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M1 Block 1 > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Name these components from largest to smallest unit:
Fascicle, Myofibril, Fiber, Sarcomere, Myofilament

A

Fascicle > Fiber > Myofibril > Myofilament > Sarcomere

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2
Q

What are thick and thin filaments composed of?

A

Thick: Myosin
Thin: Actin

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3
Q

Name and describe the three troponin complex components

A

Troponin T: Binds to tropomyosin and anchors troponin complex
Troponin C: Binds Ca+2
Troponin I: Binds to actin and inhibits actin-myosin interaction

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4
Q

What does Dystrophin do?

A

Large protein that links laminin of the ECM to actin

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5
Q

What does Destin do?

A

Intermediate filament. Forms a lattice

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6
Q

What does tropomodulin do?

A

Actin-capping protein. Maintains and regulates length

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7
Q

Describe the I band of a sarcomere

A

Spans between thin filament of 1 sarcomere to another, the midline includes the Z band

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8
Q

Describe the A band of a sarcomere

A

Comprised of thick filament and the M line. Also includes some thin & thick filament overlap

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9
Q

What the H band?

A

Comprised of only the M line and thick filament. As the sarcomere shortens, the H band shrinks

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10
Q

Of the A band, H band, and I band which one stays constant length regardless of contraction state of a muscle

A

A band remains constant

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11
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum? Name and structure/component of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that plays a significant role in muscle contraction

A
  • Network mesh surrounding myofibril -Terminal cisternae
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12
Q

What do terminal cisternae do? Where are they found?

A

They are the demarcation of the end of a sarcoplasmic reticulum. They release Ca+2 into the sarcoplasm via Ca+2 release channels

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13
Q

Describe the composition of a triad in skeletal muscle

A

T tubule with two adjacent terminal cisternae abutting against either side of the T tubule

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14
Q

What is the transverse tubular system?

A

It is an invagination of a sarcolemma that contains T tubules

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15
Q

What is the purpose of a T-tubule?

A

Contain voltage-sensor proteins that are activated by sarcolemma (cell membrane) depolarization. They affect Ca+2 release channels in adjacent terminal cisternae

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16
Q

What is the motor end plate?

A

Point of contact b/t two motor neuron axon & muscle fiber. Facilitates transmission of nerve impulses

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17
Q

Once the Na+ depolarizes a neuromuscular junction, what are the next 5 steps for skeletal myofibril

A

1.) Depolarization spreads to T tubules 2.) Voltage sensor proteins change conformation 3.) Ca+2 release channels activated 4.) Ca+2 rapidly released from SR 5.) Ca+2 binds to Troponin C of the troponin complex 9.) Excitation coupling begins and Ca+2 returns to terminal cisternae

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18
Q

What do satellite cells do in muscles?

A

Located b/t sarcolemma of a muscle fiber and its external lamina. Has a limited regenerative capacity

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19
Q

Myasthenia Gravis may appear clinically with ptosis, diplopia and dysphasia. What does the condition do to the body?

A

Autoimmune disorder wherein autoantibodies block or destroy ACh receptors at the NMJ. This damages the nerves. More common in women

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20
Q

What is the treatment for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Steroids which reduce antibodies the bind to ACh receptors

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21
Q

What are two known forms of Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Beckers (less severe) and Duchenne’s

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22
Q

What cellular component is disrupted in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Mutation of the gene which codes for dystrophin which disrupts the anchoring of cytoskeleton through the sarcolemma to the ECM

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23
Q

What are the repercussions of dystrophin mutation of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Sarcolemma tears during muscle contraction, Ca++ influx into the muscle cell and causes death and degeneration. This is then replaced by fatty deposits and connective tissue

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24
Q

Muscular dystrophy is an ____ linked recessive disorder

A

X linked

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25
Q

Why is Becker’s Muscular dystrophy less severe version?

A

The dystrophin protein is produced but truncated so less muscle fibrosis occurs

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26
Q

What is the foramen magnum?

A

Area of transition from brain to spinal cord

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27
Q

What structure is located behind brainstem and considered “the backpack to the brainstem”

A

The cerebellum

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28
Q

Name the layers within the skull from outermost to innermost:
Pia, Dura, Subarachnoid space, Arachnoid space

A

Dura > Arachnoid > Subarachnoid space > Pia matter

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29
Q

Where does the spinal cord normally end within the vertebral column?

A

L2

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30
Q

Where might one find trabeculae & blood vessels and filled with CSF regarding the meningeal layers?

A

Would find the subarachnoid space

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31
Q

List the order of Dens, Midbrain, and Medulla that sit superior to the foramen magnum in the brain. List from most superior to inferior

A

Midbrain > Medulla > Dens > Foramen magnum

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32
Q

What is different about the exiting of nerve in C1-C6 compared to C7 and T1-L5

A

C1-C6: nerves exit superior to the vertebrae, C7: C8 Nerve exits inferior to the vertebrae, T1-L5: Nerves exit inferior to the vertebrae

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33
Q

Describe the organization of nerves as they leave the spinal cord

A

Nerve roots extend from the spinal cord to converge into a ganglia then split again to form spinal nerves and Rami

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34
Q

What is a dorsal root ganglion?

A

Sit containing cell bodies of sensory neurons that reside in the intervertebral foramina

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35
Q

What and where are denticulate ligaments

A

Span from the Pia in the spinal cord, pierce through the arachnoid layer and attach to dura matter to stabilize the spinal cord

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36
Q

Aside from the denticulate ligaments, what is another component of the meningeal layers in the spinal cord that aids in stabilization

A

Arachnoid trabecula

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37
Q

What might be found in the lumbar cistern?

A

Cauda equine present, Large pool of CSF

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38
Q

Where does CSF come from?

A

Filtered from plasma through specialized blood vessels inside the ventricular brain system m

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39
Q

Describe the flow of CSF from brain to cauda equina

A

1st and 2nd ventricle houses specialized vessels which form CSF. From the L & R side they drain via interventricular foramen to the 3rd ventricle. The 3rd ventricle connects to the 4th via Cerebral aqueduct and exists to the spinal cord

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40
Q

T/F: During a lumbar puncture, some blood can be present even tho normal CSF is clear

A

True, during the first spinal tap called a traumatic tap. But if continues, could indicate hemorrhage

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41
Q

How does glucose levels compare in the CSF to other places in the body

A

Glucose in the CSF should be lower

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42
Q

How does protein composition compare in the CSF to the rest of the body?

A

Lower in the CSF

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43
Q

How does cellular components compare in the CSF to the rest of the body

A

There should be few if not no cells

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44
Q

Glucose in the CSF should be a lower value compared to the rest of the body. If glucose is high what might it indicate?

A

Bacteria or fungi are present feeding on the glucose

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45
Q

Normally protein levels should be lower in the CSF compared to other places in the body. If protein levels are abnormally high, what might this indicate?

A

Presence of auto antibodies further suspect inflammation or infection

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46
Q

CSF should be clear, if it is cloudy what might this indicate? If CSF has filaments, what might this indicate?

A

Bacterial infection: cloudy/colored
Fungal: clear solution with filaments inside

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47
Q

What artery is found within the suboccipital triangle?

A

Vertebral artery

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48
Q

What nerve travels through the suboccipital triangle for motor innervation

A

Suboccipital nerve

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49
Q

What is the deepest muscle of the lumbar back?

A

Multifidus

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50
Q

What nerve travels above obliquuis capitis inferior and rectus capitus major?

A

Greater occipital nerve

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51
Q

Name 5 types of resident cells in connective tissue

A

1.) Reticular
2.) Fibroblasts
3.) Mast Cells
4.) Macrophages
5.) Adipocytes

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52
Q

What are two types of transient cells of cells? From what do these cells arise from?

A

They come from hematopoietic stem cells
1.) Leukocytes
2.) Plasma cells

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53
Q

Immunoglobulins are secreted by what type of transient cell in connective tissue?

A

Plasma cells

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54
Q

Immunoglobulins are secreted by what type of transient cell in connective tissue?

A

Plasma cells

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55
Q

Extracellular matrix is composed of ________ _______________ & _______________. The ECM in its entirety are made from indications from the resident cells of connective tissue, is this true or false?

A

Ground substance and fibers
True

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56
Q

While Fibers may be considered part of the extracellular matrix, what type of resident cells of connective tissue synthesize the precursor for tropoelastin?

A

Fibroblasts

57
Q

Deposition of elastin in the form of fibers requires the presence of a template of microfibrils of the structural glycoprotein _______________ and associated glycoproteins. Cross-links involve _______________ and ____________________________

A

Fibrillin
desmosine

Isodesmosine

58
Q

Fibroblasts are not only responsible for synthesiszing components of elastin, they also aid in production of _________ & ___________.

A

Collagen
Myofibroblasts

59
Q

What do myofibroblasts do?

A

Aid in tissue repair and wound contraction

60
Q

The ECM of cells is partly comprised of ground substance. Three major kinds of macromolecules including: glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), ________________, and __________________ __________________. What is the most well known GAG?

A

proteoglycans
multiadhesive glycoproteins
Hylauronan (hyaluronic acid)

61
Q

The ECM of cells is partly comprised of ground substance. Three major kinds of macromolecules including: glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), ________________, and __________________ __________________. What is the most well known GAG?

A

proteoglycans
multiadhesive glycoproteins
Hyaluronan (hyaluronic acid)

62
Q

Some GAGs have__________________ proteoglycans associated with them. name 2

A

sulfated
Perlecan
Aggrecan

63
Q

Laminin and fibronectin are examples of:
They bind to integrin proteins

A

Examples of multiadhesive glycoproteins that are constituents of the ground substance of ECM in connective tissue

64
Q

All connective tissue originate from:

A

Mesoderm then embryonic mesenchyme

65
Q

Mast cells are regarded as resident cells of connective tissue. Describe their action in the immediate hypersensitivity response.

A

Release histamine which can result in urticaria, allergic rhinitis, asthma and anaphylactic shock

66
Q

Reticular cells are regarded as resident cells of connective tissue. What do they do?

A

Produce reticular fibers that form the netlike stroma of hematopoietic, lymphoid, and adipose tissue

67
Q

___________________ of the connective tissue originate from resident cells. They produce cytokines, _____________________chemotactic factors, and several other molecules that participate in inflammation, _______________ processing and presentation

A

Macrophages
Chemotactic
Antigen

68
Q

Which cells have secretory granules containing heparin, histamine and can display metachromasia?

A

Mast cells

69
Q

Macrophages secrete matrix of metalloproteinases which are:

A

Endopeptidates that are involved in remodeling and chronic inflammation

70
Q

Macrophages are involved in phagocytosis of ECM components and debris; ____________ process and presentation to immune cells, secretion of growth factors, cytokines, and other agents. To remove large foreign objects, such as splinters, macrophages may fuse to form:

A

Antigen
Multinuclear giant cells

71
Q

_________________ Connective tissue forms a layer beneath the epithelial lining of many organs and fills the spaces between fibers of muscle tissues and nerves. It is also known as: _______________ tissue.

A

Loose
Areolar

72
Q

1.) What type of fibers predominate in loose connective tissue?
2.) Why does this tissue have “delicate consistency”?

A

1.) Collagen fibers predominate, elastic and reticular fibers are also present
2.) Little ground substance

73
Q

1.) The reticular layer of the dermis, submucosa of the gut and many organ capsules are comprised of what type of connective tissue?
2.) The collagen network within this tissue provides:

A

1.) Dense irregular tissue
2.) Resistance to stress from all directions

74
Q

Why is damage to dense regular connective tissue slow?

A

This connective tissue is poorly vascularized

75
Q

Dense regular tissue is comprised of ________ _____ ___________ bundles and ______________. Some examples of this tissue are _________, aponeuroses, ____________, & deep fascia

A

Type I Collagen bundles
Fibroblasts
Tendons
Ligaments

76
Q

Mucoid connective is referred to as Wharton’s jelly that comprises umbilical cords. What makes it soft/“jelly” like?

A

Abundant ground substance with Hyaluronan (keeps water in)

77
Q

Wharton’s jelly is comprised of what type of connective tissue? Where else might this tissue be found?

A

Mucoid connective tissue
Can be found in intervertebral discs’ nucleus pulposus

78
Q

Ligamenta flava, Ligamentum nuchae, vocal ligaments, and suspensory ligament of penis are comprised of what type of connective tissue. Describe its composition

A

1.) Elastic connective tissue
2.) Fibers predominate most of which are elastic

79
Q

1.) What type of connective tissue creates networks for cells to be suspended on/within.
2.) What type of cells are scattered within this type of tissue?

A

1.) Reticular tissue
2.) Reticular cells, lymphocytes

80
Q

Within reticular connective tissue, little ____________ ____________ is found. It supports mobiles cells and filters body fluids and occurs mainly in _______________ tissues, such as bone marrow, spleen, and lymph nodes

A

Ground substance
Hematopoietic

81
Q

1.) What if found in high volumes of brown adipose connective tissue for its specialized role in temperature regulation?
2.) What does the uncoupling protein-1, thermogenin, do?

A

1.) Mitochondria
2.) It uncouples mitochondrial metabolism from production of ATP to produce heat

82
Q

What three basic components are found in all connective tissue types?

A

Cells, fibers and ground substance. Of which the latter two make up the ECM

83
Q

List the 7 types of connective tissue

A

1.) Loose/Areolar
2.) Dense irregular
3.) Dense regular
4.) Reticular CT
5.) Elastic CT
6.) Mucoid (mucous) connective tissue
7.) Adipose tissue

84
Q

Write the Henderson-Hasselbach Equation

A

pH = pKa + Log (Conjugate Base/Weak Acid)

85
Q

For every factor of 10 difference in [H+] proton represents a difference of ____ pH unit.
For every factor of 2 difference in [H+] proton represents a difference of _____ pH unit.

A

1
0.3

86
Q

For every factor of ____ difference in [H+] proton represents a difference of 1 pH unit.
For every factor of _____ difference in [H+] proton represents a difference of 0.3 pH unit.

A

10
2

87
Q

As carbon dioxide goes into solution, carbonic acid (H2CO3) is formed which then partially dissociates which:

A

Liberates H+ and makes the solution MORE acidic

88
Q

As carbon dioxide leaves solution, carbonic acid (H2CO3) is used up which:

A

uses up H+ protons and causes the solution to become LESS acidic and INCREASES the pH

89
Q

When pH < pKa what can you infer about the ratio of [A-]/[HA] aka CB/WA. Write the explanation

A

There is more weak acid compared to CB

90
Q

When pH > pKa what can you infer about the ratio of [A-]/[HA] aka CB/WA. Write the explanation

A

There is more Conjugate base in solution compared to Weak acid

91
Q

When pH = pKa what can you infer about the ratio of conjugate base to Weak acid?

A

They are in equilibrium

92
Q

List the names of three biological buffers

A

Bicarbonate
Hydrogen peroxide
Proteins

93
Q

What is the formula for carbonic acid?

A

H2CO3

94
Q

If pKa < pH what can you infer about the protonation state of an ionizable group?

A

Depronated

95
Q

If pKa > pH what can you infer about the protonate state of an ionizable group?

A

Protonated

96
Q

If pH > pKa what can you infer about the protonation state of the ionizable groups?

A

Deprotonated

97
Q

If pH < pKa what can you infer about the protonation state of the ionizable groups?

A

Protonated

98
Q

pH < ____ is considered acidosis

A

7.35

99
Q

pH > _______ is considered Alkalosis

A

7.45

100
Q

pH > _______ is considered Alkalosis

A

7.45

101
Q

Normal values are as follows:
pH = 7.4 +/- 0.5
[CO2] = ____ mM
P ______ = 40 mmHg
[HCO3] aka ________= 24 mM

A

1.2
Pressure CO2
Bicarbonate

102
Q

For a molecule with one amine and one carboxyl group, how can one determine the isoelectric point?

A

pI = (pKa1+ pKa2)/ 2

103
Q

For a molecule with 2 amines and one carboxyl group, how can we determine the isoelectric point?

A

pI = (pKa 2 + pKa3) / 2

104
Q

How can we determine the isoelectric of a molecule with 2 carboxyl groups and 1 amine group?

A

pI = (pKa1 + pKa2) /2

105
Q

What is the acronym for remembering essential Amino Acids?

A

PVT TIM HALL

106
Q

_______________________ is an acute form of childhood protein-energy malnutrition characterized by an enlarged liver with fatty infiltrates , edema and ulcerative dermatitis

A

Kwashiorkor

107
Q

Aside from symptoms, what is a distinguishing factor between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus?

A

Marasmus is calorie deprivation while Kwashiorkor is protein-energy deprivation

108
Q

__________________ is the smallest amino acid. It is a precursor for collagen and is also an inhibitory ________________________.

A

Glycine
Neurotransmitter

109
Q

Which amino acids can be used for O-linked glycosylation?

A

Serine/Threonine & Tyrosine

110
Q

Which amino acids can be used for N-linked glycosylation?

A

Asparagine

111
Q

Phenylalanine synthesizes which other amino acid?
This A.A. is a precursor for dopamine, epinephrine, and melanin

A

Tyrosine

112
Q

What is the charge of ACIDIC amino acids at PHYSIOLOGIC pH?

A

Negatively charged

113
Q

What is the charge of BASIC amino acids a physiologic pH?

A

Positively charged

114
Q

When considering isotonic force, describe the tension and length of the muscle

A

In isotonic force, the tension remains constant while the length changes for the muscle

115
Q

When considering isometric force, describe the length and tension of the muscle

A

In isometric force, the tension will increase while the length will remain constant

116
Q

Active tension is directly proportional to:

A

The number of myosin-actin bridges formed

117
Q

Respiratory acidosis may be indicated by:
1.)
2.)

A

1.) Decreased ventilation
2.) Increased pCO2

118
Q

Decreased ventilation and increased pCO2 (pCO2 greater than 40) would indicate:

A

Respiratory Acidosis

119
Q

What is H2CO3?

A

Carbonic acid
an intermediate of the bicarbonate buffer system

120
Q

What is HCO-3?

A

Bicarbonate ion

121
Q

When considering the bicarbonate buffer system, is CO2 an acid or base?

A

Can be considered an acid since its conjugate base is HCO3

122
Q

Metabolic Acidosis exhibits

A

Decreased HCO-3, bicarbonate

123
Q

Decreased extracellular fluid HCO3- concentration of less than 24 mm and PCO2 < 40 mm Hg after partial respiratory compensation is:

A

Metabolic acidosis

124
Q

Decreased extracellular fluid HCO3- concentration of less than 24 mm and PCO2 < 40 mm Hg after partial respiratory compensation is:

A

Metabolic acidosis

125
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

Increased ventilation and decreased PCO2

126
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis?

A

Increased xtracellular fluid HCO3- (bicarbonate) concentration

127
Q

How can you determine molar concentration if only given pH

A

pH = - log [H+]
10 ^ (-molar concentration)

128
Q

How can you calculate the pI of a molecule with one amine and one carboxyl group?

A

pI = (pKa 1 + pKa2) / 2

129
Q

What is the inflection point on a titration curve? What does it incidate?

A
  • It is the isoelectric point
  • At what pH is the net charge of the molecule 0
  • where the concentration of acid and conj. base are equal
130
Q

How can you calculate the pI of a molecule with 1 amine and 2 carboxyl groups?

A

pI = (pKa1 + pKa2) / 2

131
Q

An increase in bicarbonate ion causes:
Why?

A

pH to rise
According to the bicarbonate buffer system, if the log ratio of conjugate base to weak acid will rise and cause the overall pH to rise

132
Q

What compound is the first to loose its proton when titrating a compound?

A

COOH will loose H+ first

133
Q

When pH is low, what charge will the amino group have?

A

NH+3
Groups will be protonated

134
Q

When pH is > 2, what groups will be deprontonated?

A

Carboxyl and R group are deprotonated

135
Q

When pH < 9 which which group will be protonated?

A

amino group

136
Q

What is the normal concentration of CO2?

A

1.2

137
Q

What is the normal partial pressure of CO2?

A

40 mmHg

138
Q

What is the normal concentration of bicarbonate? What is HCO-3?

A

concentration of Bicarbonate 24 mmHg

M1 Block 1 (6 decks)

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