Foundations of Medicine Flashcards
(282 cards)
1
Q
Describe the type of phospholipids on the outerleaflet of the membrane
A
Sphingomyelin & phosphatidylcholine
2
Q
Describe a peripheral proteins vs an integral protein
A
Peripheral: Assoc. with cell membrane but are easily removed
Integral: Protruding from only one membrane surface or transmembrane-spanning throughout the membrane
3
Q
What are the more common type of phospholipids found on the OUTER leaflet of the plasma membrane (applicable in RBC)
A
1.) Sphingomyelin (SM)
2.) Phosphatidylcholine (PC)
4
Q
What are the more common type of phospholipids found on the INNER leaflet of the plasma membrane (applicable to RBC)
A
1.) phosphatidylserine (PS)
2.) Phosphatidylinositol (PI)
3.) phosphatidylethanolamine
5
Q
THE COMPOSITION OF THE MEMBRANE LEAFLETS IS ACTIVELY Maintained BY A GROUP OF PROTEINS named:
A
Flippases and floppases
6
Q
_____________ concentration is high in the plasma membrane compared to other cellular compartments
A
Cholesterol
7
Q
Where is cholesterol synthesized in the cell?
A
ER
8
Q
What are lipoproteins
A
round particles made of fat (lipids) and proteins that travel in your bloodstream to cells throughout your body. Cholesterol and triglycerides are two types of lipids found in lipoproteins.
9
Q
Carbs occur on the outer membrane surface of the plasma membrane mainly as:
What is their purpose?
A
- glycoproteins and glycolipids
- Contribute to negative charge to membranes-immunity and barriers via repulsion
10
Q
What is the purpose of the glycocalyx
A
Cell recognition
Adsorption of molecules on cell surface
Mechanical & chemical and protection
11
Q
Glycoproteins can act as signaling molecules and can also:
A
Function as the surface receptors to which signaling molecules bind
12
Q
G Protein coupled receptors are what type of protein
A
Integral protein
13
Q
What is a peripheral protein
A
Anchored to only one side of the membrane
14
Q
What type of protein is G-protein coupled receptor?
A
Integral protein
15
Q
T/F: glycoproteins are only found in the cell membrane
A
False, some are found as hormones
16
Q
T/F: Integral membranes may be transmembrane or anchored
A
True
17
Q
Peripheral proteins are readily removed and compare to integral proteins. Give an example of each
A
They may be associated with integral proteins but are easily removed compared to integral proteins that require a detergent
I.e.
Integra: G protein coupled
Peripheral: G alpha subunit
18
Q
Why does carrier mediated transport reach a saturation point while simple diffusion does not
A
Diffusion does not require any channel or carrier
19
Q
All forms of carrier mediated transport share three features:
A
1.) Stereospecificity
2.) Saturation
3.) Competition
20
Q
What feature of carrier mediated transport does this scenario represent: for some theraputics, single-enantiomer formulations can provide greater selectivity for their biological targets. Improved theraputid indices and/or better pharmacokinetics than a mixture of enatiomers
A
Competition
21
Q
Varieties of molecules will act on one type of receptor with greater or lesser preference/concentration which indicates ______________ amongst these
A
Competition
22
Q
What are the three major types of passive movement
What does Passive movement mean?
A
Simple
Facilitated diffusion
Osmosis
Movement from higher concentration to lower concentration
23
Q
Channel mediated and carrier mediated diffusion are forms of _________________ ____________________ where movement of ions and molecules move down their concentration gradient known as:
A
Facilitated diffusion
Passive facilitated diffusion
24
Q
How does channel mediated diffusion differ from carrier mediated?
A
Something has to bind and the carrier has to change conformation
Thus channels are faster at moving things inside our outside the cell
25
Channels vary from each other based on:
How they open
26
Movement across the membrane against the concentration gradient is
Active transport
27
Primary active transport
Pumps powered by ATP
28
Secondary active transport harnesses energy to move things against the concentration gradient by:
Gradient that is established by the primary active transport which used ATP to move things in and out of the cell
29
Receptor mediated cytosis may end up in the following results
Degradation
30
To maintain a constant intracellular environment, the cell membrane exhibits:
Selective permeability
31
Sphingomyelin is a molecule identified in a plasma membrane. What is its location
Outside leaflet
32
Describe how secondary active transport uses Na+/K+ ATPase
Starts with Na/K+ pump that moves sodium outside the cell and K+ in.
Na is already in high concentration OUTSIDE the cell and is now even HIGHER concentration outside the cell
This high concentration of Na+ drives the concentration gradient Na down into the cell taking glucose along with it
33
How does the intracellular Na+ concentration gradient change following inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase?
Na concentration increases
34
What is the difference between phagocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis
Phagocytosis: endocytosis where vesicles are formed as particulate material external to the cell are engulfed by pseudopodia
Receptor-mediated endocytosis: endocytosis in which plasma membrane receptors first bind specific substances; receptor and bound substance are taken up by the cell
35
Na+ is a cation in high concentration outside the cell, what is an anion in high concentration here?
Chloride, Cl- or Phosphate, PO4
36
K+ is a cation in high concentration inside the cell, what is an anion in high concentration outside the cell?
Phosphate, PO4 or Chloride
37
In primary active transport of Na+/K+ transport what is the direction of Na+ and K+
3 Na+ OUT
2 K+ in
38
What is a class of drugs that inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase? Toxicity of these dugs could induce:
Cardiac glycosides, ouabain & Digitalis
Hyperkalemia
39
What factors can induce Hypokalemia by increasing Na-K-ATPase activity?
Describe the concentration of K+ in ECF and ICF in this scenario
T3, T4, B adrenergic stimulation, hyperinsulinemia
ECF: Lowered b/c K+ being pushed in
ICF: K+ concentration increased
40
Give an example of Ungated ion channels
How do they transport?
K+ leaky channels
Selectively permeable to certain substances that is determined by size, shape and charge of channel and ion
41
List the type of Gated channels
Voltage
Ligand/Chemical
42
Describe how voltage gated channels work
Give an example of
Apply a charge to the membrane which causes the channel to open
Voltage-gated Na+ channels
43
Describe how Ligand/chemical channels work
Give an example of one
A ligand or chemical will bind to the channel and will cause it to open
Nicotinic ACh receptor channels
44
What does mEq/L stand for
Miliequivalent per Liter
45
What is the concentration of K+ inside the cell?
What is the concentration of K+ OUTside the cell?
INSIDE: 140 mEq
OUTSIDE: 4 mEq
46
What is the concentration of Na+ INSIDE the cell?
What is the concentration of Na+ OUTSIDE the cell?
INSIDE: 14 mEq/L
OUTSIDE: 142 mEq/L
47
What is the ratio of K+ inside compared to outside? What about Na+ inside compared to out?
35 times greater inside the cell
10 times less inside the cell
48
What is a diffusion potential
The potential difference generated across a membrane when a charged solute diffuses down its concentration gradient
The charge left behind as an ion is traveling through a membrane
49
What is membrane potential?
Difference in voltage across cell membrane
50
Why are there different equilibrium potentials for different ions at rest?
The typical resting neuron will maintain differing concentration of ions across the membrane
The equilibrium potential represents the direction of membrane potential
51
What is resting membrane potential?
Voltage difference across the cell at rest
52
What would be a limitation of the membrane potential
If the membrane is NOT permeable to the ion in question, i.e. if a channel for a specific ion is closed, even if the concentration is raised, then the membrane potential cannot exist
53
Membrane potential depends on: (2)
Diffusion potential
Concentration gradient
54
What is resting potential of a normal cell
~ -70 mV
55
What is the electrostatic gradient?
The charge that is left behind by ion movement that pulls the ion in the opposite direction of the concentration gradient
56
The diffusion potential counters the concentration gradient. Explain why
Because the diffusion potential is the charge left behind as ions move
The concentration gradient is the flow of ions away from higher concentration gradient it creates its diffusion potential that is opposite the charged ion which creates "like charges attract"
57
When is equilibrium potential reached:
K out = Kin
58
What would a Equilbrium potential of K+ at -90 mV mean?
Potassium will move down its concentration gradient until -90 mV inside the cell is reached where the electrostatic gradient will keep it at an equilibrium point
59
How might the Nernst equation vary?
The constant 61 may be positive or negative depending on the ion in question
60
What is the Nernst equation mean?
It is the equilibrium potential
Calculates the voltage necessary to perfectly oppose the net movement of an ion DOWN its concentration gradient
61
What is the Nernst equation mean?
It is the equilibrium potential
62
What is the Nerst equation?
Ke = 61/z x Log Xin/Kout
where Z is the charge of an ion
63
What is the expected resting Vm?
- 90 to -70 Vm
64
What does Vm stand for?
Membrane potential
65
In normal cells, why is Vm so close to Ek?
What do these two things mean?
The membrane is far more permeable to K+, since K+ leaks out of the cell, there more negative ICF and is more permeable to Na+
Vm is the membrane potential
Ek is the equilibrium potential of potassium, K+
66
What does the Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Equation calculate?
What is another name for this equation?
Vm when more than one ion is involved
Goldman Field Equation
67
The _________ membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for the ion with the highest __________________
Resting
Charge
68
When using example of calculating the equilibrium potential Which fluid will change concentration, the outside or inside? Why
The extracellular fluid will change only
Because the inside of the cell will maintain homeostasis and not change
69
What effect does increasing K+ permeability have on Vm?
70
What effect does increasing Na+ on permeability on Vm
71
Why is resting membrane potential for RBC so close to 0?
Resting membrane permeability to sodium ions is high compared to most other cells
72
What is depolarization
When the membrane potential reaches closer to 0 mV
73
What is hyperpolarization
When the membrane potential becomes more negative to the resting membrane potential of a cell
74
What is excitability
How easy the cell to create an action potential
75
When hyperkalemia occurs what happens to the cell excitability
It increases and is closer to depolarization which makes it easer to generate action potentials and can induce cardiac arrythmias
76
Why does hypocalcemia cause tetany?
Lower Ca+ lowers the threshold so the Excitability increases as the sodium channels open due too the increase in vM
77
When a threshold is reached in a cell, what happens
All corresponding channels open
78
What determines resting membrane potential?
What determines cell threshold?
K+
Ca+
79
What does hypOkalemia do?
Increases hyperpolarization as K+ will want to move down its concentration gradient and OUT of the cell
Also will increase the duration of an action potential
80
How does hypocalcemia cause muscle tetany?
Low Ca in the plasma causes the Na channels to open
Ca+2 stabilizes Resting Membrane potential of cells
When there are fewer calcium ions, the threshold is lowered (Less + & more - ) so cells are more easily excitable
81
How does HyperKalemia induce cardiac arrythmias?
High K+ makes resting membrane potential less negative and closer to the threshold potiental
82
How can calcium reverse HypERkalemia?
1.) HyperKalemia makes the membrane potential less negative & and more likely to reach threshold
2.) Calcium stabilizes the resting membrane potential and increased Ca+ can raise the threshold to a more + number
3.) Thus administration of Ca can maintain the difference between membrane potential and threshold to prevent action potential
83
At rest, the cell is permeable to what ions?
Potassium only!
84
______________kalemia depolarizes the cell, ______________kalemia hyperpolarizes the cell.
Why?
Hyper
Hypo
In HypER: there is more K+ entering the cell which makes it more + and closer to the threshold & AP
In HyPO: there is less K+ entering the cell because the concentration gradient outside the cell is smaller, thus the cell is more remains more - and in a hyperpolarized state
85
Name the three surfaces of epithelial tissue
Apical
Lateral
Basal
86
Where is the apical surface of epithelial tissue?
On the top-most layer
Nearer the luminal surface
87
Where is the lateral surface of epithelial tissue?
On the sides
Laterally
Connects/touches to cells next to them
88
Where is the basal surface of epithelial tissue?
The bottom most layer
Nearer the attachment/basement membrane
89
In tissue, more specifically, epithelial tissue, what does stratified mean?
Layered
90
In epithelial tissue, which layer matters the most when determining what cell type is present?
The apical side (top most layer)
91
Which surface of epithelial tissue will have:
Axonemes--cilia & flagella
Microvilli
Apical surface
92
Why is the term stereocillia a misnomer?
Because they are more closely related to/similar to microvilli than cillia
All 3 are components of the apical surface of epithelial tissue & cytoskeleteon
93
Cilia are organized from cytoplasmic extensions known as:
______________________
These ______________ are formed by:
Thus cilia are made of:
Axonemes
Axonemes
Microtubules
Microtubules
94
Which are smaller cilia or microtubules?
Which are larger microtubules or microvilli?
Thus what can be inferred about size relationship between cilia and microvilli?
Microtubules = cilia!
Microvilli < microtubules
Microvilli < cilia
95
What are microvilli made of?
Microfilaments
96
What are the purpose of cilia?
What are the purpose of microvilli?
Cilia : ___________________ as microvilli : ____________________
Movement
Absorption
Cilia : movement as microvilli : absorption
97
What are the 5 types of connection junctions pertinent to the lateral surface of epithelial tissue?
1.) Gap junction
2.) Adhering junctions
3.) Desmosomes
4.) Hemidesmosomes
5.) Occluding junction AKA tight junction
98
What are the purpose of occluding junctions? Where are they found?
Found on lateral surface of epithelial tissue
Form tight junctions to prevent things from passing between cells
i.e. blood brain barrier
99
What are the purpose of adhering junctions? Where are they found?
Use actin to connect cells side by side to each other on the lateral surface of epithelial tissue
100
What are the purpose of gap junctions? Where are they found?
Communication junction, i.e. electrical synapses
101
What are the purpose of Desmosomes? Where are they found?
Use intermediate filaments to attach cells to the basal lamina
102
Tight junctions seals off the intercellular space to prevent toxins and bacteria from entering, the specific integral membrane protein ____________________________ is used to fuse two trilaminar plasma membranes of adjacent cells forming a pentalaminar structure
Occludins
103
________________ cell junctions are proximal to the basal surface on the lateral surface of epithelial tissue. This "belt" is formed by _____________, tropomyosin, α-actinin, and ____________ . These are attached to each other by transmembrane proteins known as: ___________________
Adhering junction
Myosin
vinculin
Cadherins
104
When thinking of gap junctions also think of ____________________. These are what form the the opening and bridge between cells for molecules to pass for intercellular coordination and connection
Connexons which form Connexins
105
Macula adherens aka _________________ are cell junctions of epithelial tissue. They are formed by desmo______________ and desmo_______. They help form cell-cell connection on the lateral surface via _________________ filaments.
Desmosomes
Desmoplakins
Desmogleins
Intermediate filament
106
Which cell junctions on the lateral surface of epithelial tissue do NOT form a barrier between cells
Gap junctions and desmosomes
107
Which are the strongest attachment cell junctions? What is distinct about them?
Hemidesmosomes
While most cell junctions of epithelial tissue are on the lateral surface, hemidesmosomes are on the basal surface to anchor cells to the basement membrane
108
What adaptor protein connects hemidesmosomes to intermediate filaments forming attachment to basement membrane and cell of epithelial tissue?
Integrins
109
What components form the basement membrane on the basal surface of epithelial tissue?
Basal lamina
Reticular lamina
110
What layers comprise the basal lamina of the basement membrane?
Lamina lucida and lamina densa
111
Of the following, which are most similar in terms of FUNCTION?
1.) Gap junction
2.) Adhering junctions
3.) Desmosomes
4.) Hemidesmosomes
5.) Occluding junction AKA tight junction
Why is this so? How do they differ in COMPOSITION?
Desmosomes and adhering junctions
Because they both aid in forming attachment between cells but differ in one uses actin containing microfilaments and the other uses intermediate filaments
112
What are the two main division of epithelial tissue?
Stratified (multilayer) and simple (single layer)
113
Name the "flat" shaped stratified epithelial and simple epithelial cell type
Simple squamous = simple
Stratified squamous (Keratinized and nonkeratinized)
114
115
Name the "cuboidal" shaped stratified epithelial and simple epithelial cell type
Simple cuboidal
Stratified cuboidal
116
Name the "Columnar" shaped stratified epithelial and simple epithelial cell type
Simple columnar epithelium & Pseudostratified columnar epithelium = SIMPLE
Stratified columnar= STRATFIED
117
Name the "Dome" shaped stratified epithelial and simple epithelial cell type
Simple: none which are dome shaped
Stratified: transitional epithelium (relaxed and distended)
118
What cell type are mesothelium?
Where in the body can you generally find these?
Simple squamous epithelium
Lining the surface of body cavities including capillaries, cardiovascular system and respiratory tract
119
What cell type are endothelium?
Simple squamous epithelium
120
Why are simple squamous epithelium generally not pink, rather blue?
Because they are so flat their nucleus gets flattened as well
121
Where might you find simple cuboidal epithelial cells?
Kidney
122
Where might you find simple columnar epithelial cells?
Digestive tract, fallopian tubes and testis structures
123
Where might you find pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells?
Respiratory tract
124
Why do pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells have cilia while simple columnar and cuboidal epithelial cells have microvilli?
Their functions vary
Pseudostratified in respiratory tract, think moving phlegm out
Columnar and cuboidal are absorption, think GI tract and tubules of kidney
125
What type of cells are the first two layers of skin?
What are two major function of these type of cells?
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Resist friction (think thick skin) and are impermeable to water
126
Where might one find NONkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?
Esophagus, mouth, vagina
127
How can one tell the difference between the keratinized and nonkeratinized squamous epithelial cells?
While they may differ, how is their shape similar?
Keratinized retain their nuclei
They are flatter appearing
128
Where might stratified cuboidal epithelial cells be found?
What is special about their appearance?
Ducts
They are usually only ~2 layers with the basal layer appearing incomplete
129
How can you tell the difference between stratified cuboidal and columnar cells?
Cuboidal: normally 2 layers
Columnar: normally 2-3 layers, the TOP most layer are COLUMNAR!
130
Where might stratified columnar cells be found?
Eye glands, some exocrine glands
131
What is transition epithelium? Is it simple or stratified?
Stratified
These cells can change shape, think of bladder cells and how they can stretch as the bladder fills with urine from "dome/umbrella" shaped to flattened
132
Barretts syndrome is a complication of chronic GERD marked by ________________ of the _________________ ________________ epithelium of the distal esophagus into a ______________ _____________ _____________ with goblet cells as a response to prolonged reflux-induced injury
Metaplasia
stratified squamous
simple columnar epithelium
133
134
Where can you find connective tissue relative to epithelial tissue? I.e. skin layers
Epithelial tissue: epidermis
Connective tissue: dermis
Connective tissue is found abutting to the basement membrane of the epithelial tissue
135
Name 2 embryonic connective tissue
Mesenchyme and mucous connective tissue
136
Name the 2 largest branches of connective tissue
1.) Loose (AREOLAR) connective tissue
2.) Dense irregular &/or irregular connective tissue
137
Name 3 structural properties of connective tissue
1.) Tensile strength
2.) Elasticity
3.) Volume
138
What materials make up the Extracellular matrix (hint: think connective tissue)
Ground substance and connective tissue fibers
139
Where is Type III connective tissue found?
Lymphatic system
140
Elastin is a type of connective tissue, which properties are corresponding to
Confirms to stretching and elastic recoil
141
In the ground substance of connective tissue, what can you infer if there is large presence of hyaluronan
Hydration
142
Mucopolysaccharides
- Glycosaminoglycans
- Help build cartilage, tendons and cornea, skin
143
What do fibroblasts do
Produce the matrix
144
Fibroblasts, adipocytes, mast cells are all considered
Resident cells of connective tissue
145
Where does connective tissue arise from during gastrulation?
Mesoderm
146
What do fibroblasts produce?
Collagen and elastin
147
If there is scar tissue needing to be formed, what cells might be activated
Fibroblasts
148
What is stored in adipocytes?
Triglycerides
149
Serine and Threonine have a tendency to:
1. Be phosphorylated
2. O-linked glycosylation
150
Describe the side chain of Asn
Asparagine
- 4 carbon AA with Nitrogen and C=O group
- Involved in N-linked glycosylation
151
1. What 3 AA have a tendency to engage in phosphorylation?
2. Which two ALSO participate in O-linked glycosylation?
1. Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine
2. Serine & Threonine
152
What amino acids negatively charged at physiologic pH?
Acidic Amino Acid
153
What is the typical pKa of R group on acidic amino acids?
Low
154
What 3 amino acids are positively charged at physiologic pH?
Arginine (Arg)
Lysine (Lys)
Histadine (His)
155
This amino acid has 3 nitrogens on its side chain, 5 carbons, and is + charged at physiologic pH
Arg
156
An ____________________ is one of two stereoisomers that are mirror images of each other but non-superimposable
Enantiomer
157
What is an enantiomer
One of two stereoisomers that are mirror images of each other but non-superimposable
158
What are diasteromers?
Stereoisomers with more than one chirality center that are not-mirror images of one another
- Groups have different configurations
159
How do you calculate the pI of basic amino acids?
(pKa2 + pKa3) / 2 = pI
160
Which amino acids have 2 amines and one carboxyl group?
Basic
161
How do you calculate the pI of Acidic amino acids?
(pKa1 + pKa 2) / 2 = pI
162
Which Amino acids have 1 amine group and 2 carboxyl?
Acidic
Glu & Asp
163
What amino acids are essential?
Phe
Val
Try
Thr
Iso
Met
His
Arg --children only
Leu
Lys
164
Which amino acid is essentially for children only?
Arg
165
The breakdown of ______________________ is essential to get certain amino acids in the body:
Proteins
PVT TIM HALL
166
What causes Kwashiorkor?
Malnutrition and deficiency of essential amino acids
167
Kwashiokor is caused by lack of essential amino acids from malnutrition. List 3 symptoms associated with the disorder:
1.) Hepatomegaly w/fatty infiltrates
2.) Edema
3.) Ulcerative dermatosis
168
What is marasmus? How does it differ from Kwashiorkor?
There is overall calorie deprivation while Kwashiorkor is strictly deprivation of essential Amino acids
169
At physiologic pH was is the normal charge of the carboxyl group and amine group?
Carboxyl: -
Amine: +
170
These two uncharged polar side chains can lose a proton at an alkaline pH.
Cys & Tyr
171
At physiologic pH the side chains of these amino acids are fully ionized & contain a negatively charged carboxylate group.
Acidic amino acids
Asp & Glu
172
Acidic amino acids are considered ______________
Proton donors
173
The side chains of the basic amino acids accept protons. At physiologic pH, the R groups of __________ and ____________ are fully ionized and positively charged. In contrast, the free amino acid ___________ is weakly basic and largely uncharged at physiologic pH
Lysine
Arginine
Histidine
174
Describe the charge of Lys, Arg, and His at physiologic pH
The side chains of the basic amino acids accept protons.
At physiologic pH, the R groups of lysine and arginine are fully ionized and positively charged.
In contrast, the free amino acid histidine is weakly basic and largely uncharged at physiologic pH
175
Among 3 ionizable groups, which pKa is the most important used to differentiate an amino acid?
pKa 2
176
High HCO-3 is most often the result of compensating for:
High CO2
177
High CO2 indicates:
Acidosis
178
Low HCO3- indicates:
Acidosis
179
Low CO2 indicates:
Alkalosis
180
181
Describe why patients with Myasthenia gravis feel better in the morning and tired towards the end of the day
- Exercises exhaust their acetylcholine reserves
- MG have antibodies against Ach Receptors
182
Explain why patients with Lambert-Eaton Myasthenia improve their muscle strength with exercise
- They have antibodies against voltage-sensitive Ca+ channels
- Towards the end of the day they have repeated nervous stimulation that will keep calcium levels in the axon high
183
What is contained in the buffy coat?
Platelets and leukocytes
184
Normally, what are the most abundant leukocytes?
Neutrophils
185
What are the least common leukocytes?
Basophils
186
What are the 2 main components of blood?
Erythrocytes
Plasma
187
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
- Serum does not have fibrinogens and clotting factors
- Plasma has Fibrinogens and clotting factors
188
- What is Polycythemia? AKA erythrocytosis?
- Why is this bad?
1.) Too many RBC
2.) Too many RBC can change hemodynamics
189
What is anemia?
EITHER: overall TOTAL decrease of RBC
or
Same RBC levels that are lacking Hemoglobin
190
What is Leukocytosis?
Too many WBC
191
What does the suffix "-cytosis" mean?
Increase in quantity of cells
192
What is Leukopenia?
Low WBC
193
What is Thrombocytosis?
High platelet count
194
What does the suffix "-penia"
Lack or deficiency
195
What does the prefix "Thrombo-" mean?
Platelet
196
Define pancytopenia
Shortage of all blood cell types
197
In H&E staining, ___________ components stain blue/purple.
________________ components stain pink
Basophilic (Basic liking)
Acidophilic
198
What is the lifespan of Erythrocytes?
Where do they go for degradation?
120 days
- Degradation occurs in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow
199
What is Hemolytic jaundice caused by?
When RBC break down, bilirubin is formed.
Too much bilirubin = jaundice
200
What does hypochromic refer to?
Why does it occur?
- Less color
- When RBC do not have enough Hemoglobin
201
What is anisocytosis?
Variation in Red blood cell size
- Normally RBC should all be same/similar size
202
What is Poiklocytosis?
Variation in RBC SHAPE
203
What does Microcytic RBC indicate?
RBC are abnormally small
204
What does Macrocytic RBC indicate?
RBC are abnormally large
205
What is Schistocytes?
Damaged RBC
- can indicate a life threatening condition is present
206
What are reticulocytes?
- Precursor to RBC
- They kick out their nucleus but still have nucleic contents including RNA, polyribosomes, mitochondria
- Reticulocyte enters blood circulation to become RBC
207
Define megaloblastic
- Unusually large, structurally abnormal blood cells resulting from impaired DNA synthesis
- Hypersegmented neutrophils usually present as well
208
______________________ indicates unusually large abnormal blood cells resulting from impaired DNA synthesis
Megaloblastic
209
Define Nonmegaloblastic
- RBCs are also large but not due to mechanisms involving DNA
- Absence of hypersegmented neutrophils
210
What is another word for platelets?
Thrombocytes
211
Compare and contrast megaloblastic vs nonmegaloblastic
Both involve structurally abnormal blood cells
Megaloblastic is due to impaired DNA synthesis mechanisms while nonmegaloblastic is NOT due to DNA synthesis
212
T/F: Platelets have nuclei while thrombocytes do not
False, Platelets = thrombocytes and they do NOT have nucleus
213
Gray platelet syndrome is caused by:
Absence of α-granules in thrombocytes so there is bleeding disorder
214
Reduced delta granules in thrombocytes can lead to:
Platelets lack Delta granules which allows for prolonged nosebleeds
215
What do thrombocytes do when there is damage to vascular endothelium?
Platelets adhere to the vessel wall, release granules which aggregate and strop the bleeding
216
_______________ are small, lens-shaped fragments of cells. They do **not** have nuclei, contain microtubules, microfilaments, mitochondria, and several types of granules.
Thrombocytes aka Platelets
217
What is diapedesis?
The mechanism by which leukocytes can exit capillaries to enter the surrounding connective tissue in response to infection or inflammation
218
What are mononucelar leukocytes?
- AKA Agranulocytes
- Immune cell with round nucleus
- Can have granules but their granules lack specificity
219
Why is Agranulocyte a misnomer?
These immune cells may still have granules
220
______________________ small-medium sized cells with a large round nucleus
Lymphocytes
221
Where do lymphocytes come from? Where do they go?
Come from bone marrow & thymus
Circulate throughout the body & lymph system
222
What are three classifications of Lymphocytes?
T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Null cells
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B lymphocytes are responsible for ________________ immune response.
Humoral immunity
224
T lymphocytes are responsible for _____________________ immune response.
Cellular immunity
225
What are null cells?
A type of lymphocyte known as Natural Killer cells
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What is characteristic about a monocyte nucleus?
Horseshoe or kidney shaped large nucleus
227
In connective tissue this type of cell becomes a macrophage. Kupffer cell when in the liver. Microglia in the nervous system. And osteoclasts in bone.
Monocytes
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What are azurophilic granules?
Granules found in monocytes which are NONspecific granules and are named for their tendency to take up blue dye during staining
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Lymphocytes and monocytes are both types of:
Agranulocytes
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Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all _________________ ______________.
Polymorphic leukocytes
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Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes AKA granlulocytes are:
A type of immune cell that has granules with enzymes that are released during infection, allergic reaction, and asthma
232
T/F: Agranulocytes contain azurophilic granules while granulocytes contain specific granules
False, granulocytes contain both azurophilic granules & secondary/specific granules
233
Describe the nucleus of a neutrophil
Multilobed
234
Neutrophils play a primary role in ____________ & _________ infections.
Bacterial & fungal
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Persons with myeloperoxidase deficiency have frequent and prolonged bacterial and fungal infections. Why?
There is NADPH oxidase defect which prevents production of superoxides in neutrophils and other cells
236
What makes neutrophils primary components in bacterial and fungal infections?
Their secondary/specific granules have antibacterial compounds
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Eosinophils have ____________________ granules and azurophil granules. The first type of granules contain: hydrolases, peroxidases, histaminase, basic protein, and _________________ _______________ proteins which have anti_______________ properties.
Specific
Eosinophilic cationic proteins
Anthelminthic properties
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How do eosinophils limit inflammation?
They selectively ingest and degrade antigen-antibody complexes and degrade histamine
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When would you expect to see increase eosinophil levels?
When would you expect to see decreased eosinophil levels?
Increased: parasite infection and allergic reaction
Decrease: during corticosteroid treatment
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Why are basophils normally in low count in a CBC?
Their job is to bring neutrophils & eosinophils to the infection site and then die
241
What component of basophils attract eosinophils & neutrophils?
Eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors
242
______________ contain specific granules with heparin, histamine, peroxidase and eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors
Basophils
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_______________ contain histaminase and _______________ contain histamine
Eosinophils contain histaminase
Basophils contain histamine
244
_____________ & ____________ contribute to allergic reactions and are secreted by basophils
Histamine and heparin
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What is MCV?
If low, what might it indicate?
Mean corpuscular volume-the average size of RBC
- Anemia either microcytic or macrocytic
246
What is RDW?
Red cell distribution width
- measure of how varied the size of cells are
- Reflected in the degree of anisocytosis on blood smear
247
What is MCH?
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
- The average hemoglobin mass content of a RBC
248
What might a low MCH indicate?
- Iron deficiency or disorders of globin synthesis
249
What is MCHC?
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
- Average hemoglobin MASS per RBC volume
- Density of Hb in volume of RBC
250
What is Hematocrit?
Volume of RBC compared to the whole blood
251
What would a high MCV indicate?
What would a low MCV indicate?
RBCs are large in size
RBCs are small in size
252
What is RDW?
The Rec Cell Distribution
253
What are reticulocytes?
What do they indicate?
- Immature RBC
- Accelerated erythrocyte production
254
What might a reticulocyte count help indicate?
Early indicator or screening for iron deficiency
255
What is reticulocytosis?
Increased circulating reticulocytes
256
T/F: Hemophilia is due to low platelets
False, Hemophilia is a genetic disorder related to clotting factor problems. Platelets are still present in this condition
257
T/F: Abnormal WBC are normally due to low neutrophil counts
True, since neutrophils are the most abundant WBC. If there are reduced neutrophils it will bring the WBC per microL of blood down
258
What might a low WBC indicate?
Infection, bone marrow disorder, splenomegaly, and autoimmune disorders
259
What are "band" neutrophils?
Immature neutrophils that are released from the marrow into peripheral blood
260
What is hemolytic anemia?
What test might be ordered to determine if this is occuring?
When RBCs are destroyed faster than they are made
- Peripheral blood smear
261
T/F: An increase in one type of WBC can cause a decrease in the percentage of other types of WBC
True
262
High white blood cell counts may be due to inflammation, immune response, or __________________
blood diseases such as leukemia
263
Abnormal or immature WBC may indiate:
Leukemia or bone marrow invasion by cancer or infection
264
Where does Hematopoiesis occur?
In bone marrow
265
All blood cells originate from a common pluripotential hemopoietic stem cell. But each cell type has its own lineage of cell generation comited to proliferate. what are these cells called?
Colony-forming cells or units
266
Mast cells are similar to:
Why?
Basophils
- Mast cells play a role in immediate hypersensitivity and chronic allergic reaction
Basophils are fast to react to allergies and recruit eosinophils and neutrophils
267
List the following in order:
Platelet
Thrombocyte
Megakaryoblast
Megakaryocyte
1ST: Megakaryoblast
2nd Megakaryocyte
3rd Platelet = thrombocyte
268
What do demarcation membranes do?
They differentiate the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes to subdivide it into platelet zones
269
Why do Thrombocytes need demarcation membranes?
When they are developing the megakaryoblasts do not have complete division of nuclei or cytoplasm so they are large with more chromosomes and the demarcation membranes subdivide the cytoplasm into platelet zones
270
This is the order of Erythropoiesis:
1.) Progenitor cell (CFC-Es)
2.) __________________________ large cell, with large active nucleus and nucleoli
3.) 2 basophilic erythroblasts
4.) 2 polychromatophilic erythroblasts
5.) Orthochromatophilic erythroblasts: __________ ______________________ _______________
From here, the orthochromoatophilic erythroblasts, aka normoblasts, do not divide anymore. Rather they ____________________.
5a.) ___________________
5b.) mature Erythrocyte
2.) Proerythroblast
5.) Hemoglobin concentration rises to mature level
5a.) Differentiate
5b.) Reticulocyte
271
This stage of erythropoiesis is termed:
When ribosomes are diluted by cell division and the hemoglobin concentration rises to near mature level
Orthochromatophilic AKA normoblast
272
This stage of erythropoiesis is termed:
When the nucleus is extruded and only a few organelles (polyribosomes and mitochondria) remain in the cytoplasm
Reticulocyte
273
Monocyte formation occurs in 3 stages:
1.) Monoblast
2.) Promonocyte
3.) Monocyte
274
What do monocytes do?
Circulate for 3-4 days and then migrate into tissues. They are motile and highly phagocytic. They may mature in tissues into resident macrophages
275
The second stage of monocyte formation is termed promonocytes formation. Describe what occurs here
Monoblast mature with the developments of cytoplasmic granules and start to have a frosted glass appearance in their cytoplasm
276
Promyelocytes vary in size and are produced by the division of ___________________.
Myeloblasts
277
Promyleocyte have abundant primary granules AKA:
Azurophilic granules
278
What is another name for specific granules?
What is another name for nonspecific granules?
Specific: secondary granules
Nonspecific: Primary or Azurophilic
279
The order of granulocyte formation:
1.)
2.) Promyelocytes
3.) Myelocytes
4.) Meta myeloctyes
5.) ________________ ____________
1.) Myeloblasts
2.) Band cells/ Band forms
280
At what stage of granulocytopoiesis are nucleoli present?
Before and during promyelocyte stage
the second stage
281
At what stage are specific granules first present in granulocytopoiesis?
Myleocyte stage, 3rd stage of granulocyte formation
282
