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CytoGenetics > Week 2: Cell and Cell Division > Flashcards

Week 2: Cell and Cell Division Flashcards

1
Q

What is the basic unit of life?

A

Cell

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2
Q

Who discovered the Cell?

A

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

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3
Q

Where did Anton Van Leeuwenhoek get the name “cell” from?

A

Because of its box shaped appearance

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4
Q

What did Anton Van Leeuwenhoek use to identify what we now call cells

A

Vegetable cells, particularly onion

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5
Q

MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE

Cellular Activities underlie our inherited traits, quirks, and illnesses

A

TRUE

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6
Q

Is it possible for DNA testing to know of your personality and diseases?

A

Yes, it is.

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7
Q

How many specialized or differentiated cell types form our four basic tissue types?

A

More than 290 specialized or differentiated cell types

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8
Q

This is where a variety of cell types and surrounding materials protect, support, bind to cells, and fill spaces throughout the body, include cartilage, bone, blood, and fat.

A

Connective Tissue

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9
Q

This is where tight cell layers from linings that protect, secrete, absorb, and excrete

A

Epithelium

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10
Q

This is where cells contract, providing movement.

A

Muscle

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11
Q

This is where neurons transmit information as electrochemical impulses that coordinate movement and also sense and respond to environmental stimuli, neuroglia support and nourish neurons.

A

Nervous Tissue

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12
Q

This has two copies of the genome and are said to be diploid.

A

Somatic (Body Cells)

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13
Q

This is where they have one copy of the genome and are haploid

A

Germ (Sperm and Egg Cells)

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14
Q

This is where it Can divide to give rise to differentiated cells and to other stem cells through self-renewal.

A

Stem Cells

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15
Q

The only cell that is capable of self - renewal

A

Stem Cells

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16
Q

This means that they can give rise to a certain cell that is identical or similar to them.

A

Self-Renewal

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17
Q

What are the true bacteria pathogens of human?

A

Eubacteria

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18
Q

This is prokaryotic; also called eubacteria

A

Bacteria

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19
Q

This is prokaryotic; also called bacteria

A

Archaea

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20
Q

What does archaea mean?

A

Ancient; Ancient forms of prokaryotic cells

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21
Q

What does kernel mean?

A

Nucleus

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22
Q

These are simple and unicellular organisms without nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

A

Prokaryotes

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23
Q

These are complex and multicellular organisms with nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

A

Eukaryotes

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24
Q

Where is the genetic material of prokaryotes located?

A

Nucleoid

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25
Q

Where is the genetic material of eukaryotes located?

A

Nucleus

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26
Q

What are the major macromolecules that makeup the cells?

A

Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins, and Nucleic Acids

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27
Q

These provide energy and contribute to cell structure

A

Carbohydrates

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28
Q

These form the basis of some hormones, form membranes, provide insulation (heat), and store energy

A

Lipids

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29
Q

What is the primary molecule for energy source in carbohydrates?

A

Lucose

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30
Q

This is also stored as an energy source

A

Lipids

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31
Q

These have many diverse functions such as forming the contractile fibers of muscle cells, enabling blood to clot, and forming the bulk of connective tissues.

A

Proteins

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32
Q

They are important proteins because they facilitate, or catalyze, biochemical reactions

A

Enzymes

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33
Q

These are the most important macromolecules to the study of genetics

A

Nucleic Acids (DNA and RNA)

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34
Q

This is based on a highly organized subset of the chemical reaction of life.

A

Genetics

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35
Q

This is where – too many cells are replicating; the most
prominent disease; the uncontrolled growth of cells.

A

Cancer

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36
Q

The most prominent or important cell/ organelle of the body

A

Nucleus

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37
Q

This is surrounded by a layer of the nuclear envelope,
encloses the nucleus.

A

Nucleus

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38
Q

Also called “little nucleus’’; this is where ribosomes are produced/synthesized; where you can find the ribosomal RNA (rRNA).

A

Nucleolus

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39
Q

These allow the movement of biochemicals

A

Nuclear Pores

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40
Q

These provide mechanical support and holds nuclear pores in place

A

Nuclear lamina

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41
Q

This produces ribosomes

A

Nucleolus

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42
Q

Also called “cytosol” when other cellular parts are removed

A

Cytoplasm

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43
Q

It is the liquid matrix of the cell

A

Cytoplasm

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44
Q

Also called the “cell membrane”

A

Plasma Membrane

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45
Q

This is the outer boundary of the cell

A

Plasma Membrane

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46
Q

The release of a substance from a cell

A

Secretion

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47
Q

What is the Central Dogma of the Cell?

A

Replication (DNA), Transcription (mRNA), and Translation (tRNA)

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48
Q

What forms proteins?

A

Amino Acids

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49
Q

This is where protein synthesis takes place

A

Ribosomes

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50
Q

This is where ribosomes are produced

A

Nucleolus

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51
Q

This is the interconnected membranous tubules & sacs that winds from the nuclear envelope to the plasma membrane.

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum

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52
Q

This contains ribosomes and is involved in protein synthesis

A

Rough ER

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53
Q

This does not contain ribosomes and is important in lipid synthesis

A

Smooth ER

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54
Q

This is a stack of interconnected flat, “membrane-enclosed” sacs

A

Golgi Apparatus

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55
Q

This is the processing center that adds sugar forming glycoproteins and glycolipids.

A

Golgi Apparatus

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56
Q

What is formed in the Golgi Apparatus?

A

Glycoproteins and Glycolipids

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57
Q

Self digestion inside the cell

A

Intracellular Digestion

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58
Q

This is oftem referred to the ‘ trash bin of the cell’

A

Lysosomes

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59
Q

Membrane-bound sacs contianing 43 types of digestive enzymes

A

Lysosomes

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60
Q

This dismantles bacterial remnants, worn out organelles, and excess cholesterol.

A

Lysosomes

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61
Q

This organelle engages in autophagy

A

Lysosomes

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62
Q

The process wherein a certain cell destroys itself when it detects certain damage

A

Autophagy

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63
Q

What does the lysosome require for it to be activated

A

A highly acidic environment

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64
Q

These are sacs with outer membranes studded with several types of enzymes

A

Peroxisomes

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65
Q

This is predominant in liver and kidney cells

A

Peroxisomes

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66
Q

This breaks down lipids and rare biochemicals

A

Peroxisomes

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67
Q

These synthesizes bile acids

A

Peroxisomes

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68
Q

These detoxify compounds from exposure to oxygen free radicals

A

Peroxisomes

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69
Q

These provide energy by breaking chemical bonds that hold together nutrient molecules in food

A

Mitochondria

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70
Q

MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE

The mitochondria is surrounded by three membranes

A

FALSE; two membranes

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71
Q

Where is freed energy stored?

A

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

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72
Q

The folding structure or parts of mitochondria; this allow greater surface area for energy production.

A

Cristae

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73
Q

Site of protein synthesis and folding; lipid synthesis

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum

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74
Q

Site where sugars are made and linked into starches or
joined to lipids or proteins; proteins finish folding; secretions stored

A

Golgi Apparatus

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75
Q

Degrades debris; recycles cell contents

A

Lysosome

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76
Q

Releases energy from nutrients

A

Mitochondrion

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77
Q

Breaks down and detoxifies various molecules

A

Peroxisome

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78
Q

Scaffold and catalyst for protein synthesis

A

Ribosome

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79
Q

Temporarily stores on transport substances

A

Vesicles

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80
Q

Separate DNA Within the cell

A

Nucleus

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81
Q

It is composed of a double layer (bilayer) of molecules called phospholipids.

A

Biological Membrane

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82
Q

In the biological membrane, what is formed by membrane proteins

A

Channels for ions to pass through

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83
Q

What is embedded in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Proteins

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84
Q

What molecules extend from the plasma membrane?

A

Receptors

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85
Q

This is where molecules form pathways that detect signals from outside the cell and transmit them inward.

A

Signal Transduction

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86
Q

This is where the plasma membrane helps cells attach to certain other cells for transmitting information.

A

Cellular Adhesion

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87
Q

This is referred to as the “backbone of the cell”

A

Cytoskeleton

88
Q

It is a meshwork of protein rods and tubules

A

Cytoskeleton

89
Q

This is made up of dimers of tubulin.

A

Microtubules

90
Q

This is made up of actin molecules making up a long thin rod

A

Microfilaments

91
Q

This is made up of many protein dimers; its diameter is intermediary of microtubule and microfilament

A

Intermediate filaments

92
Q

It is a kind of disease that break downs intermediate filaments.

A

Giant Axonal Neuropathy (GAN)

93
Q

This is often referred to as “cell death”

A

Apoptosis

94
Q

The division of DNA and the rest of the cell

A

Mitosis and Cytokinesis

95
Q

Part of the cell cycle where the cell continues basic functions

A

Interphase

96
Q

Part of the cell cycle where there is division of DNA and the rest of the cell

A

Mitosis and Cytokinesis

97
Q

Part of the cell cycle where the cells die; A genetically programmed sequence of events

A

Apoptosis

98
Q

What are the two major parts of the cell cycle?

A

Interphase and Mitosis

99
Q

What composes the Interphase?

A

G1, S, and G2 phases

100
Q

Phase where protein synthesis and other biomolecules are also synthesized in preparation for cell division

A

G1 and G2

101
Q

Phase where DNA replication happens

A

S phase

102
Q

This is made up of microtubules

A

Mitotit Spindle

103
Q

Unreplicated chromosome; when this replicates, condensation happens making it tighly coiled

A

Chromatid

104
Q

Unreplicated chromosome; when this replicates, condensation happens making it tighly coiled

A

Chromatid

105
Q

The space between the sister chromatids

A

Furrow

106
Q

The middle part where the sister chromatids attach

A

Centromere

107
Q

This is where the mitotic spindle attaches

A

Centriole

108
Q

The phase in Cell Division where the DNA coils tightly and the nucleolus is not visible

A

Prophase

109
Q

The phase in Cell Division where the chromosomes attach the spindle at their centromeres and align along the cell’s equator

A

Metaphase

110
Q

The phase in Cell Division where the centromeres divide and chromatids separate and become independent chromosomes.

A

Anaphase

111
Q

The phase in Cell Division where the spindle falls apart and the nucleoli and membranes around the nuclei form at each end of the elongated cell.

A

Telophase

112
Q

The phase in Cell Division where the cells looks like a dumbell

A

Telophase

113
Q

When does cytoplasmic division occur?

A

After the nuclear division is complete

114
Q

This is where the cells are taking a pause to check if DNA has a damage and properly replicated before it reproduces

A

DNA Damage Checkpoint

115
Q

This promotes the cell to survive

A

Apoptosis Checkpoint

116
Q

This is where the cells check the status of chromosomes attached in the mitotic spindle

A

Spindle Assembly checkpoint

117
Q

This is often referred to as the “internal clock of the cell”

A

Telomeres

118
Q

This is located at the ends of the chromosomes

A

Telomeres

119
Q

This contains hundreds to thousands of repeats of a 6-base DNA sequence (TTAGGG)

A

Telomeres

120
Q

Another type of cell cycle control

A

Crowding

121
Q

This is produced by a certain gland such as endocrine gland and will be released to the blood stream until it reaches its target effect or organ

A

Hormones

122
Q

A more localized process like the growth factors needed in bone marrow to be able to create certain blood cells.

A

Growth Factors

123
Q

These are outside substances/ forces that affect the cell cycle

A

Hormones and Growth Factors

124
Q

What proteins interact inside the cells and activate the genes whose products carry out mitosis

A

Cyclins and Kinases

125
Q

What killer enzymes are activated in Apoptosis?

A

Caspases

126
Q

What cells digest the remains in apoptosis?

A

Phagocytes

127
Q

What do dying cells form?

A

They form bulges called blebs

128
Q

A cell death that has a physiologic cause

A

Apoptosis

129
Q

A cell death that has a pathologic cause; caused by a certain inflammation or infection that is not created by your body

A

Necrosis

130
Q

What do stem cells produce?

A

Two daughter cells or a stem cell and a progenitor cell

131
Q

How does a stem cell divide/

A

Mitosis

132
Q

These cells do not have the capacity of self-renewal; a more specialized cell

A

Progenitor Cells

133
Q

This type of cell can give rise to every cell type

A

Totipotent

134
Q

This type of cell have fewer possible fates

A

Pluripotent

135
Q

This type of cell have only a few developmental choices

A

Multipotent

136
Q

The 3 general sources of human stem cells

A

Embryonic Stem Cells (ES), Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPS), Adult Stem Cells

137
Q

A type of stem cell created in a lab dish using the inner cell mass (ICM) of an embryo.

A

Embryonnic Stem (ES) cells

138
Q

A type of stem cell where somatic cells are repogrammed to differentiate into any of several cell types

A

Induced Pluripotent Stem (iPS) cells

139
Q

A type of stem cell that is tissue-specific or somatic cells (acquired from someone who has a certain disease)

A

Adult stem cells

140
Q

What are formed from special cells called germ line cells?

A

Gametes

141
Q

What is produced in meiosis?

A

4 daughter cells

142
Q

Referred to as “reduction division”, this reduces the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23

A

Meiosis 1

143
Q

Referred to as “equational division”, this produces four cells from the two produced in Meiosis 1

A

Meiosis 2

144
Q

In Mitosis, how many daughter cells are produced?

A

Only two (2)

145
Q

What cell division occurs in somatic cells?

A

Mitosis

146
Q

What cell division occurs in germ line cells?

A

Meiosis

147
Q

The purpose of this cell division is for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction

A

Mitosis

148
Q

The purpose of this cell division is for sexual reproduction, and producing new gene combinations

A

Meiosis

149
Q

Phase in Meiosis 1 where homologs pair-up and undergo crossing over

A

Prophase 1

150
Q

Phase in Meosis where homologous pairs align along the equator of the cell

A

Metaphase 1

151
Q

Phase in Meiosis where homologous chromosomes separate to opposite poles of the cell

A

Anaphase 1

152
Q

Phenomenon in which the sistser chromatids exchange certain genetic molecules

A

Cross-over phenomenon

153
Q

Phase in Meiosis 1 where the spindle disappaears but centromers of each homolog remain together

A

Telophase 1

154
Q

Phase in Meiosis 2 where nuclear envelope fragments and the spindle forms and fibers attach to both chromosomes

A

Prophase 2

155
Q

Phase in Meiosis 2 where chromosomes align along the equator of the cell

A

Metaphase 2

156
Q

Phase in Meiosis 2 where sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of cell

A

Anaphase 2

157
Q

Phase in Meiosis 2 where the nuclear envelope reforms and separates into individual cells

A

Telophase 2

158
Q

This is where the primary spermatocyte produces two haploid secondary spermatocytes

A

Meiosis 1

159
Q

This is where each secondary spermatocyte produces two equal-sized spermatids

A

Meiosis 2

160
Q

MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE

Age has nothing to do with sperm quality

A

FALSE; The quality of sperm produced are not that good as the male ages

161
Q

A disease in which the person has short-limbed dwarfism; non lethal

A

Achondroplasia

162
Q

A disease in which there is premature fusion of skull bones in infancy, causing wide-spaced and bulging eyes, beaked nose, short upper lip, small upper jaw, jutting lower jaw

A

Crouzan Syndrome

163
Q

A disease in which there are cancers of thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal glands

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2

164
Q

A disease in which there is premature fusion of skull bones in infancy and fused fngers and toes

A

Pfeiffer Syndrome

165
Q

A disease in which there is severe short-limbed dwarfism; is lethal

A

Thanatophoric Dysplasia

166
Q

This begins with a diploid oogonium

A

Oogenesis

167
Q

This is considered an embryo for the first 8 weeks

A

Prenatal Human

168
Q

When is a child considered a fetus?

A

From the start of Week 9 until birth

169
Q

A fertilized Ovum

A

Zygote

170
Q

The unuon of sperm and oocyte

A

Fertilization

171
Q

What aids sperm penetration?

A

Acrosomal Enzymes

172
Q

The stage in early prenatal development 12 to 24 hours following ovulation

A

Fertilized Ovum

173
Q

The stage in early prenatal development 30 hours to the third day

A

Cleavage

174
Q

The stage in early prenatal development in the third to fourth day

A

Morula

175
Q

The stage in early prenatal development in the fifth day through the second week

A

Blastocyst

176
Q

The stage in early prenatal development at the end of the second week

A

Gastrula

177
Q

When is the placenta fully formed in embyonic formation?

A

By 10 weeks

178
Q

The primary germ layer which is the outermost layer

A

Ectoderm

179
Q

The primary germ layer which is the middle layer

A

Mesoderm

180
Q

The primary germ layer which is the Innermost layer

A

Endoderm

181
Q

This type of mulitple birth is where two sperm fertilize two oocytes

A

Dizygotic Twins (Fraternal)

182
Q

This type of multiple birth arise from a single fertilized ovum?

A

Monozygotic Twins

183
Q

The transformation of the simple three germ layers into distinct organs.

A

Organogenesis

184
Q

When does all the organs that will be present in the newborn begin to develop

A

Week 8 of Embryo Development

185
Q

What happens in week 3 of embryonic development?

A

A band called the primitive streak appears along the back of the embryo

186
Q

When do sex organs become more distinct?

A

By week 6

187
Q

When will vocal cords be formed in fetus growth?

A

By week 18

188
Q

When does the fetal brain cell link into networks as organs elaborate and grow, and fat fills out the skin?

A

The Final Trimester

189
Q

MODIFED TRUE OR FALSE

Most birth defects develop during the fetus growth

A

FALSE; Most birth defects develop during the embryonic period

190
Q

MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE

Birth defects that arise during fetal growth are more severe

A

FALSE; Birth defects that arise during embryonic period are more severe than those that arise during fetal period

191
Q

This is the time when genetic abnormalities, toxc substances, or viruses can alter a specific structure

A

Critical Period

192
Q

These are chemicals or other agents that cause birth defects

A

Teratogens

193
Q

These can affect how certain genes can create risks that appear later

A

Environmental Factors

194
Q

The average lifespan of a person living with Ataxia Telangiecstacia

A

19 - 25

195
Q

The average life span of a person living with Cockayne Syndrome

A

20

196
Q

The average lifespan of a person living with Hutchingson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome

A

13

197
Q

The average lifespan of a person living with Rothmund-Thomson Syndrome

A

Normal

198
Q

The average lifespan of a person living with Tricothiodystrophy

A

10

199
Q

The average lifespan of a person living with Werner Syndrome

A

50

200
Q

When was the term “genome” coined?

A

1920

201
Q

This refers to a complete set of chromosomes and its genes

A

Genome

202
Q

This is the study of genomes

A

Genomics

203
Q

When was the term “genomics” coined?

A

1986

204
Q

This distinguishes DNA sequences that are at least 5,000 kilobases apart.

A

Cytogenic Map

205
Q

This distinguishes genes hundreds of kilobases apart

A

Linkage Map

206
Q

This distinguishes genes tens of kilobases apart

A

Physical Map

207
Q

This depicsts the order of bases

A

Sequence Map

208
Q

Gene-by-gene approach that matches single genes to specific diseases.

A

Positional Cloning

209
Q

When did the Human Genome project emerge?

A

1980s

210
Q

When did the Human Genome Project start?

A

1990

211
Q

When was the sequence of the Human Genome Project finished?

A

2003

212
Q

When was the draft of the Human Genome Project?

A

2001

213
Q

This enables researches to find protein-encoding genes.

A

Expressed Sequence Tag (EST) Technology

214
Q

This displays short DNA molecules

A

DNA microarrays

215
Q

To ease the comparisons and interpretations of the human genome, researchers derived a reference genome sequence which is a digital DNA sequence
assembles from the most common base at each point
of sequenced genomes.

A

Comparative Genetics

216
Q

The description and significance of a particular gene variant

A

Annotation

CytoGenetics (3 decks)

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