplerotic rxns of the TCA cycle?

A

*4 and 5C acids are replenished by degradation of amino acids
*Oxaloacetate is replenished by pyruvate by pyruvate carboxylase

59
Q

Thiamine deficiency is linked to a deficiency in what complex?

A

PDH complex

60
Q

Coenzyme A is synthesized from which vitamin?

A

Pantothenate (Vitamin B5)

61
Q

Which complexes in the ETC help establish proton gradient?

A

Complexes I, III, IV

62
Q

Which complex of ETC is the final e- acceptor?

A

Complex IV

63
Q

How many protons are pumped across per molecule of NADH and how much ATP is produced as a result?

A

10 H+; 3 ATP

64
Q

How many protons are pumped across per molecule of FADH2 and how much ATP is produced as a result?

A

6 H+; 2 ATP

65
Q

What is the total energy yield per oxidation of one glucose molecule?

A

36-38

66
Q

An inhibitor of the ETC will ____ carriers before and ____ carriers after.

A

reduce; oxidize

67
Q

What is the effect of uncouplers on ETC?

A

H+ leak across intermembrane

68
Q

How does oligomycin affect ETC?

A

inhibits ATP Synthase (Complex V)

69
Q

What does OS stand for?

A

oculus sinister (left eye)

70
Q

What is right eye in latin?

A

oculus dextrus (OD)

71
Q

What does OU stand for?

A

oculus uterque (both eyes)

72
Q

Describe what 20/40 vision is.

A

20 is the distance the pt is from the chart. 40 is the distance at which a normal eye can read the same line of letters.

73
Q

What are the auscultation spots for the CV exam?

A

APT M 2245
*2nd intercostal space - aortic valve
*2nd intercostal space - pulmonic valve
*4th intercostal space - triscuspid valve
*5th intercostal space - mitral valve

74
Q

Name the lobes of the lungs.

A

RUL, RML, RLL, LUL, LLL

75
Q

Grading reflexes

A

*4+ = very brisk w/ clonus
*3+ = brisker than average
*2+ = normal
*1+ = low normal
*0 = no response

76
Q

A unilateral conductive hearing loss will lateralize to the ____ side.

A

affected

77
Q

A unilateral sensorineural hearing loss will lateralize to the ____ side.

A

normal

78
Q

What are the direct products of the TCA cycle?

A

1 GTP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2

79
Q

The Na+/K+ pump is always located on the ____ side of the cell.

A

basolateral

80
Q

Na-K-2Cl cotransporter (NKCC2) is an example of a ____.

A

symporter

81
Q

Lipids in the stomach are broken down into diglycerides and fatty acids by the enzyme ____.

A

gastric lipase

82
Q

Emulsification by a bile helps to

A

increase the surface area of the hydrophobic lipid droplets

83
Q

Bile is produced by the ___ and stored in the ____.

A

liver; gallbladder

84
Q

Which enzymes help remove fatty acids from lipids in the small intestine?

A

pancreatic lipase, cholesteryl esterase, phospholipase

85
Q

After micelles are absorbed by enterocytes, the contents are reassembled into ___, ____, ____, and ____.

A

TAGs, CEs, Phospholipids, and fat-soluble vitamins

86
Q

In the enterocyte, the reassembled TAGs, CEs, PLs are packaged into ____.

A

chylomicrons

87
Q

Chylomicrons are ___-rich.

A

TAG

88
Q

The unique lipoprotein present on surface of chylomicron is called ____.

A

Apo B48

89
Q

The other two lipoproteins along with Apo48 are called ___ and ___, which come from HDL.

A

ApoE, and ApoCII

90
Q

LPL breaks down TAG in chylomicron into ___ and ____.

A

fatty acids; glycerol

91
Q

Chylomicron remnant is rich in ____.

A

cholesterol

92
Q

The surface receptors on hepatocytes recognize which lipoprotein on chylomicron remnant?

A

ApoE

93
Q

CKK (Cholecystokinin) ____ gastric motility and ____ the gallbladder and pancreas.

A

decreases; stimulates

94
Q

_____ stimulates pancreas and liver to secrete bicarbonate which will neutralize pH of chyme

A

secretin

95
Q

Acetyl-CoA from mitochondria needs to convert to ____ in order to cross the membrane into the cytosol where FA synthesis can occur.

A

citrate

96
Q

In the 1st step of FA synthesis, acetyl-CoA converts to ____ by the enzyme _____.

A

malonyl-CoA; Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase (ACC)

97
Q

____ catalyzes the addition of malonyl-CoA to the growing fatty acid chain.

A

fatty acid synthase (FAS)

98
Q

In a fasted state, glucagon ____ AMPK which turns ____ ACC.

A

stimulate; off

99
Q

In a fed state, insulin will ___ fatty acid synthesis.

A

stimulate

100
Q

In a fed state, insulin will _____ AMPK which turns ____ ACC.

A

dephosphorylate; on

101
Q

___ and ___ are needed to make TAG.

A

glycerol and fatty acids

102
Q

In the liver, glycerol comes from ___ or ____.

A

glycolysis; direct phosphorylation

103
Q

In the liver, fatty acids come from ____ or ____.

A

lipogenesis; released lipids from adipose

104
Q

In adipose tissue, glycerol can only come from ____.

A

glycolysis

105
Q

TAGs are synthesized in the ____ (fed state) and ____ (fed and fasted state).

A

adipose; liver

106
Q

The liver secretes TAGs in a particle called ____.

A

VLDL

107
Q

VLDL has a special lipoprotein on its surface called ____.

A

Apo B-100

108
Q

This idea’s goal is to improve medical outcomes of a group of individuals.

A

population health

109
Q

The idea’s goal is to improve the health of the community

A

public health

110
Q

____ activities include health promotion, early detection, disease management.

A

population health

111
Q

____ activities include assessment, creating policy and enforcing laws.

A

public health

112
Q
A

ISOM (5 decks)

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