Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AAW - GI > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

innervation to the submandibular gland

A 
superior salivatory nucleus
facial nerve
chorda tympani, 
trigeminal nerve's lingual nerve
submandibular ganglion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

innervation to the parotid

A 
Inferior salvitory nucleus to
glossopharyngeal to
tympanic to
lesser petrosal to
otic ganglion to
auriculotemporal (branch of the mandibular)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

innervation to sublingual gland

A

chorda tympani off of facial nerve
lingual nerve
submandibular ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

white adipose tissue role in metabolism of sugars

A

Ferments glucose to glycerol 3-phosphate, the backbone for triacylglycerol synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why do you have high insulin in a hypercatabolic state

A

you need a little insulin around for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

amylose

A

a bunch of glucose linked (1,4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

amylopectin

A

chains of glucose in 1,4 linkages that are linked to other chains (1,6)

chemically similar to glycogen, but not as branched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

four enzymes at the brush border of the gut epithelial cells

A

breakdown di and tri saccharides into mono

maltase-glucoamylase. An exoglycosidase - cleaves a 1-4 bond of maltose to form two molecules of glucose - it is the exoglycosidase version of alpha-amylase - activity is highest in illium - lysosomal alpha1,4-glucosidase (acid maltase) is defective in pompe disease (pompe trashes the pump - heart liver muscle)

sucrase/isomaltase complex - two extracellular domains with different substrate specificities - the isomaltase activity cuts the 1,6 bonds in amylopectin, the sucrose domain cuts sucrose - activity is highest in jejunum (in the liver, deficiency of the 1,6 debranching enzyme is cori disease (milder form of von girke with no increase in blood lactate))

trehalase - cleaves trehalose - disaccharide of glucose (1,1)

beta-glycosidase complex - b-glycosidase complex is a glycophosphatidylinositol (GPI) glycan anchored protein with two catalytic domains.
Glucosyl ceramide domain: Cuts glucose and galactose from glucosylceramide and galatosylceramide
Lactase domain: Splits the 1,4 bond in lactose to make galactose and glucose. (loss of beta-glucosidase in lysosomes –> gauchers!!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

endoglycosylase

A

e.g. amylase

cuts carbohydrates into di and tri saccharides `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

amylase activity is highest in this part of the gi tract

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why did i get diarrhea when i ate a whole tub of cottage cheese that one time

A

Without lactase, bacteria ferment lactose to lactic acid. Water enters the lumen of the gut to balance difference in proton concentration, causing diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sucrase

A

cleaves sucrose to fructose and glucose

its how high fructose corn syrup is made ya dingus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in hypercatabolism, what hormone causes muscle protein breakdown

A

cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does Epinepherine cause the “ebb” phase in hypercatabolism

A

it activate hormone sensitive lipase, which moves fatty acids out of the adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most important hormone for storage in fed state

Most important enzyme for catabolism

A

Insulin

Glucagon (when glucose in gone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are Insulin’s actions intracellularly?

A

Tyrosine kinase transmembrane protein, leads to inactivation of Glycogen phosphorylase and activation of glycogen synthase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where do preganglionic sympathetic neurons lie in the spinal chord

A

intermediolateral cell column

in the thoracolumbar (t1 to l2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the names for the nerves that leave the intermediolateral cell column and go straight to the organs without going into the prevertebral ganglia

A

splanchnic

the go to peripheral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pregangionic parasympathetic origins for the gut

A

vagus and S2,3,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the vagus “turn into” below the level of the trachial bifurcation

A

the esophageal plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

nerve that supplies motor to the diaphragm

A

phrenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what part of the colon does the vagus supply

A

the midgut and foregut derived parts

transverse colon, proximal colon

BASICALLY IT STOPS AT THE SPLENIC FLEXURE SHE SAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which part of the vagus - anterior or posterior - supplies the greater curvature of the stomach

A

posterior supplies greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what supplies the posterior and lower portions of the colon with parasympathetic activity

A

pelvic splanchnic

(cell bodies in s234)

they leave the motor neurons they were traveling with and enter the inferior hypogastric plexus

then they follow the inferior hypogastric plexus to the organs right there, or they can travel all the way up to the superior hypogastric plexus (which is near the inferior mesenteric artery) and ride with that to innervate sections of the hindgut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pudendal nerve

A

from s234

carrying sensation and voluntary motor to the external urinary and anal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Odynophagia vs dysphagia

A

Odynophagia - pain on swallowing

vs

dysphagia - symptom resulting from the failure to move a food bolus from the mouth to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

esophageal dysphagia

solids only - intermittent
solids only - progressive

solids/liquids - intermittent
solids/liquids - progressive

A

solids only - intermittent - lower esophageal ring
solids only - progressive - peptic stricture or cancer (esp. if >50)

solids/liquids - intermittent - diffuse spasm, NEMD, Nutcracker
solids/liquids - progressive - Achalasia, scleroderma (CREST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

where and what are the names of the four papillae of the tounge

A

filliform - cover most of the tounge - keratinized and v-shaped

fungiform - larger papilli that are fewer in number and scattered throughout the tounge

circumvallate - large round papillae at the posterior of the tounge

foliate papillae - on the sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what papilla are keratinized

A

filliform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what papillae are club shaped

A

fungiform - they have a expansive lamina propria, non-keratinized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what papillae are supplied by cranial nerve 7

A

fungiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what papillae are supplied by the glosopharingeal

A

circumvallate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

smallest type of ducts

A

intercalated ducts

34
Q

what gives striated ducts their striated apperance

A

ER

35
Q

myoepithelial cells

A

specialized smooth muscle cells between serous and/or mucous cells and basement membrane

assist in discharge from the secretory cells

36
Q

what alveoli stain very darkly

A

serous alveoli, because they have a lot of ER for making protein

37
Q

what type of epithelium is on the papillae of the tounge

A

stratified squamous

38
Q

pyogenic granuloma

A

polypoid red lesion composed of lobular reactive proliferation of capillaries

usually on the gingiva in children, young adults, pregnant women

39
Q

what gives leukoplakia its white appearance

A

hyper or parakeratosis

40
Q

actinic chelitis

A

leukoplakic lesion of the lower lip with loss of the distinct demarcation between the lower lip vermilion border and the skin of the lip

actinic keratosis of the bottom lip

hyperkeratosis and connective tissue solar elastosis

41
Q

adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

slow growing salivary gland neoplasm

relentless in its growth and can invade the perineurium of nerves around it

Despite surgical resection, 50% disseminate to lungs, bone, liver, and brain, often decades after removal. While 5-year survival rate is 60-70%, survival drops to 30% at 10 years and 15% at 15 years

42
Q

you see a bunch of eosinophils and neutrophils on an esophageal biopsy

is it eosinophillic esophagitis?

A

no

in EE you don’t see neutrophils

43
Q

chondromyxoid stroma and epithelium

what you thinkking

A

pleomorphic adenoma

44
Q

patient comes in with pellagra like symptoms and neutral aminoaciduria

A

hartnup disease, inherited mutations in the B(not) transporter ( SLC6A9 transporter)

failure to absorb tryptophan

(tryptophan is used to synthesize niacin)

45
Q

cystinuria defect

A

defect in the B(not)+ (SLC7A9 transporter) gene leads to basic aminoaciduria causing kidney stones

cannot uptake cystine (not cysteine)

46
Q

structure of glutathione

A

glycine-cystine-glutamate

glutamate is “rotated” 180 degrees

47
Q

enzyme that can cleave glutathione

A

gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)

increased in various liver and biliary diseases (just as
ALP can), but not in bone disease; associated
with alcohol use

48
Q

AMPK role

A

inhibits protein synthesis by activating TSC1 and 2, which blocks mTORC1

promotes autophagy and catabolism

metformin makes it active, tricking the cell into thinking that it is in an energy deprived state

49
Q

key cofactors in aminoacid metabolism

A

pyridoxal phosphate (B6) (PLP) - transaminations (ALT and AST use it), deaminations, carbon chain transfers. Synthesis of cystathionine, heme, niacin, histamine, and neurotransmitters like serotonin, epi, norepi, dopamine, and GABA (def causes - seizures, diarrhea, sideroblastic anemia (impared heme synthesis and iron excess), EEG abnormalities)

tetrahydrofolate (B9) - one carbon transfers (def causes - megaloblastic anemia)

tetrahydrobiopterin - ring hydroxylations (phe -> tyr) (def causes - PKU - seizures, developmental delays, fair skin, eczema, musty body odor) (PKU also can be from Phe hydroxylase def)

50
Q

what activates lipoprotein lipase

A

ApoC-II

its in the capillary beds

51
Q

what hormone causes the pancrease to secrete its enzymes

A

secretin

52
Q

what turns triacylglycerols in micelles into 2 fatty acids and a 2-monoacylglycerol

A

pancreatic lipase

the products can be taken up by gut epithelial cells

53
Q

nascent chylomicrons vs mature

A

mature contains Apoc-II, ApoE

both have ApoB-48

54
Q

what particle functions to distribute fat synthesized from carbohydrates to tissues

A

VLDL

55
Q

where is vit A stored in the liver

A

Stellate cell

56
Q

what molecule changes shape in you rod cells in the retina to signal to the brain that light is hitting it

A

cis-retinal gets converted to trans-retinal

cis retinal is bound to opsin. when it becomes trans-retinal, it dissociates and activates a g-protein coupled sodium channel which opens and HYPERpolarizes the rod cell. it is then recycled to cis-retinal

57
Q

retinoic acid’s effect on b-cells

A

stimulates them to move to the gut

58
Q

main functions of vitamin K

A

carboxylation, coagulation

59
Q

function of coumadin

A

blocks vitamin K epoxide reductase, cannot regenerate the hydroquinone version of vitamin K

60
Q

vitamin D can be synthesized de novo from what

A

cholesterol

61
Q

cholesterol gets converted to this form of vitamin D when hit with UV light

A

cholecalciferol

gets 25-hydroxylated in liver

1-hydroxylase in kidney (active form) (responsive to parathyroid hormone)

62
Q

TRPV6 function

A

takes up calcium at the brush border

is upregulated when activated vitamin D does its business as a transcription factor

63
Q

calbindin function

A

once calcium gets into the gut epithelial cell, this transports it from the TRPV6 channel to the Ca/ATPase which puts Ca into the blood

64
Q

how does vit D prevent colorectal cancer

A

stabilizes beta-catenin

65
Q

this blocks the action of parathyroid hormone

A

calcitonin

also it is a medullary thyroid carcinoma tumor marker

66
Q

function of calmodulin

A

Carries calcium around the cell

and example he talked about:

If epi or norepi hits a muscle cell, it activates phopholipase C, making IP3, which makes the ER secrete Ca, which binds calmodulin and then:

shuts off glycogen synthase

turns on glycogen phosphorylase

67
Q

high doses of this can be used to treat hyperphosphatemia secondary to kidney failure

A

Ca

blocks phosphorous uptake

68
Q

mutation in thiazide sensitive NaCl transporter

what are your ion disturbances

A

gitelman syndrome

hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, hypocalciuria

69
Q

bacteria breaks down stuff to provide fuel for colonocytes

what is the stuff?

A

they break down fiber into short chain FA

get uptaken by monocarboxylate transporter

70
Q

SCFAs effect our immunity how

A

act as a ligand for GPR43

e.g. in the macrophage inflammatory cytokines go down, IL-10 goes up (antiinflammatory.

71
Q

GPR43 in adipose

A

decreased fat storage as TAG, and insulin sensitivity when activated

72
Q

what does PKB/Akt do

A

it is a downstream signal of insulin binding.

inactivates glycogen synthase kinase

activates protein phosphatase 1 (PP1), which makes:

  • glycogen synthase is DEPHOSPHORYLATED and ACTIVE
  • glycogen phosphorylase is DEPHOSPHORYLATED AND INACTIVE.

INSULIN –> DEPHOSPHORYLATION –> SYNTHESIZE GLYCOGEN

73
Q

what happens to glucagon if you eat a protein rich meal

A

After eating a protein rich meal, elevated amino acids in the blood increase the secretion of glucagon by pancreatic alpha cells. In this case, excess amino acids are used by the liver for gluconeogenesis

74
Q

in the fed state, gut epithelial cells use what as their primary fuel

A

glutamine, aspartate, gluatmate

75
Q

insulin and glucagon

which for PKA, which for PKB (downstream molecules)

A

insulin for PI3 –> PKB (think beta cells)

glucagon for cAMP –> PKA (think alpha cells!)

76
Q

Insulin and glucagon - which one causes a net phosphorylation event? dephosphorylation?

A

glucagon –> PKA –> phosphorylation
Insulin –> PKB –> dephosphorylation

glucagon as an example:

Glucagon causes:
Glycogen phosphorylase kinase phosphorylation and activation:
Glycogen phosphorylase is subsequently phosphorylated and activated

(remember glycogen phosphorylase breaks down glycogen stores for use)

Also Glycogen synthase is phosphorylated and inactivated by glucagon

77
Q

what happens to glycogen synthase when it is phosphorylated

A

it is inactivated

78
Q

the ATP power to drive gluconeogenesis comes from what source

A

the FAD2H and NADH reduced by fatty acid beta oxidation

79
Q

glucose enters the gut epithelial cell from the blood to be used as fuel. how is it used?

What is the primary source of food for the enterocyte in the fasting state\?

A

it is fermented to pyruvate, which is used as a nitrogen acceptor from glutamate to make alanine, which is exported back into the blood

primary source of food is glutamine, but from the blood, not from the lumen (glutamine is also the primary food source for lymphocytes)

80
Q

what signalling molecule mobilizes FA from adipose tissue during hypercatabolism

A

epinephrine activating hormone sensitive lipase

81
Q

nitrogen balance equation

A

Nitrogen balance = nitrogen intake – (urinary urea nitrogen + 2)

82
Q

where is apob-48 made

100?

A

RNA editing produces ApoB-48 in intestinal epithelial cells. The unedited transcript produces full length ApoB-100 in hepatocytes

AAW - GI (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions