Week 11 Flashcards

1
Q

How does the lac operon work?

A

There is a repressor that sits upstream of the Lac genes that prevents RNA polymerase transcription. The presence of lactose will remove this repressor, leading to the downstream transcription of the genes needed for lactose catabolism. Thus, nutrient sensing is coupled to gene expression.

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2
Q

What is the difference between “push systems” and “pull systems” when it comes to considering cellular metabolism?

A

Most people tend to think of metabolism as a “pull” system, wherein the cell decides what it ‘wants’, and takes what it needs to make it. A “push” system considers the current metabolic environment of the cell as instructive towards the cell’s available metabolic options.

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3
Q

What is one of the large differences between cellular metabolism of multicellular and single celled organisms?

A

Multicellular organisms need to centrally coordinate growth so that cells only proliferate when it is advantageous for the orgaism as a whole. Cells should not all immediately enter the cell cycle in a multicellular organism when nutrients are available (for obvious reasons), although single cellular organisms such as yeast do just that.

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4
Q

In non-transformed cells, what regulates nutrient uptake?

A

Growth factors (not nutrient availability). Diabetes and insulin is a good example.

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5
Q

What are the two requirements for tissue-specific, growth-factor dependent proliferation?

A

1) A progenitor cell with proliferative capacity
2) A local, tissue-specific growth factor

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6
Q

Why is growth-factor stimulation/proliferation coupled with differentiation?

A

As a mechanism to limit the extent of growth in the presence of growth factor stimulation.

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7
Q

What is the Warburg effect?

A

Otto Warburg found that tumor cells consumed glucose and excreted lactate at high rates. This was later shown to be a product of proliferation - anaerobic glycolysis favors lipid formation, which is needed for cell division.

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8
Q

How does metabolism activate cancer cells?

A

Through mutations of the PI3K pathway. PI3K activates AKT, and AKT activation is important for GLUT1 translocation to the cell membrane. AKT also activates and phosphorylates a number of proximal enzymes in the glycolytic pathway. This enables the glycolytic pathway and cells that have constitutively activated PI3K tend to have lots of glucose uptake.

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9
Q

How do PET scans work?

A

A Fluoride-tagged (radioactive) glucose is given i.v.. This is incorporated into cells via GLUT transporters and its phosphorylation retains it in the cell. However, it cannot be further catabolized, and thus it can be visualized. Cells (tumors) can be visualized based on their glucose uptake.

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10
Q

What is the role of CD28 in immunometabolism?

A

CD28 activation allows the activated T cell to quickly take up massive amounts of glucose. (Byproduct of AKT activation). Facilitates pre-translated GLUT1 from endosomes to cell surface. This shows that the Warburg effect is not exclusive to cancer.

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11
Q

How is immunometabolism related to T cell differentiation?

A

Activation of T cells leads to immediate increased uptake of glucose due to GLUT1 upregulation on the cell surface. This extra glucose is shunted into pathways that produce acetyl-CoA, which is required for the chromatin modifications needed to execute T cell differentiation transcriptional programs.

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12
Q

How does checkpoint signaling affect immunometabolism in T cells?

A

CTLA-4 signaling blocks AKT activation, and PD-1 signaling blocks PI3K modifications of lipids into signaling PIP3. Both lead to the downregulation of GLUT transporters on the cell surface and decreased glucose uptake.

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13
Q

What is the largest effect of checkpoint inhibitor on T cells?

A

It is mostly metabolic, not transcriptional. Chromatin modifications are largely superimposable, but glycolysis is extremely different.

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14
Q

Structure of MHC class I

A

B2 microglobulin and three alpha subunits. a1 and a2 provide peptide-binding specificity, while a3 provides structural support and includes a transmembrane portion. Peptide binding cleft has charged regions that recognize the N-terminus and C-terminus of the peptide (so it is ‘closed’)

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15
Q

Structure of MHC Class II

A

Homodimer of alpha and Beta chains, both of which have a variable and constant region, and both of which have transmembrane portions. Peptide binding cleft is ‘open’, allowing for the inclusion of longer peptides that can stick out over the peptide binding cleft area. Recognizes bound peptide throughout the groove.

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16
Q

Contents of entire TCR/CD3 complex.

A

TCR to recognize pMHC complex (often a:B). Two CD3 heterodimers - one CD3e:CD3d and one CD3gCD3e and two Zeta chains. Each CD3 molecule has a single ITAM, and each Zeta chain has two ITAMs, for a total of 10 ITAMs per signaling complex.

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17
Q

What is the first intracellular event downstream of TCR signaling?

A

ITAMs on CD3 and Zeta chains are phosphorylated by Src-family kinases such as Lck. This then recruits Syk-family kinases such as Zap70.

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18
Q

What do SH2 domains recognize and bind to?

A

Phosphotyrosines.

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19
Q

What is the general archetecture of Syk Kinases?

A

They have a kinase domain and at the N-terminal they have 2 SH2 domains spaced in stereotypical way. They can recognize and bind phosphotyrosine sites of ITAMs.

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20
Q

What generally recognizes phosphorylated ITAMs?

A

Syk-family kinases. They contain two SH2 domains that are specifically spaced apart to recognize and bind to the two phosphokinases on activated ITAMs.

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21
Q

How is the TCR/CD3 signaling complex assembled in the plasma membrane?

A

TCRa and B chains actually have positively charged arginines and lysines along their transmembrane helicies. The CD3 chains have negatively charged residues along their transmembrane helicies. This is remarkable because the plasma membrane is disfavorable to charges.

The assembly of the TCR complex is partially conferred by the neutralization of these charged residues by one another. This establishes a very specific spatial relationship between all components.

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22
Q

Differences in structure and binding affinities for CD4 and CD8 coreceptors.

A

CD8 is a homodimer, whereas CD4 is a monomer. CD8 binds to its cognate MHC I with higher affinity than does CD4 to its own (by an order of magnitude).

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23
Q

How do CD4 and CD8 potentiate TCR signaling?

A

Both enhance the strength of the TCR:pMHC interaction by binding to the side of the MHC complex.

Additionally, both assocaite with Lck kinase through a cysteine motif in the cytoplasmic domain, and thus assist with the recruitment of Lck kinase to the TCR signaling complex. Both CD4 and CD8 are constitutively assocaited with Lck in the cytoplasmic domain. Bringing Lck into proximity of the ITAMs of TCR complex allows for phosphorylation of tyrosine residues in the CD3 cytoplasmic domains by Lck, and the subsequent ZAP70 recruitment.

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24
Q

What happens upon ZAP70 recruitment to the TCR signaling complex?

A

ZAP70 phosphorylates LAT (Linker for the Activation of T cells), which leads to the phosphotyrosine-mediated assembly of a scaffolding complex called the LAT-SLP76 complex.

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25
Q

What is LAT?

A

Linker for the Activation of T cells is a signaling protein involved in TCR complex signaling that is phosphorylated by ZAP70 and recruits Gads and SLP76 to form a scaffolding complex called the LAT-SLP76 complex. Both LAT and SLP76 are basically just proteins with lots of binding sites, so they can pull lots of different signaling enzymes from the cytosol.

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26
Q

What (among others) enzymes and messenger proteins does LAT/SLP76 scaffolding protein recruit to the activated TCR signaling complex?

A

SOS (Ras, MAPK), VAV (Rac, Cdc42 activation), PLC-g (IP3 and DAG)

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27
Q

What is the role of Phospholipase C gamma in TCR signaling?

A

PLCg takes phosphatidylinositol biphosphate (PIP2) in the membrane and cleaves the PIP headgroup (IP3) off. IP3 is soluble and diffuses through the cytoplasm and induces calcium responses. The lipid remnant is diacylglycerol (DAG) acts as a signaling molecule in the membrane and recruits protein kinase Cs and Ras exchange factors.

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28
Q

What are the main characteristic pathways downstream of TCR signaling propagation?

A

MAP kinase cascades (AP-1 transcription factor), Ca+2 signaling (NFAT), NFkB signaling (stimulated by DAG)

29
Q

How is Calcium signaling in TCR activation activated?

A

PLCg recruited by the SLP76:LAT complex cleaves PIP2 into DAG and IP3. IP3 diffuses through membranes and is recognized by Calcium channels on the endoplasmic reticulum called IP3 receptors, which activate and allow the diffusion of calcium stores throughout the cytosol. Depletion of calcium in the ER leads to the dimerization of STIM aggregates on the ER membrane

30
Q

How is pathway signaling structure related to output?

A

1) Amplification of signal
2) Regultion (fine tuning) of signal
3) Crosstalk
4) Discrimination between signals.

31
Q

Difference between agonist and antagonist?

A

Agonist will bind to receptor and activate receptor. Antagonist will bind and block signaling.

32
Q

What is the theorhetical manner in which T cells can discriminate between strong and weak cognate interactions?

A

kinetic proofreading

33
Q

What is the general concept of the kinetic proofreading model proposed for TCR signaling?

A

Essentially, for full TCR activation to take place, a sequential series of enzymatic steps have to take place while the TCR engagement is ongoing. Should the TCR disengage with its ligand before the ‘magic’ enzymatic step beyond which TCR engagement is no longer needed, activation of the T cell will not proceed.

This allows for T cells to discriminate between short-lived and long-lived (i.e. strong and weak) peptide:MHC complex recognition.

34
Q

What does stronger signaling affect: the speed or magnitude of signaling?

A

Only the magnitude of signaling is affected. All downstream pathways have enzymes with specific catalytic rates.

35
Q

What are the differences between catch bonds and slip bonds?

A

The strength of catch bonds increases under increasing force until a threshold is crossed (think of two hooks on one another). The strength of slip bonds decreases with increasing force applied.

36
Q

What is a classic example of catch bonds?

A

LFA-1 and ICAM form a catch bond. LFA-1 is activated but doesn’t acquire full signaling potential until force from the actin cytoskeleton is applied to the bond:ligand interaction.

37
Q

Does the TCR pMHC interaction exhibit catch or slip bond behavior?

A

It depends on the peptide and MHC affinity for the TCR. Properly matched pMHC complexes with cognate TCRs exhibit catch bond formation, whereas improperly matched (poor quality) pMHC:TCR bonds exhibit bond behavior that resembles more of a slip bond.

This allows a three-fold half-life of pMHC:TCR to be increased to 15-fold when force is applied.

38
Q

At what force to TCR:pMHC interactions reach maximum lifetime?

A

Around 10 pN

39
Q

How are receptor signaling kinases typically activated?

A

Most receptor signaling kinases are covanlently attached to the cytoplasmic domain of the receptor. Upon binding to lingand, the receptors form dimers (or otherwise undergo conformational change, if already dimerized) to allow the cytoplasmic domain of one receptor to phosphorylate tyrosine residues on the other receptor (and vice versa).

40
Q

Given that TCRs are ‘monomeric’, how is receptor tyrosine phosphorylation acheived?

A

In an inactivated TCR complex, the ITAM motifs in CD3 cytoplasmic domains actually fold up and assocaite with the plasma membrane. When the TCR engages ligand, it induces a conformational change that allows the cytoplasmic domains of the CD3s to become accessible to Src kinases (such as Lck).

41
Q

How was it discovered that CD3 zeta chains associate with the plasma membrane in unactivated TCRs?

A

FRET was used to measure the distance between the C-terminals of CD3 zeta homodimers both with and without TCR complex context. FRET decreased when CD3zeta was assocaited with TCR complex, but stimulation of the assocaited TCR lead to increased FRET, indicating that the cytoplasmic tails were moving back into close proximity to one another.

42
Q

What is the structure and function of CD45?

A

CD45 is a tyrosine phosphatase with a large extracellular domain that is highly glycosylated. It has no ligand that we know of. CD45 in T cells keeps TCR signaling off by removing the phosphate from the tyrosine of ITAMs in the TCR.

43
Q

How is the inhibitory effect of CD45 overcome in TCR signaling?

A

The large size of extracellular CD45 and the smaller size of TCR complex and MHC allows for size exclusion of CD45 from the immune synapse between APC and TCR. If you add Ig domains to make MHC or TCR ‘tall’, CD45 is allowed into the synapse and prevents signaling.

44
Q

How are SLP76 clusters formed in TCR signaling?

A

The LAT clusters will form clusters with their binding partners SOS and Grb2 once phosphorylated. This has been shown in a synthetic lipid bilayer in which SOS and GRB2 were added to a lipid bilayer containing pLAT. The addition of a general phosphatase disasociates clusters.

45
Q

What do all ILCs require for development?

A

gamma common chain of IL-2 receptor and ID-2 dependent transcription

46
Q

B cell co-receptor complex

A

CD19, CD21, and CD81

47
Q

Specific adhesion molecules between Tfh and B cells

A

SLAM (signaling lymphocyte activation molecules, also known as CD150), CD84, and Ly108. All interact through homotypic interactions.

48
Q

Changes in B cell chemokine receptor expression 2-3 days after activation with Tfh help.

A

Downregulation of CCR7, which allows the B cell to move away from the T cell boundary zone. Upregulation of EBI2, which directs the B cells to move towards the interfollicular regions or subcapsular sinus in LNs or splenic briding channels in the spleen.

49
Q

What is the phase-separated droplet formation theory in T cell signaling?

A

The cytosolic microclusters of signaling modules that form after TCR activation are low affinity, but have multiple signaling domains. Thus, signaling molecules with similar specifities will tend to segregate into droplets with each other, even though their interactions are short-lived and of low affinity.

50
Q

What are the benefits of phase separation droplets in TCR signaling?

A

1) Increased enzyme and substrate concentration in an environment that promotes mixing.
2) Promotes selectivity by excluding unrelated proteins
3) Architectural flexibility accomodates heterogeneity
4) Sharp phase transitions (change in stoichiometry or state of one component) makes process fast and regulatable.

51
Q

How are rapid changes in cytoskeletal architecture achieved during TCR signaling?

A

Mostly due to lipid-derived second messengers (DAG, PIP3, etc.) This leads to actin reorganization.

There are specialized gradients of each in an immune synapse. There is a central concentration of DAG and a peripheral ring of PIP3 that promotes actin polymerization.

52
Q

What are the three ‘rings’ of TCR immune synapse, and which molecules do each contain?

A

The center-most area of the TCR immune synpase contains the TCR and assocaited CD3 coreceptors, costimulatory CD28 and CTLA-4, and CD80/CD86 on the APC side and coreceptors such as CD4 or CD8

Peripheral to that is a ring of integrins (LFA-1:ICAM).

Peripheral to all of that is the size-excluded immunoinhibitory CD45.

53
Q

Which is thought to occur first: immune synpase formation or T cell activation?

A

Evidence points towards T cell activation occuring very early, and the synpase forming afterward.

54
Q

What is thought to be the physiological purpose for sensory microvilli containing TCRs on T cells?

A

Allows the T cell to ‘penetrate’ the thick glycocalyx on the APC, which is a sea of proteins and sugars that can occlude the pMHC complex.

55
Q

What is one role for actin polymerization in TCR signaling?

A

At the immune synapse, a ring of polymerized actin forms around the periphery and undergoes ‘retrograde flow’, which ultimately serves to ‘sweep’ cell receptors into the center of the synapse.

56
Q

What is a role for mechanosensitization in CTL-mediated killing of target cells?

A

Perforin is able to form pores in target cells easier at ‘higher strain’ of cells (i.e. stellate morphology vs round). Thus, the strain that is applied at the immune synapse may be priming that site for increased susceptibility to perforin integration.

57
Q

What were the three historical lines of evidence for Tregs?

A

1) day 3 thymectomy
2) Autoimmune inflammation assocaited with lymphopenia and adoptive T cell transfer into lymphopenic mice
3) Interspecies transplantation with co-transplantation of thymic stoma, which prevents transplant rejection

58
Q

What was surprising about IL-2 KO mice?

A

Instead of being lymphopenic (as expected), the mice showed massive. expansion of T cells and early death assocaited with systemic inflammation. This was due to the requirement for IL-2 for Tregs, which were unable to control the immune response in these mice.

59
Q

What are scurfy mice?

A

These mice have a missense mutation in Foxp3 gene and therefore do not have proper Treg populations. They develop massive lymphoproliferation and multi-organ inflammation.

60
Q

Describe the IL-2 loop in Teffs and Tregs

A

Treg cells express high levels of IL-2R (CD25), but do not produce IL-2.

Activated Teffs produce IL-2 and expand Tregs.

61
Q

What is IPEX?

A

IPEX (Immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked syndrome) is a dysfunction of Tregs that leads to overproliferation of immune cells, hyper IgE syndrome and fatal autoimmunity.

62
Q

What leads to autoimmunity in Foxp3-/- mice?

A

Autoimmunity arise in two contexts. One is the lack of Tregs that suppress inflammation in general. Another is that the self-reactive TCRs that are typically indicative of Tregs are now in the general Teff pool.

63
Q

How is the generation of Tregs in the thymus self-regulating?

A

When a thymocyte recognizes self-peptide in an MHC, it will produce IL-2. Therefore, the more cells that recognize self-peptides, the more IL-2 will be available in the thymus, and thus the more Tregs will be allowed to develop.

64
Q

What are molecular cues that drive extrathymic Treg differentiation?

A

TGFB, TCR signaling, IL-2, Retinoic acid, Microbial metabolites (butyrate, propionate, secondary bile acids)

65
Q

What signal downstream on IL-2R signaling is required for Treg suppressor function of CD4 (but not CD8)?

A

STAT5

66
Q

What is one theory why some Tregs coexpress transcription factors typically assocaited with other Teffs (Bcl-6, GATA3, etc.)?

A

The expression of ‘other’ TFs may help the Treg and the targeted Teffs ‘meet’ each other in specialized tissue environment.

67
Q

What are four (or three) major effector functions of Tregs?

A

1) Inhibitory cytokine expression (IL-10, ‘active’ TGFb, IL-25)
2) Cytolysis (not shown in vivo, although Tregs have granzymes)
3) Metabolic disruption through IL-2 sequestration and adenosine (from ATP) production (through ectoenzymes)
4) Targeting DCs to inhibit maturation and function

68
Q

Through what molecular pathway do Tregs contribute to tissue repair?

A

Amphiregulin, in a TCR-independent manner

69
Q

What are the three most important cytokines for the initial activation of naive T cells?

A

IL-12, IFNg, TGFB