Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AAW - GI > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what does intrinsic factor do

A

help absorption of b12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where are most of the parietal cells

where is most of the mixing and grinding of the stomach going on

A

fundus and body

antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what part of the stomach is richest in glands

A

body, where most of the parietal cells are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what stimulates g cells to produce gastrin

A

Amino acids

seeing food in your environment (cephalic phase) - preganglionic cholinergic nicotinic nerves release ACh to the GRP nerve, which releases GRP onto the gastrin cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

three molecules that positively upregulate your parietal cells

A

gastrin, histamine, ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

atropine - what would it do to parietal cells

A

blocks ACh and inhibits acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what hormone does your duodenum secrete when it sees an increase in hydrogen ions during the intestinal phase

A

secretin - an enterogastrone secreted by S cells

blocks secretion of histamine by ECL cells and gastrin by g cells

this is called the intestinal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens to your somatostatin levels during the cephalic phase

Gastrin levels?
Histamine?
ACh?

A

its still on - somatostatin is regulated mostly by pH of the stomach

gastrin levels are turned on by GRP, even though somatostatin is still on

histamine and ACh are also on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does H. pylori cause an ulcer

A

may be related to urease activity causing reduced somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

trefoil factor

A

secreted by surface mucous cells, increases gastroprotection and may regenerate epithelial layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gastroileal reflex

A

expansion of the stomach causes ileoceccal valve relaxation and transfer of contents from small to large bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gastrocolic reflex

A

induces the need to defecate after ingesting a meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some bacteria in the mouth that actually protect you against dental carries?

A

some GOOD oral streptococci

S. sanguinis
S. mitis

they produce peroxides that are harmful to other streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

one of the most common bad streptococcal bacteria of the mouth

virulence factors?

A

strep mutants (viridans group)

(alpha hemolytic, optochin resistant)

virulence: adhesin like surface proteins (AgI/II) that are capable of binding to receptors in the pellicle

Glucosyltransferases - synthesize glucans, a polysaccharide that gives S, mutans additional binding sites, as it binds avidly and in large numbers to these polymers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

some keystone pathogens in peridontal disease

A

porphyromonas gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ludwig’s angina

A

skin infection on floor of the mouth, usually results from untreated dental infections. Swelling of infected area may block the airway or prevent swallowing of saliva

can see REDNESS OF NECK

a number of different bacteria can cause it. one bacteria may initiate and opportunistic bacteria invade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

topical treatment for oral candidiasis

A

clotrimazole lozenge and nystatin suspension (swish and swallow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

virulence factors of H pylori

A

VacA: Pore forming cytotoxin that allows leakage of Ca from the epithelial cells of the gut - VACuumes all the calcium out

CagA: Type 4 secretion system is a needle that the bacteria use to inject CagA into the host cytosol, which affects the proliferative activities, adhesion, and cytoskeletal organization of epithelial cells. potentially assc with inactivation of tumor suppressor proteins. this system is HIGHLY PROINFLAMMATORY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

plicae circularis

A

in the small intestine, end at the illium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

does the muscularis mucosae extend in to the villus?

A

na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

difference between the villi and the plicae

A

villi are lined with all mucosal layer

plica are folds of submucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

brunner’s glands

what do they do
where are they

A

secrete alkaline mucus into lumen of duodenum, neutralize chyme

in submucosa and lamina propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

peyers patches

A

aggregates of lymphatic nodules in the ileum

produce IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

m-cells

A

in epithelium above patches(endocycytose antigen and transport it to underlying peyers patches)

in ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

acinar ducts

A

ducts in the pancreas - entirely serous

this means they secrete enzymes - these enzymes help break down stuff in the gut (they make zymogens aka enzyme precursors)

inside is very eosinophillic, outside is basophillic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which has the more prominent capsule - parotid or pancreas

A

parotid

also lobules and interlobules or more easily seen in parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where do you see rokitansky aschodd sinuses

A

in the gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what has a very tall columnar epithelium

A

the gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

fructose transporter protein

A

GLUT 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

function of GLUT 2

A

on the basolateral membrane of enterocytes.

transports monosaccharides into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how to you make trypsin in the intestine

A

trypsinogen is converted to it by enteropeptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do the enterocytes absorbe peptides

A

cotransported through PEPT1 with H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how are amino acids transported into the enterocyts

A

cotransported with sodium (secondary active transport because of NaK ATPase)

34
Q

what cells secrete pepsin and lipase

A

chief cells

which also secrete pepsinogen

35
Q

why is lipase not overactive in the pancreas but it works in the lumen

A

colipase is only active in the lumen, and it is what allows lipase to bind to fat droplets and start cleaving

36
Q

olestra

A

indigestible fat, too big to be absorbed

37
Q

steatorrhea

A

fatty stool

38
Q

orlistat

A

pancreatic lipase inhibitor

can cause weight loss, but most people on it get steatorrhea and cramping

can cause vitamin a,d,e,k deff.

39
Q

what separates the mucosa from the submucosa in the intestine

A

muscularis mucosae (thin layer of smooth muscle)

40
Q

submucosal (meissner’s) plexi

A

in the submucosa (duh)

largely comprised of parasympathetic post-ganglionic cell bodies, pre- and post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers, and post ganglionic (duh) sympathetic fibers

41
Q

Rokitansky-Aschoff

A

sinuses of rokitansky aschoff are large outpocketings in the main lumen of the GALL BLADDER

42
Q

labss in pancreatitis

A

amylase and lipase elevated
lipase is more sensitive and specific
lipase will not show up in chronic pancreatitis

increased WBC left shift
increased glucose 
dehydration
LDH/AST up
Ca down
albumin down
O2 down

look for swelling and inflammation on CT

43
Q

erosion vs ulceration

A

ulceration go past the mucosa into the submucosa or further

44
Q

organism that can cause gastritis that has a resevoir in cats, dogs, pigs, etc

A

helicobacter heilmannii - still use that diff-quick blue stain shit that isn’t in FA

45
Q

“chronic atrophic gastritis”

A

usually this refers to autoimmune gastritis

46
Q

most common metastatic tumors to the peritoneum

A

ovarian and pancreatic carcinoma

47
Q

idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

dense fibrosing process that can result in renal failure due to ureteral obstruction

can see calcification of the aorts

48
Q

when do ya get spoon nails

A

plummer-vinson syndrome

49
Q

List the three most common types of infectious esophagitis that can occur in immunocompromised patients.

A

Candida
herpes simplex
CMV

50
Q

esophageal mucosa shows burrows, concentric rings, and is studded with whitish-gray nodular plaques

biopsy shows marked reactive squamous hyperplasia

patient is allergic to stuff in the stem probs

what other cells are you looking for and what is the likely diagnosis

A

eosinophilic esophagitis

only 40-50% of them show mild levels of eosinophils

51
Q

EGFR amplification: what cancer of the upper gi system

A

adenocarcinoma

52
Q

most common benign mesenchymal tumor of the esophagus

A

leiomyoma

53
Q

menetrier’s

A

excessive secretion of transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-alpha) Diffuse hyperplasia of foveolar epithelium of the body and fundus of the stomach. Patients also experience protein losing enteropathy and hypoproteinemia, with diarrhea, weight loss, and peripheral edema. Some cases of Menetrier’s disease are associated with an infection (e.g. CMV in children).

at risk for gastric adenocarcinoma

54
Q

what is a gastrinoma

causes what syndrome

A

neuroendocrine tumor most commonly found in the pancreas and small bowel, can cause increased gastrin secretion (zollinger-ellison)

assc with MEN type I

55
Q

FAP causes what type of stomach polyp

A

cystic fundic gland (also caused by PPIs) and gastric adenoma

also is associated with gastric adenocarcinoma

56
Q

Mesenchymal polypoid proliferation composed of a mixture of stromal spindle cells, small blood vessels, and inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils.

A

inflammatory fibroid polyp

57
Q

tumor in the stomach (usually) that has a gain of function mutation of the gene encoding receptor tyrosine kinase KIT

A

GIST

cells differentiate towards interstitial cells of Cajal.

can also have mutations that activate a receptor tyrosine kinase called platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha

58
Q

imatinib used for what gastric thing

A

GIST

imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor

59
Q

neutrophil count in ascitic fluid that indicates infection

A

250/ml

60
Q

microbes that cause carries vs ones that cause gingivitis

which are gram +? -?

A

carries = positive

peridontal disease = negative

61
Q

azole mech

A

block production of ergosterol and causes an accululation of toxic sterols, causing membrane stress

block the enzyme lanosterol demethylase

62
Q

thing that can treat peptic ulcer disease that can precipitate abortion

A

misoprostol

63
Q

drug used for peptic ulcers that can cause gynecomastia

A

cimetidine, an H2 blocker

also inhibits CYPs (“cimminon” rolls in mneumonic)

64
Q

antibiotic used for h pylori that causes anorexia, nausia, vom, diarrhea

A

clarithromycin

65
Q

diclofenac
what is it
what is it given with sometimes to prevent a stomach thing

A

NSAID

given with misoprostol (PGE analogue) to stop it from causing ulcers

66
Q

sucralfate

A

Sucralfate is a sucrose sulfate-aluminium complex that binds to the ulcer, creating a physical barrier that protects the gastrointestinal tract from stomach acid and prevents the degradation of mucus. It also promotes bicarbonate production and acts like an acid buffer with cytoprotective properties.

can be given in the ICU for stress ulcers

67
Q

class of clarithromycin

A

macrolide, binds 50s subunit

68
Q

drugs that cause anorexia, blurred vision, constipation, confusion, dry mouth, sedation

A

atropine, pirenzipine

the antimuscarinics (M1 blockers)

blocks acid secretion in the stomach

69
Q

-tidine

which one inhibits cyp450, what SE does it have

A

H2 blocker

cimetidine - gynecomastia, impotence in males, galactorrhea in females

70
Q

antacid that causes constipation?

which causes diarrhea?

A

aluminum - aluminimum amount of feces

magnesium - osmotic diarrgea

71
Q

which antacid causes mild alkalosis? which can cause severe alkalosis? Milk-alkali syndrome?

A

calcium carbonate - mild systemic alkalosis

sodium bicarbonate - severe metabolic alkalosis

both cause milk alkali syndrome (hypercalcemia with impaired renal function if taken with dairy products

72
Q

what is sucralfate

what can’t you take it with and why

A

acid in stomach converts it to a paste –> sticks to ulcer like a band-aid

requires acidic environment (can’t give with PPIs or H2 blockers)

73
Q

esomeprazole vs omeprazole

A

some people are poor metabolizers (CYP2C19) of omeprazole, so they use esomeprazole

esomeprazole is the same active ingredient, but the stereochemistry is different and doesn’t need to be activated as much

74
Q

bradycardia and hypotension

what ulcer treatment drug

A

H2 blocker

tidines

75
Q

confusion, hallucinations, agitation

what ulcer treatment drug

A

H2 blockers

tidines

76
Q

DOC in zollinger-ellison to stop acid secretion

A

PPI

77
Q

what is the secretin test and what is it used for

A

give secretin to the patient to stimulate bicarb release from the pancreas

in a normal patient, the pH would go up

in a ZE syndrome patient, the pH stays low

PPIs interfere with the secretin test, causing a false neg in ZE syndrome

78
Q

what drug used for h pylori SHOULD be taken with a meal

A

tetracycline

79
Q

what does monitor peptide do

A

it and CCK-RP cause release of CCK from I cells into the blood

these are shut off when trypsin cleaves them

80
Q

function of GLP-1

released from what cells

A

secreted from intestinal L cells, causes increased insulin and decreased glucagon with glucose is ingested

Gliptins increase it’s stability

81
Q

IgG4 related disease we talked about

A

type 1 autoimmune pancreatitis

AAW - GI (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions