Week 10-12: Gastrointestinal Tract Flashcards

1
Q

Which Inflammatory Bowel Disease is characterized by bloody stool?

A

Ulcerative Colitis. In contrast, Crohn’s Disease does not present with bloody stool.

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2
Q

Symptoms of ulcerative colitis, alleviating factors

A

Crampy lower abdominal pain, relieved by bowel movement; Bloody stool; No mass; Confined to mucosa; Continuous from rectum (colon only); No granulomas;

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3
Q

4 basic GI processes

A
  • Motility - muscular contractions that mix and move forward the contents of the GIT
  • Secretion - glands located along the GIT that secrete their contents into the tract, assisting in motility, digestion and absorption
  • Digestion - the biochemical breakdown of large particles and molecules into smaller, absorbable particles
  • Absorption - small particles are absorbed from the GIT into the blood or lymph
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4
Q

2 broad categories of movement (motility) in GI

A

1) Mixing movements: Redistribute luminal contents locally, enhancing the exposure to digestive secretions; expose luminal contents to GIT epithelium for absorption.

2) Propulsive movements: Move luminal contents forward. Rate of propulsion varies with specific function of region (e.g., esophagus = rapid; small intestine = slow)

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5
Q

What layers make up the small intestine?

A
  • Muscularis externa is the major smooth muscle layer of the GIT. It has two layers:
      • Inner circular layer - responsible for restriction of the lumen
      • outer longitudinal layers - responsible for shortening of the GIT
  • Myenteric plexus lies underneath, coordinating muscularis externa contractions.
  • Inner most layer is the Muscularis Mucosae, which is a thin layer of smooth muscle between the mucosal and submucosal layers.
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6
Q

Explain the role of Ca2+ and Myosin Light Chain Kinase in GI smooth muscle contraction

A
  • increased intracellular Ca2+ leads to binding of Ca2+ and calmodulin.
  • the Ca-Calmodulin complex activates Myosin Light Chain Kinase (MLCK)
  • MLCK phosphorylates myosin, which can now bind actin and perform shortening of muscle fibres.
  • Contraction is terminated when Myosin Light Chain Phosphatase cleaves phosphate from myosin.
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7
Q

How can a smooth muscle cell increase Ca2+ levels for contraction? (2)

A

1. Calcium-induced calcium release: Depolarisation of membrane brings Ca into cell via voltage gated calcium channels at base of calveoli (indentation at membrane). The influx of Ca induces sarcoplasmic reticulum to release of Ca .

2. Pharmaco-mechanical coupling: IP3 receptor in SR responds to elevated cytosolic levels of IP3 by releasing Ca2+

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8
Q

Describe the role of the Interstitial Cells of Cajal (ICC) as ‘pacemaker’ cells for GI smooth muscle contraction

A

These are specialized smooth muscle cells of GIT that act as pacemakers for contraction! The undergo spontaneous, transient membrane depolarisations that are propagated to adjacent smooth muscle cells via gap junctions, resulting in SLOW WAVES. Greater # of APs sent along, increases the strength of contraction.

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9
Q

How are the duration and amplitude of slow waves modulated?

A

By enteric motor neurons in the walls of the GIT.

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10
Q

List the components of ENS

A

1) Sensory neurons (including mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors and osmoreceptors)
2) Interneurons (excitatory and inhibitory)
3) Secretomotor cells, which influence… - Smooth muscle - Epithelial cells that secrete or absorb fluid/electrolytes - Enteric endocrine cells

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11
Q

Describe the role of the enteric NS in the regulation of GI motility

A

The enteric NS can operate entirely in the GI wall without external input (it’s reflexive). Moderate contraction by sending NTs to ICCs and smooth muscle cells in the circular and longitudinal muscle layers, which result in increased intracellular Ca levels and consequent contraction.

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12
Q

Autonomic Nervous System regulation of GI motility

A

En Passant Innervation: motor axons have multiple varicosities containing NT that can be released into smooth muscle to reach targets The ANS communicates with the ENS

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13
Q

Describe the 3 phases of swallowing

A

1) ORAL PHASE: pushing food bolus toward the back of oral cavity and up against the palate. Requires tongue.
2) PHARYNGEAL PHASE: Touch and pressure receptors in the pharyngeal nerve (in pharynx) send stimulation to medulla via trigeminal nerve, thus initiating reflexive component of swallowing. Pharyngeal wall contracts, thus pushing food into esophagus. Tongue prevents bolus from travelling backward into mouth. Uvula elevates to seal nasal passages. Vocal cords contract and epiglottis closes over the trachea.
3) ESOPHAGEAL PHASE: swallowing centre relaxes pharyngeoesophageal sphincter and initiates primary peristaltic waves by interacting with ENS, to propagate the bolus toward the stomach. These are paired with secondary peristaltic waves, which are triggered by stretch and act to dislodge bolus. Gastroesophageal sphincter opens when a peristaltic wave pushes food bolus against it.

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14
Q

What coordinates the motion of swallowing?

A

The swallowing centre in the medulla oblongata. The initiation of swallowing is voluntary, but once it starts, completion of swallowing in reflexive.

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15
Q

Explain the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter

A

The vagus nerve mediates reflexive relaxation of the sphincter when a food bolus is pushed up against it.

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16
Q

Describe primary peristalsis

A

~5-9 seconds of travel along esophagus

  • Inner circular layer of muscularis externa contracts, pinching a ring
  • Outer longitudinal muscle layer contracts in front of the inched ring, reducing the length of the tube
  • This sequence propagates along the length of the esophagus, pushing luminal contents toward the stomach
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17
Q

What initiates the reflexive phase of swallowing?

A

Pressure of food against the pharyngeal palate stimulate the trigeminal nerve which signals reflexive swallowing to occur.

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18
Q

What are the 2 major motility paradigms in the small intestine?

A
  1. segmentation 2. Migrating Mobility Complex
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19
Q

Explain segmentation

A

Dominant motility in small intestine right after a meal, responsible for mixing chyme and moving it toward large intestine. Composed of alternating contractions and relaxations of adjacent sections of the intestine.

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20
Q

What initiates segmentation? (3)

A

distension of the lumen

presence of gastrin

parasympathetic input

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21
Q

What is the migrating mobility complex?

A

Replaces segmentation following the absorption of a meal. Moves luminal contents along the intestine in periods between meals. Begins at the duodenal-gastric junction and consists of weak peristaltic movements that travel short distances. A second wave begins more distally than the previous to move contents along.

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22
Q

Pathophysiology of achalasia

A

= functional disorder of the esophagus characterized by increased resting tone and incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, preventing food from entering the stomach.

can be recognized by the ‘bird beak sign’ on radiology.

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23
Q

What is esophagitis (2) and what may cause it (3)?

A

= inflammation and epithelial damage of esophagus

  • May be caused by reflux (GERD), infection of immunocompromised, eosinophilic esophagitis
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24
Q

What is GERD?

A

= gastric contents leak backward into the esophagus causing irritation/inflammation of esophagus

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25
Q

Barrett’s esophagus: what it is and how it may progress

A

= distal squamous mucosa of esophagus is replaced by metaplastic columnar epithelium. A response to prolonged injury, columnar epithelium may be more resistance to acid.

Barrett’s esophagus is a complication of GERD that may progress to esophageal adenocarcinoma.

Premalignant dysplasia does not invade lamina propria. Graded based on histologic assessment.

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26
Q

Pathophysiology of diaphragmatic (hiatal) hernias

types (2)

possible presenting Sx (2)

A

= abnormal protrusion of a segment of the stomach above the diaphragm.

Can be (a) sliding or (b) paraesophageal/nonaxial

Usually asymptomatic, can have reflux or heartburn.

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27
Q

Gastritis: what is it? Acute vs chronic vs chornic active

A

= inflammation/irritation of the gastric mucosa

ACUTE: sudden onset; often with erosions or ulcer. Often caused by NSAIDs, alcohol, cocaine, stress, trauma.

CHRONIC: Ongoing. Often multifactorial and often combined with acute. Due to infection, autoimmunity, reactive.

CHRONIC ACTIVE: persistent inflammation of the gastric mucosa related to h pylori. Typically affects antrum of stomach and may extend to body. Increased risk of gastric carcinoma and gastric lymphoma.

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28
Q

Peptic ulcer disease: define, possible complications

A

= acid-induced ulceration of the mucosa and wall of the stomach or duodenum often associated with h. pylori.

Complications: perforation, hemorrahage, obstruction (stenosis), penetration

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29
Q

Carcinoma of the esophagus

A

didn’t find this in lecture but it is an objective so check CBL research from the week.

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30
Q

Gastric Polyps

A

= abnormal growth of tissue projecting from a membrane in the stomach

Can be neoplastic (benign or malignant) or non-neoplastic (hyperplastic or fundic gland polyp)

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31
Q

Gastric carcinoma (define, prevalence, appearance)

A

= malignant neoplasm of gastric epithelium - adenocarcinoma

  • Prevalence: more common in certain countries (i.e., Japan and less common in north america)
  • Appearance: intestinal-type epithelium with signet ring cells, ulcerating.
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32
Q

Eosinophilic esophagitis

How does it present????

A

= a type of esophagitis characterized by numerous eosinophils within the squamous mucosa and associated with dysphagia

may present as difficulty swallowing, food impaction, heartburn

Looks like rings in the trachea on endoscopy. Biopsy needed to confirm eosinophils. Must exclude GERD.

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33
Q

causes of GERD (5)

A
  • low resting tone in lower esophageal sphincter
  • delayed esophageal clearance
  • delayed gastric emptying
  • increased abdominal pressure
  • increased acid production
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34
Q

Symptoms of GERD

A

Variable - heartburn, water brash, belching, retrosternal pain

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35
Q

How is GERD diagnosed? (2)

when is endoscopy warranted?

A

Clinically - history and relief with medication (PPI)

Endoscopy warranted if…

  • heartburn presents with alarm symptoms (bleeding, weight loss)
  • Persistent reflux or previous severe erosive esophagitis
  • History of esophageal stricture with persistent dysphagia
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36
Q

What are some complications that may occur with GERD?

A
  • stricture (scarring)
  • ulceration
  • bleeding
  • barrett’s esophagus
  • adenocarcinoma
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37
Q

What may be seen on biopsy of GERD?

A
  • increased inflammatory cells in the epithelial layer (eosinophils, neutrophils, excess T lymphocytes)
  • basal cell hyperplasia
  • elongation of lamina propria
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38
Q

Treatment for GERD

A
  • PPI to decrease acid production
  • Antacids
  • Diet modifications
  • Weight loss
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39
Q

Endoscopic and histologic features of Barrett’s esophagus

A

Endoscopy:

  • red vevety GI type mucosa between pale squamous mucosa. Tongues extend upward from gastroesophageal junction or may be a broad band moving the who junction up.

Histology:

  • squamous epithelium replaced by columnar epithelium or intestinal type and may see other types of glandular epithelium.
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40
Q

Treatment for Barrett’s Esophagus

A
  • anti-reflux therapy
  • endoscopy every 1-2 years to assess for dysplasia, carcinoma
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41
Q

Tests for h pylori

A

Serology

urea breath test

stool antigen test

biopsy

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42
Q

Composition of gastric juice (3)

A

  • Water
  • Organic compounds (Intrinsic Factor, Pepsinogen, Lipase, Mucus)
  • Ions (Na+, K+, H+, Cl-, HCO3-)
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43
Q

Progression of Type 2 Diabetes (stages; 3)

Insulin blood levels and appropriate treatment at each stage

A

Early

  • Abnormal oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) but normal fasting glucose
  • Treat with diet and exercise

Overt, but mild T2D

  • Moderate fasting hyperglycemia develops (~7 mM)
  • Treat with diet and exercise and add oral hypoglycemic agents (sulfonylureas), insulin-sensitizing drugs (metformin), DPP-4 inhibitors, and/or GLP-1 analogues.

Advanced:

  • Severe fasting hyperglycemia (>9 mM)
    • Insulin dependence often required
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44
Q

Possible causes of insulin resistance?

A
  • Involves genetic and/or acquired defects in insulin action. Can arise as part of other syndromes (i.e., PCOS) or rare gene mutations.
  • Associated with obesity (especially central obesity)/BMI
  • Associated with inflammation in adopose tissue (macorphages produce TNFalpha)
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45
Q

Characteristics of insulin secretion in type 2 diabetes

A
  • Impaired glucose-induced insulin secretion from B cells
  • Impaired proinsulin processing –> manifests as hyperproinsulinemia
  • B cells become unable to compensate for increasing insulin resistance and produce decreasing amounts of insulin
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46
Q

Causes of decline in unsulin secretion in type 2 diabetes (3)

A
  1. Glucose and lipid toxicity to beta cells
  2. Increased # islet macrophages that make pro-inflammatory cytokines
  3. Toxic amyloid deposits build up in pancreas
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47
Q

Monogenic forms of diabetes (2)

A

Mature onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

Neonatal diabetes mellitus

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48
Q

MODY

A

Mature Onset Diabetes of the Young

~2-5% of all type 2 diabetes. All associated with renes that regulate B cell mass or function

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49
Q

Neonatal Diabetes Mellitus

A

Rare: born with type 2 diabetes; a single gene type

Formerly diagnosed as type 1 diabetes, which influences the efficacy of treatment. Now treated with sulfonylureas

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50
Q

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (progress, risk to infant)

A

Appears during pregnancy and disappears following birth. Pregnant women become insulin resistant and insulin secretion increases.

>50% of GDM women later develop T2D.

Carries risk for the infant (increased size, dificult birth)

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51
Q

Reducing progression of type 2 diabetes

A

lifestyle modifications are very effective for slowing progression of diabetes. Metformin is also effective but not actually as much as lifestyle changes!

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52
Q

what do parietal cells produce and where are they located?

A

They are located in oxyntic glands of stomach body and they produce HCl and Intrinsic factor

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53
Q

What do chief cells produce?

A

pepsinogen (turned to pepsin by HCl) and lipase

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54
Q

What do ECL cells produce?

A

histamine

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55
Q

what do D cells produce?

A

somatostatin

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56
Q

what do G cells produce?

A

Gastrin

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57
Q

how is gastrin released and what does it do in the stomach?

A

Gastrin is released into the blood stream (endocrine) from G cells in the pyloric glands of the stomach. It acts on parietal cells to increase HCl secretion and on Chief Cells to increase pepsinogen secretion. It also increases contractions of the stomach.

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58
Q

Mechanism of acid production by parietal (oxyntic) cells

A
  • Stimulation of the stomach stimulates the tubulovesicles to fuse with the canaliculi of parietal cells to form long microvilli
  • H+/K+ ATPase proton pump in tubulovesicle membranes is now on microvilli surface and facilitates production of HCl
  • The cell received CO2 from blood, which is is taken with water by Carbonic Anhydrase to make HCO3- + H+.
  • H+ from this reaction is exported out of the cell into the stomach by the H+/K+ ATPase
    • Cl moves from the blood, through the cell, and to the stomach down its concentration gradient, where it combines with H+ int he stomach to make HCl
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59
Q

Define the term ‘zymogen’ and describe the specific conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin.

A

Pepsinogen is produced by chief cells in the stomach. Pensinogen is cleaved by acid (HCl) to its active form (i.e., pepsinogen is a zymogen), pepsin. Pepsin can also activate more pepsinogen directly - this is called autocatalysis

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60
Q

What are the components of the gastric mucosal barrier?

A

Mucus (sticky secretions containing mucin and glycoproteins) and bicarbonate

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61
Q

Explain the significance of the gastric mucoasal barrier in mucosal protection

A

Protects the luminal epithelium from acid and pepsin-based hydrolysis as well as microorganisms.

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62
Q

Where is mucus produced in the stomach lining?

A

Mucus neck cells of gastric glands secrete clear mucus in response to several stimuli (e.g., mechanical/vagal stimulation, ACh, PGs, bacterial toxins)

Surface epithelial cells continuously secrete viscous mucus with high [HCO3-] via exocytosis. Mucus is held in place by the surfacephosopholipids on the luminal membrane f the cells to lubricate and protect against damage.

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63
Q

Role of prostaglandins (PGs) in the stomach (5)

A

Involved in the protection of the stomach.

  • inhibit acid secretion
  • prevent exfoliation of epithelial cells
  • increase mucosal blood flow
  • stimulate mucus and bicarbonate secretion
  • enhance synthesis of surface-active phsopholipids that line the gastric mucosa and hold mucus in place.
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64
Q

Gastrin

(where it comes from, what stimulates it, what it binds to, what it does)

A

Comes from G cells in the pyloric glands in the antrum of the stomach;

Secreted in response to the peptide NT GRP (gastrin releasing peptide) from enteric neurons and in response to digested protein in the gastric lumen;

Binds to CCK receptors on the basal surface of parietal cells and chief cells to activate them, thus upregulating their products.

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65
Q

Describe the roles played by gastrin, histamine, and ACh in the regulation of gastric secretion

A

HCl is produced by parietal cells, which have receptors for gastrin (CCK receptor), histamine (H2 receptor), and ACh (M3 receptor).

Gastrin is released by G cells in the pyloric glands of the stomach in response to presence of digested protein or in reposnse to GRP released by enteric neurons. Histamine is released by ECL cells in response to gastrin and in response to ACh stimulation from neurons. ACh action on the parietal cells is the product of direct stimulation from neurons.

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66
Q

Explain how ACh, gastrin, and histamine stimulate the parietal cell in a coordinated fashion

A

There is thought to be continuous background release of histamine in gastric interstitial fluid to maintain basal acid secretion. Gastrin and ACh can act both via stimulation of histamine and synergistically with histamine direclty on the parietal cell.

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67
Q

What are the three phases gastric secretion

A

cephalic (psychic), gastric, and intestinal

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68
Q

Describe the stimuli and neural pathways involved in the cephalic phase of acid secretion (3)

Explain inhibition of this pathway (1)

A

The cephalic phase is responsibel for preparing the stimach for an incoming meal. COnscious thought, smell, and taste stimulate the hypothalamus, which activates parasympathetic outflow from the vagus nerve. This stimulated chief cells and G cells to release acid and pepsin in the stimach before food even arrives in there.

Inhibition: Stomach filling and feelings of satiety result in sympathetic discharge.

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69
Q

Describe the stimuli and neural pathways involved in the gastric phase of acid secretion (non-neuronal and neuronal aspects)

Explain inhibition of this pathway.

A

Rate of secretion is maximal during the gastric phase. There are two components:

Non-neuronal: Food entering the stomach increases pH, stimulating gastrin release and stimulating parietal cells directly.

Neuronal: Food entering the stomach causes distension, which activates a vago-vagal reflex via mechanoreceptors in the gastric wall. This results in stimulation of acid and pepsinogen release and indirect stimulation of gastrin release.

Inhibition: pH drop in the antrum stimulated D cells in pyloric glands to release somatostatin, which acts locally to inhibit G cell production of gastrin.

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70
Q

Describe the stimuli and neural pathways involved in the intestinal phase of acid secretion

Explain inhibition of this pathway

A

Nutrients (peptones) in the duodenum stimulate G cells to secrete more gastrin, which then acts on parietal cells and chief cells in gastric glands.

Inhibition: Passage of chyme into duodenum and its breakdown inthe jejunum stimulates the enterogastric reflex arc, leading to production of enterogastrones. Enterogastrones feedback to inhibit G cell, parietal cell, and chief cell activity as well as smooth uscle contraction in the stomach.

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71
Q

Somatastatin. When it is released and what it does

A

Somatostatin is released from D cells in the pyloric glands in response to pH drop in the antrum. It acts to inhibit the gastric phase of acid secretion by locally inhibiting G cell production of meal-stimulated gastrin.

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72
Q

Enterogastrones

  • what are they
  • when are they produced
  • what do they do
A

Entrogastrones include secretin (stimulated my acid), SSK (stimulated by AAs and fat), GIP and GLP-1 peptides (stimulated by fat and glucose). They are all hormones produced as a response to chyme passage to duodenum ad jejunum. They act to inhibit the intestinal phase of acid secretion by feeding back to inhibit G cell, parietal cell, and chief cell activity as well as smooth muscle contraction in the stomach.

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73
Q

Why are NSAIDs hard on the stomach?

A

They inhibit the production of PGs. PGs’ role int hes tomach is to inhibit acid secretion, increase mucosal flow/production, enhance synthesis of surphase phospholipids, and prevent exfoliation of epithelial cells. Inhibiting PGs inhibits this important protective mechanism for the gastric mucosa.

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74
Q

How does h pylori cause harm in the stomach?

What characteristics of h pylori help it survive and do harm in the stomach?

A
  • Mechanism of damage: Inject viruluence factors into epithelial cells, causing them to release nutrients and urea to nourish the bacteria. This damage the epithelial cells and their tight junctions, resulting in inflammation. Cytokines related to inflammation stimulate G cells (++gastrin) and inhibit D cells (–somatostatin), increasing acididty and furthering injury.
  • Adapted to survive in the stomach: Flagellated and motile with chemotaxis toward high pH areas of stomach (mucus). Adhesive to epithelial cells. Produces a potent urease, which converts NH3 and CO2 to protect itself from gastric acid and promote further gastrin secretion.
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75
Q

General treatment for h pylori infection in stomach

A

Standard triple therapyy combined PPI and 2 antibiotics (clarithromycin and amoxicillin or metronidazole)

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76
Q

Peppermint - effect on GI?

A

worsens heart burn

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77
Q

caffeine - effect on GI disease

A

worsens heartburn

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78
Q

How does heartburn present?

symptoms

aggravating factors and alleviating factors

A

post-prandial, retrosternal pain of varying duration and severity. May experience water brash, sour taste, odynophagia (pain with swallowing)

aggravating - supin position, caffeine and peppermint (foods that relax upper esophageal sphincter), fat and protein (foods that delay emptying)

alleviating - antacids

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79
Q

Things that may cause heartburn (5)

A

peppermint, caffeine, opioids, smoking, alcohol

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80
Q

Define GERD

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease. Retrograde movement of gastric contents into the esophagus with symptoms AND/OR complications.

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81
Q

reflux esophagitis

A

Acid damage to esophagus. A common complication of GERD. Caused by increased abdominal pressure, increased volume in stomach, or decreased esophageal clearance.

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82
Q

Treatment for reflux esophagitis (lifestyle, medications, surgery)

A
  1. Correct underlying cause
  2. Lifestyle changes (remove exacerbating factors such as smoking, alcohol, weight)
    1. Medications: antacids, H2 antagonist (OTC), PPI (slower onset but more effective). Usually stopped after symptoms resolve and relief maintained with lifestyle modification.
  3. Surgery: Fundoplication - wrapping stop of stomach around the esophagus (rarely performed)
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83
Q

Possible complications of esophagitis (3)

A

Pain/bleeding

Stricture

Barrett’s esophagus (progresses to adenocarcinoma)

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84
Q

Possible causes of esophagitis and their different manifestations (4)

A
  • Infection (HSV, CMV, candida): typically in immunosuppressed and v painful (odynophagia)
  • Inflammatory (eosinophilic): rings form in trachea, exudate produced; can be treated with elimination diet
  • Trauma (pill): causes painful swallowing, common in elderly (impaired esophageal clearance)
  • Reflux
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85
Q

Dyspepsia - formal definition

A

“stomach ache”

Rome III definition = one or more of…

  • post-prandial fullness
  • epigastric pain or burning
  • early satiety

Sometimes associated with nausea, bloating, anorexia

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86
Q

Causes of dyspepsia

A
  • Usually no obvious cause: ulcer-like symptoms or dysmotility-like symptoms
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87
Q

Gastritis vs gastropathy

A

Gastritis = inflammation of gastric mucosa associated with injury (h pyloria, autoimmune, alcohol)

Gastropathy = epithelial cell damage and regeneration without inflammation (NSAIDs, bile reflux, congestion)

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88
Q

causes of acute vs chronic gastritis

A

Acute (alcohol, early h pylori)

Chronic (autoimmune, late h ylori)

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89
Q

Different physical patterns of gastritis

A

Antral-based gastritis - infection increases gastrin secretion, which increases parietal cell acid production, causing duodenal damage. May eventually cause metaplasia in stomach or duodenum or produce ulcers in stomach or duodenum.

Corpus-predominant atrophic gastritis or pangastritis - caused by genetically lower acid output, predisposing the body for h pylori infection. Increased risk for ulcers, metaplasia, and gastric CA.

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90
Q

Purpose of a urea breath test

A

test for h pylori by investigating the presence of urease enzyme which braeks down uria into ammonia and carbon diaoxis. Pt swallows radiolabelled urea and radiolabelled CO2 is measured in breath. Diagnostic for dyspepsia.

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91
Q

Peptic ulcer disease = ?

A

damage to the mucosal lining of the intestinal surface where acid is implicated in pathogenesis.

May vary from normal mucosal to erosive (damage restricted to superficial mucosa) to ulcerative (damage extends to muscularis mucosa).

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92
Q

Management of peptic ulcer disease

A
  • correct underlying cause
  • Lifestyle changes
  • Medication: PPI
    • Endoscopic: injection around ulcers to stop blood leak coagulation of vessels if ulcer is shallow, place clips to hold ulcer shut, embolizaation (obstruct problem blood vessel), omental patch, other surgical approaches.
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93
Q

Dysphagia

A

= dysfunctional swallowing. May be progressive (i.e., cancer) or longstanding (physical difference)

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94
Q

How to approach a diagnosis for dyphagia

A

Where is the issue? transfer (oropharyngeal vs esophageal)

What is the issue? SCC > adenomacarcinoma > pepstic stricture

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95
Q

Pro and con of an abdominal XR for diagnosis of GI diseases

A

Easy to get, cheap

Won’t show mild inflammatory bowel disease

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96
Q

Pros and cons of doing a barium swallow

A

Easy and cheap

Low sensitivity and specificity

Good for testing dysphagia

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97
Q

Pros and cons of doing a CT abdomen

A

3D information, very sensitive and specific.

Expensive

Exposure to ionizing radiation

Best test for severe abdominal pain

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98
Q

CT enterography: what is it and pros/cons

A

Same as a CT abdomen, but with negative PO contrast and another IV contrast.

Good for showing strictures, intraluminal fillinf defects. Better than plain CT if you are suspecting Crohn’s disease

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99
Q

MR pelvis, abdomenen / MR Enterography / mRCP

What are these and why do it?

A

Similar to a CT but non-ionizing. Not affected by bones so it can image with high resolution close to bony structures.

All are better resolution than CT. MR enterography is analogous to CT enterography with contrast added. MRCP is magnetic resonance cholangiopanreatoagraphy - excellent for viewing liver, biliary tree, and pancreas.

Best first test in pelvis and pt < 25 years old.

100
Q

Endoscopy pros and cons

A
  • Most sensitive and specific test for intraluminal lesions, BUT not able to detect lesions outside of the lumen
  • Able to diagnose, take biopsies, and perform interventions all during the same procedure, BUT it’s invasive and ofter requires sedation
101
Q

Endoscopic ultrasound

A

Can be done in upper or lower GIT, producing highly detailed images of internal organs. Can take biopsies and perform injections during the procedure.

102
Q

Esophageal manometry - what is it and pros/cons

A

Patient swallows to map out pressure points (i.e., achalsia stricture). Detects abnormalities earlier in disease process than imaging (more sensitive). Accurate for distinguishing between mobility disorders or esophagus (fairly specific).

BUT

Invasive and very expensive, plus need a specialized lab and person to perform the investigation

103
Q

ddx for odynophagia

A

Ingestion - pills, food (stuck)

Infection - CMV, HSV (candida dysphagia > odynopagia)

Inflammation - radiation, Crohn disease

104
Q

Define colitis and proctitis

A

Inflammation and epithelial damage of colon (colitis) and/or rectum (proctitis) mucosa

105
Q

possible causes of colitis or proctitis (3)

A

infection, inflammatory bowel disease, ischemic colitis, or other

106
Q

What is inflammatory diarrhea?

A

Diarrhea containing red cells and white cells and debris. Requires microscopic evaluation and usually associated with inflammation of the colorectum.

107
Q

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

A

Two seperate diseases (Crohn Disease and Ulcerative Colitis) of uncertain etiology characterized by inflammation in the GIT. May be ‘indeterminant type’ IBD, which means unable to differentiate between UC & CD. Etiology is poorly understood - genetic and environmental factors.

108
Q

Physical and histological characteristics of Crohn Disease

A
  • Any part of GIT (‘gum to bum’)
  • Patchy distribution
  • Transmural inflammation with associated serositis
  • Granulomas
    • Cobblestone appearance of mucosal surface due to linear ulceration
    • Thickened walls, narrowed lumen
    • Abscess
  • Radiology: string sign
109
Q

What is pictured here? What may it suggest

A

Granuloma of the colon, may be Crohn Disease

110
Q

What diagnosis is supported by this radiograph?

A

Crohn Disease

111
Q

Physical and histological characteristics of ulcerative colitis

A
    • Colon only (starts in rectum)
  • Continuous involvement
    • Inflammation limited to mucosa
  • No granulomas
    • Affects mucosal layer only
    • Absence of goblet cells
  • Crypt distortions and abscesses
112
Q

Possible complications of Crohn Disease

A
  • Fistula tracts
  • Stenosis and obstruction
  • Dysplasia and carcinoma
  • Extraintestinal features (arthritis, eye lesions, skin lesions)
113
Q

Possible complications of ulcerative colitis (3)

A
  • Toxic megacolon (rare today)
  • Dysplasia and carcinoma
  • Extraintestinal features (arthritis, eye lesions, skin lesions)
114
Q

Microscopic colitis - how does it present

A

Presents with chronic, water, non-bloody diarrhea. Colonoscopy is normal but mucosal biopsy is abnormal.

115
Q

Diverticular disease

Define

Risk factors

Possible complications

A

= multiple diverticula, usually on the left side of the colon that may be associated with normal function.

Risk factors include lifestyle (low fibre diet, inactivity, obesity) and muscle weakness. Caused by high intraluminal pressure.

Complications: Diverticulitis (infalmmation of a diverticulum - could leed to abscess), bleeding, associated colitis

116
Q

Describe the two kinds of polyps that can occur in the colon or rectum

A

Polyps are abnormal tissue growth projecting from a mucous membrane.

Sessile polyp has a broad base

Pedunculated polyp has a stalk

Polyps can be neoplastic (premalignant, malignant) or non-neoplastic

117
Q

What is colorectal adenoma

A

epithelial neoplasma that have potential to progrss to carcinoma. Should be considered a premalignant neoplasm.

118
Q

Describe the different ways a colorectal adenoma may appear on histological examination

A

Tubular, villous, or tubulovillous

119
Q

Define colorectal carcinoma

A

Malignant epithelial neoplasm of the colorectum that has invaded through the muscularis mucosae. One of the most common malignant neoplasma and a leading cause of cancer death in mean and women.

120
Q

Risk factors for colorectal cancer (2)

A

Genetics (FAP, Lynch) and environmental (diet)

121
Q

Progression of colorectal adenocarcinoma

A

The vast majority are adenocarcinomas, often preceded by non-invasive pre-malignant adenomas (a type of colon polyp).

Staging by TNM

  • Tumor size/depth/invasion through submucosa
  • Lymph Node spread
  • Metastasis to distant sites

Grading by appearance and histological differentiation/rate of growth/division.

122
Q

Appendicitis

A

Acute inflammation of the appendix usually secondary to obstruction of appendiceal lumen.

obstruction of lumen –> bacterial overgrowth –> inflammation –> increased pressure –> local ischemia –> perforation –> peritonitis or abscess

123
Q

Neoplasms of the appendix

A

Neuroendocrine (carcinoid) tumour is the most common neoplasm of the appendix. A carcinoid tumour is a neuroendocrine tumour that produces serotonin. Typically benign, but can metastasize.

Carcinoid syndrome: symptoms such as flushing, diarrhea, and wheezing may occur if the tumour metastasizes to the liver or serotonin is released into systemic circulation.

124
Q

What are the major macronutrients?

A

The major components of the diet - sugars, proteins, and lipids. Often in polymer forms that must be broken down before they may be absorbed. The daily requirement for protein is fixed, but carb and lipid amounts may vary.

Proteins: 9 of 20 AAs must be obtained from diet (i.e., are essential)

Fats: 2 FAs are essential (linoleate and linolenate)

125
Q

What are the major micronutrients? Their role? General absorption.

A

Micronutrients are the minor components of diet that are functionally critical. They include vitamins (fat and water soluble) and minerals. Water-soluble vitamins are essential because they are co-factors for enzyme function. Functions of fat-soluble vitamins vary. Some micronutrients may be absorbed directly, but some must be modified before they may be absorbed (i.e., B12, folate, iron).

126
Q

Describe the structural components of the intestinal mucosa responsible for regulating intestinal transport

A
  • Small intestine lined by simple columnar (absorptive) epithelium. Little EC matrix bt cells, cells linked by cell-cell junctions. Cells form epical villi.
127
Q

What are the barriers to free movement of digested nutrients across the mucosal epithelium of the intestines? Where is paracellular transport possible?

A

The enterocytes of the simple columnar epithelium of the intestinal mucosa are bound together by apical tight junctions and their microvilli have a glycocalyx brush border. Tight junctions present ‘transepithelial resistance’ that is lower is the small intestine, where small, charged ions can move down the conc grad through tight junctions between cells - paracellular transport. Beyond the enterocytes themselves, there is a basolateral plasma membrane, and a basement membrane before contacting the blood or lypmhatic capillary.

128
Q

Differentiate paracelluar and transcellular transport in the intestine.

A

Apical tight junctions between enterocytes present ‘transepithelial resistance’ that is lower is the small intestine, where small, charged ions can move down the conc grad through tight junctions between cells - paracellular transport.

On the contrary, transcellular transport is transport across the plasma membrane of enterocytes. Material moves through cells by diffusion, facitiated transport, active transport, or micropinocytosis/endocytosis.

129
Q

Explain differing levels of macronutrient absorption in different places in small intestine

A

most carbs and proteins are absorbed in the first 50% of small intestine (duodenum and jejunum) and lipids (as well as lipid soluble vitamins) are delayed because they take longer to digest.

130
Q

Describe the process of fat digestion and absorption in general terms

A

Fat breakdown is initiated in the stomach (gastric hydrolysis) where fats start otbe dispersed and emulsified. Further fat hydrolyces and micelle formation takes place in the small intestine. After complete digestion/breakdown of fates, absorption is normally 98% efficient. SOme complex fats (i.e., TGs, and phospholipids) are resynthesized within enterocytes. Absorbed fats may then be packaged into chylomicrons and taken away in the lymph. Fats packaged as glycerol and some free FAs will also be taken up into portal blood.

131
Q

Gastric lipase

A

Contributes to early dispersion of large fats, with preference for breaking the third Fa off of a TG. Efficient at low pH.

132
Q

emulsification

A

The release of free FAs, mixing and interaction with protein breakdown products, resultin gin disperion of large fat globules into small lipid droplets in the chyme.

133
Q

Role of pancreatic lipases

A

Generate lipids with polar head groups that faciltiate further emulsification. Colipase helps anchor lipase to emulsification droplets once they are coated with bile salts. Very small droplets mean large SA to volume ratio

134
Q

Role of bile salts in digestion

A

Form a shell around FAs and monoglycerides - a micelle - in partnership with other lipid breakdown molecules (lipase and colipase). Micelles may then move through the aqueous ‘unstirred water layer’ to reach the apical’luminal surface of enterocytes.

135
Q

Lipid absorption into enterocytes

A

Absorption of short/medium length FAs occurs primarily via (a) directly partitioning into microvillus membrane. But also occurs via (b) carrier mediate, facilitated diffusion with protein transporters. Does not require solubilization of the micelle as most of these lipids are on the micelle surface.

Absorption of long chain FAs, monoglycerides and cholesterol usually requires dissociation/breakdown of the micelle as these less soluble lipids are often buried inside. Most require binding proteins in the microvillar membranes of the enterocytes.

136
Q

Transport of lipids to blood

A

Small and medium chain FAs are released baslaterally and diffuse into capillaries that drain into the hepatic portal vein (–> liver). Long chain FAs and monoglycerides are re-esterified with glycerol to form TGs int he enterocyte. TGs, cholesterol, phospholipids, fat soluble vitamines are packaged by apolipoproteins in the Golgi and secreted by exocytosis as chylomicrons basolaterally.

Chylomicrons are exocytosed, pass through basement membrane and enter the central lacteals (discontinuous with lymphatic capillaries). They bypass th eliver and enter the bloodstream at the thoracic duct. They can then be broken down in the blood by lipoprotein lipase to free FAs, glycerol and cholesterol. Cholesterol may then travel to the liver to be incoporated into LDL.

Intestinal cells can also produce and secrete cholesterol-rich, VLDL, which can pass into the blood. VLDL is a prominent route of cholesterol management when fasting.

137
Q

4 major types of dietary carbohydrates

A
  1. starch - long chains of sugars (digestible)
  2. dietary fibre - long chains of sugars (non-digestible)
  3. Dietary disaccharaides (digestible)
  4. dietary monosaccharaides (fully digested)
138
Q

amylose vs amylopectin

A

alpha amylose has alpha 1:4 bonds

amylopectin has alpha 1:4 bonds and alpha 1:6 bonds

139
Q

Describe how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed across the intestinal wall

A
  • amylase hydrolyzes 1:4 and 1:6 linkages, thereby initiating the breakdown of both linear and branched starch molecules. Amylase is broken down by gastric acid and then pancreatic amylase completes initial carb digestion in the duodenum.
  • Pancreatic amylase digestion generates di- and trisaccharaides
  • Enzymes in duodenal and jejunal brush border membrane fully break down dugars to monosaccharaides (galactose, glucose, fuctose)
  • Monosaccharaide transporters in the apical microcvillar membranes bring sugars into enterocytes and another group of tranpsorters expels them basolaterally into the interstitial fluid. SGLT1 brings in glucose/galactose paired with Na+ (Na+ expelled by Na/K ATPase to maintain gradient) and GLUT5 brings in fructose. Glucose, galactose, and fructose all expelled basolaterally by GLUT2 into the interstitial fluid where they may be transported into the blood.
140
Q

Describe how proteins are digested and AAs, peptides, and polypeptides are absorbed across the intestinal wall

stomach (1)

duodenum (2)

absorption of small ones (2)

absorption of big ones (1)

A
  • Stomach: Protein digestion is initiated in the stomach. Pepsinogen is cleaved to pepsin by HCl and then pepsin can perform autocatalysis on pepsinogen to further increase pepsin levels.
  • Duodenum: Pancreatic trypsinogen is cleaved to trypsin by enterokinase from enterocyte brush borders in the duodenum. Activated trypsin activates other pancreatic proteases and some lipases in the duodenum, which free up AAs, di- and tripeptides, and some slightly longer polypeptides.
  • AAs, di- and tripeptides brought across enterocytes by direct transport via the peptide transporter or amino acid transporter, which uses cotransport with a H+. The The H+ gradient is maintained by the Na+/H+ exchanger. transporters and released into the interstitial fluid for uptake into blood.
  • Longer polypeptides can be further hydrolyzed by brush border hydrolases. After uptake some peptides can be further hydrolyzed inta AAs intercellularly.
141
Q

GALT

A

Gut-associated lymphoid tissue is important for immunity in the gut. Microfold (M)-cells are responsible for uptake of intact protein antigens.

142
Q

absorption of fat soluble vitamins.

A

Most often absorbed passibled from icelles and transported out of the cells into chylomicrons as part of the lipid transport process

143
Q

Absorption of water soluble vitamines

A

Water soluble vitamins are transported across the intestinal epithelium by a number of mechanisms, including facilitated diffusion, active transport, endocytosis (B12/coalbumin), and deconjugation followed by faciltiated diffusion (folate)

144
Q

Absorption of minerals

A

Minerals are transported across the intestinal epithelium by a number of mechanisms, including active transport (Mg), facilitated diffusion (Ca), and alternate transport mechanisms based on the form of the mineral (Fe)

145
Q

Where are bile salts/acids and coalbumin absorbed?

A

distal small intestine (ileum)

146
Q

Explain absorptioin of cobalumin

A
  • coalbamin = VitB12
  • COBALAMIN (CBL) is ingest bound to proteins in food. Gastric acid and pepsin release it during protein digestion.
  • CBL is acid sensitive, so it binds to glycoprotein haptocorrin, which is produced by salivary and gastric glands and acts to protect CBL.
  • Pancreatic proteases digest haptacorrin in the duodenum, liberating CBL
  • Intrinsic Factor is secreted by parietal cells in gastric glands. Intrinsic factor complexes with CBL in the jejunum where pH is more neutral.
  • The CBL/IF complex binds a receptor on the apical membrane of ileal enterocytes (free CBL will not bind), which triggers receptor-mediated endocytosis.
  • CBL is liberated in the lysosome, then it complexes with transcoalbamin II and the complex is secrete basolaterally, where it may enter the intestinal capillaries. It will be delivered to the liver by the portal venous system
147
Q

Calcium absorption

A
  • Calcium undergoes passive absorption both paracellularly and transcelluarly in the jejunum and ileum
  • Transcellular transport begins in duodenum. Ca diffuses down concentration gradient through the apical brush border via Ca Channels
  • Calbindin is a protein syntehsized in response to the transcriptional activation of Vitamin D. Calbindin complexes with Ca to buffer levels of free Ca in the cytoplasm.
  • Finally, Ca is actively transported against its concentration gradient acorss the basolateral membrane of duodenal enterocytes.
148
Q

Name the fat soluble vitamins

A

KADE

these are transported in micelles passively

149
Q

Two enterocyte pathways for ion absorption

A

Paracellular - between cells, down gradient through tirght junctions. Tight junctions most receptive in small intestine. Resistance increases as you move down the large intestine.

Trancellular - crossing the membranes. Genearlly, at least one membrane passage is active, in order to push agains the gradient.

150
Q

Na absorption in intestine

A

Paracellular in early small intestine and transcellular for whole intestine (large and small). In the proximal small intestine, Na enters enterocytes via Glucose/Na cotransporter (SGLT1) and AA/Na cotransporter. Na leaves enterocyte by Na/K ATPase. This process is not cAMP sensitive so it isn’t affected by bost enterotoxins that cause diarrhea. Na can also enter via Na/H exchangers (NHE3) in response to high pH in the lumen.

In the ileum and proximal colon, Na enteres enterocytes via Na/H exchanger (NHE3) just like before, but now it’s coupled with a Cl/HCO3- exchanger, therefore the process is electrocially neutral. This process is inhibited by a number of signallying cascade and therefore may be a cause of diarrhea.

In the distal colon and rectum, Na enters enterocytes via facilitated diffusion through ENaC, coupled to the Na/K ATPase, which maintains the concentration gradient. ENaC transport is upregulated by aldosterone (increases channel opening, channel transportation, channel synthesis, and Na/K ATPase synthesis)

151
Q

How much fluid is absorbed in different parts of the intestine?

A
  1. 5 - 12 L in duodenum and jejunum
  2. 3-4.6 L in ileum and colon
152
Q

What are the different roles of intestinal cells in crypts and villi surface in terms of transport in the intestine?

A

Crypts responsible for secretion and surface responsible for absorption

153
Q

Cl absorption in the intestine

A

(a) Passive, voltage-gates Cl absorption (following the movement of Na+) occurs in both the small and large intestine (transcellular).
(b) It can also occur paracellularly.
(c) Electroneutral exchange of Cl- and HCO3- in the ileum and colon (can occur in both the presence or absence of parallel Na/H exchange). Driven by movement of Na and a charge gradient heightened by negatively charged AAs and carbs in the lumen. This modality can be disrupted by signalling cascades and lead to diarrhea.

154
Q

Water absorption in the intestine

A

Water follows movement of Na and Cl. It is absorbed passively, driven by the osmotic gradient. It can be absorbed paracellularly (tight junctions) or transcellularly (directly, or via aquaporins or SGLT1). Assistance from aquaporins or co-transporters increases efficiency significantly. For every 1 glucose moved through SGLT1, 2 Na and 260 H20 go across, so this is the most efficient mode of H20 transport (responsible for 5 L absorption/day).

155
Q

4 functions of intestinal fluid secretion

A

1) propel substances out of the crypts
2) maintain the fluidity of intraluminal contents
3) maintain osmotic equilibrium
4) dilute potentially injurious substances

156
Q

Modes of fluid secretion in intestine

A
  • Duodenum
    • Crypt enterocytes secrete HCO3 rich fluid, related to the HCO3/Cl exchange at apical membrane
    • Glands secrete mucinous fluid (contains lysozyme, Igs) by secretory exocytosis at slow rate that increases after feeding.
  • Jejunum and Ileum
    • Crypt enterocytes secrete isotonic NaCl solution, driven in part by active secretion of Cl through CFTR channel. Na follows paracellularly down the gradient and water follows them both. CFTR channels are upregulated in response to Ca2+, cAMP, cGMP, which are all hormone regulated.
157
Q

Factors influencing intestinal water and electrolyte transport (5)

A

1) hormones and paracrines produced by mucosal cells in response to luminal stimuli
2) NTs produced by enteric neurons
3) chemicals released by immune cells and fibroblasts in lamina propria
4) changes in capillary blood and lymphatic flow
5) smooth muscle contraction

158
Q

What are the two major pathophysiological mechanisms for diarrhea?

A

1) decreased absorption of fluid and electrolytes
2) increased secretion of fluid and electrolytes

159
Q

What mechanisms may result in decreased fluid and electrolyte absorption, ultimately causing diarrhea? (3)

provide an example of each (3)

A
  1. Inhibited ion transport (ex: e coli’s enterotoxin inhibits NaCl absorption)
  2. Increased osmotic pressure in lumen prohibits absorption of water (osmolar gap) (ex: production of short chain FAs and hydrogen in lactase deficiency results in diarrhea with acid pH)
  3. Increased propulsive activity resulting in decreased contact time for absorption (ex: irritable bowel syndrome)
160
Q

What mechanisms may cause increased secretion of fluid and electrolytes, ultimately leading to diarrhea? Give an example for each (2)

A
  1. Stimulated anion secretion (ex: cholera bacterial toxins)
  2. Secretion from hyperplastic crypts (ex: chronic inflammation characteristic of celiac sprue)
161
Q

Explain the mechanism of diarrhea associated with celiac

A
  • Gluten triggers an inflammatory response
    • Decreased brush border hydrolases results in unabsorbed osmoles
    • Villus atrophy (fluid, nutrient, and electrolyte malabsorption)
    • Crypt hyperplasia (increased endogenous secretion)
    • Inflammatory cells –> inflammation-induced hyper-secretion by crypt enterocytes
    • ULTIMATE RESULT: diarrhea
162
Q

Cholera: Transmission, mechanism of diarrhea, treatment

A
  • Cholera lives in feces and is contracted by contaminated food/water - cocurs in places lacking proper sanitation/clean water
  • Stream of events leading to elevation of cAMP, which inhibits neutral NaCl absorption and stimulates Cl- secretion. BUT nutrient-coupled Na absorption is not affected.
  • Treat by taking advantage of the fact that Na-nutrient uptake isn’t affected. Administer Na/glucose solutions to replenish Na and minimize dehydration.
163
Q

Differentiate between malabsorption and maldigestion

A

Maldigestion - defective hydrolysis of nutrients

Malabsorption - defective mucosal absorption

164
Q

Iron absorption

A

In orer for iron to be absorbed, it has to be in the Fe2+ state. Most ingested iron is Fe3+ or Fe4+ and requires interaction with acid to facilitate its absorption –> so take it with orange juice.

165
Q

How may the GIT adapt for absorption?

A
  • Colon may adapt to better absorb certain nutrients
  • Villi can elongate and in crease in number (i.e., in small bowel resection)
  • Increased pancreatic enzyme production
    *
166
Q

Anthropometry

A

Crude assessment of weight and body type to assess malnutrition. Includes BMI (kg/m2), weight, weight, hip/waist ratio, skinfold (fat), and general muscle bulk

167
Q

Screening tools for nutritive state

A

Subjective global assessment : includes a physical exam (subcutaneous fat, edema, muscle bulk). Identifies pts who are malnourished.

Mini-nutritional assessment: more often used in elderly patients; includes food intake, weight loss, mobility, psycholgical, BMI or SC fat

168
Q

Define well nourished, mild/moderate malnutrition, and severe malnutrition

A

Well nourished = eating well and gaining weight; may still have weight loss and muscle wasting

mild/moderate malnutrition = 5-10% weight loss, compromised food intake, continued weight loss, progressive functional impairment, moderate physiological stress

severe malnutrition = >10% weight loss, poor nutrient intake, progressive functional impairement, muscle wasting.

169
Q

Function of a hydrogen breath test to assess for malnutrition

A

Assesses carb absorption. Administer a carbohydrate (i.e., lactose) and test breath at baseline and 2 h later. Diagnose lactose intolerance.

170
Q

Schilling test

A

identify B12 deficiency/malabsorption.

  1. Give a small dose radiolabelled B12 –> absorbed by small intestine
  2. Give large dose IM non-labelled B12 –> saturate B12 carriers
  3. Measure radiolabelled B12 in urine; malabsorption if <7-10% of oral dose is recovered
  4. Confirm site of malabsorption by administering intrinsic factor, then pancreatic enzyme, then antibiotic and see if the issue resolves. (antibiotic to see if SIBO is consuming gut B12)
171
Q

Purpose of adminsitering a quantitative fecal fat test

A

Identify pancreatic insufficiency

172
Q

Tests for pancreatic insufficiency (not blood work)

A

Quantitative fecal fat, fecal elastase/chymotrypsin

173
Q

Presentations of Celiac

A
  • Classic: abnormal histology, IgA EMA or tTG Ig positive | symptoms
  • Atypical: abnormal histology, IgA EMA or tTG Ig positive | normal and extraintestinal symptoms
  • Silent: abnormal histology, IgA EMA or tTG Ig positive | asymptomatic
  • Latent: Genetic susceptibility HLA-DQ2 or -DQ8 | lack of histological changes but current symptoms or will develop symptoms
  • Refractory: Symptomatic, severe histology, does not respond to gluten free diet for at least 6 mo
174
Q

Pathophysiology of Celiac

A

Gluten/gliaden exposure triggers an inflammatory response
• Villus atrophy (fluid, nutrient, and electrolyte malabsorption)
• Crypt hyperplasia (increased endogenous secretion)
• Enterocyte disarray
• Inflammatory infiltrates –> inflammation-induced hyper-secretion by crypt enterocytes
• Decreased brush border hydrolases results in unabsorbed osmoles

Results in: increased osmotic load, luminal electrolytes, FA production by colon bacteria, decreased release of bile acids and pancreatic enzymes in response to meals, unabsorbed bile salts in colon  DIARRHEA

175
Q

Diagnosing Celiac

A

Serology: Anti-tTG IgA*****; OR Anti-Endomysial Ig; OR Anti-gliadin IgA, IgG

Endoscopy & small bowel biopsy: marbelizatin of duodenum

176
Q

4 histological findings for celiac

A

villus atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, enterocyte disarray, inflammatory infiltrates

177
Q

Genes associated with development of celiac

A

HLA DQ2 or HLA DQ8

178
Q

Mechanism of gluten sensitivity in celiac

A

Autoimmune response.

Gliaden is taken into interstitium by an Ig, recognized by tTG, and presented on APCs via HLA DQ2 or HLA DQ8 (upregulated in celiac) to T cells.

T cells mediate inflammation and B cells to make anti-gliaden and anti-tTG antibodies. Killer T cells come over and destroy enterocytes affected by inflammation.

Summary: exposure results in inflammation, heightened sensitivity (new Igs), and tissue destruction

179
Q

a) acute appendicitis
b) Ulcerative colitis
c) Behcet’s disease
d) gastroenteritis
e) Crohn disease

A

crohn

180
Q

How to diagnose IBS

A

Rome IV Criteria:

recurrent abdominal pain at least 1 day/week in the last 3 months associated with 2 or more of:

  • related to defecation
  • onset associated with a change in stool frequency
  • onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of stool
181
Q

Red flags pointing away from IBS

A
  • Weight loss
  • Onset after 50y
  • Family history of colorectal cancer or celiac disease
  • Joint pain, skin rashes
  • Malnourishment
  • Presence of a mass, obstruction
  • FOBT +ve (fecal blood)
  • Abnormal CBC, CRP, thyroid, electrolytes
182
Q

Differentiate between chrohn and UC based on involvement of mucosa

A

Crohn involves the whole mucosal layer - big deep ulcers. Ulcerative colitis only involves the superficial mucosa.

183
Q

Extrainstestinal manifestations of inflammatory bowel diseases

A
  • eyes: uveitis (more in UC)
  • mouth: aphthous stomatitis (more in UC)
  • shins: e nodosum [rash]
  • ankles: pyoderma [ulcer-appearing]
  • feet
  • bones: arthritis (more in UC)
184
Q

Classification of ulcerative colitis

A

Montreal classification considers the E(xtent) and S(everity) of disease.

185
Q

How to assess risk in Crohn disease?

A

Number and extent of lesions and inflammation viewed in monitoring endoscopy informs how aggressive treatment needs to be.

186
Q

Explain the therapeutic pyramid for active crohn disease

A
  1. Mild Disease: topical treatment
    • Budenoside and aminosalicylates to bring down inflammation
  2. Moderate Disease:
    • Biologics: infliximab
    • Systemic corticosteroids
    • Oral steroids
    • Azathioprine/6-MP or methotrexate
  3. Severe Disease:
    • Surgery
    • Biologics: infliximab
    • Azathioprine/6-MP or methotrexate
187
Q

5- aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA)

A

Often the first pharm therapy used in crohn disease. An antiinflammatory. Good to use this instead of using corticosteroids. Available in multiple forms (pH dependent, timed release, bacterial cleavage).

188
Q

Using corticosteroids in treatment of crohn disease

A

Less than 50% of patients with CD require corticosteroid therapy. Reserve for more complicated disease courses. These drugs are effective at obtaining remission, but they have significant side effects (i.e., adrenal insufficiency, osteoporosis, more). Budenoside - a topically-acting steroid - has incrased the options for steriod use though.

Can use corticosteroid to achieve remission and then maintain remission using Azathioprine.

189
Q

Role of azathioprine in the management of Crohn disease

A

Azathioprine can be used to maintain remission in CD patients who achieved remission using corticosteroids and need to be tapered off.

190
Q

Biologic options for treating crohn disease

A

Anti-TNFs have proven effective at healing the gut. Infliximab. May cause some immunogenic-related side effects. Use in tandem with an immunosuppressant.

191
Q

When would surgery be appropriate in Crohn disease

A

Surgery for relief of symptoms or complications of the disease. IT’s an effective treatment option when medical therapy has failed or complications arise. It should be considered very carefully.

192
Q

Treatment options for ulcerative colitis based on severity of disease

A

Start with topical –> oral –> steroids –> immunosuppressants –> biologic

193
Q

Indications for surgery in ulcerative colitis

A

Failure of medical therapy, cancer risk, perforation, hemorrhage, stricture

194
Q

Surgery options for ulcerative colitis

A

formation of a J pouch? more?

195
Q

Risk of cancer in ulcerative colitis?

A

upt o 20% risk after 30 years of disease.

Risk factors: Duration of disease, extent of disease, presence of primary sclerosing cholangitis, FHx, dysplasia, endoscopic appearance, severity of inflammation

196
Q

Causes of lower GI bleeding

A

C-HAND

Colitis (infectious, inflammatory, ischemic)

Hemorrhoids

Angiodysplasia

Neoplastic

Diverticulsis

197
Q

Dentate line

A

separates the rectal columnar epithelium from the anal squamous epithelium

198
Q

Overview of hemorrhoids/fissures

A

Most common cause of GI bleeding in patients under 50. Usually minor and painless with hemorrhoids, but may be painful with fissures (little cuts). Pts present with fresh blood, often dripping into the toilet or streaked on their stool.

Diagnosis by history, digital rectal exam, endoscopy.

199
Q

Management for hemorrhoids/fissures

A

Lifestyle: high fibre, fluid, don’t strain on toilet

Medications: hydrocortisone ointments, sitz bath, fissues can be treated with nitroglycerin or other mode of dilating anal canal so it can heal

Surgery: rarely indicated; banding, removal, injection of botox into sphincter or sphincterotomy for fissures

200
Q

Diverticulosis. More common in what location and in what groups of people?

A

= sac-like protrustions from colon wall.

Common with older age; associated with western diet.

Mostly in sigmoid colon, however R sided in Asian pts.

201
Q

Character of bleeding in diverticulosis

A

Usually large volume, painless. Usually stops spontaneously, but recurrent bleeds are common.

202
Q

Diverticulitis (definition, presentation). Blood?

A

Infection of diverticulosis. Presents with pain, fevers, high WBC, not typically bleeding.

203
Q

Management of diverticulosis (4)

A
  • Resuscitation: ABCs
  • Colonoscopy: can be challenging; requires clean bowel and active bleeding
  • Angiography: contrast injected into a major artery to find the vessel that is bleeding. Use CT scan. Only detects bleeding at rates >0.5mL/min. Can embolize (cauterize) the bleed once it is identified.
  • Surgery: Segmental resection may be warranted if bleeding is persistent. recurrent (3+ episodes annually), or pt is unstable despite recussitation.
204
Q

Treating diverticulosis bleed

A

Inject with epinephrine

205
Q

Ischemic colitis:

Definition & Presentation & Diagnosis

A

Reduction of blood flow from the mesenteric vasculature. Some areas - rectosigmoid junction & splenic flexture - are more prone to ischemia due to less collateral blood supply. If colonic infarction develops, it can lead to peritonitis, sepsis, gangrene.

Present with acute abdominal pain followed by diarrhea and mild rectal bleeding. Patients are often elderly and have CV risk factors.

Diagnosis by labs (anemia, high serum lactate, high WBC), CT, colonoscopy

206
Q

Treatment for ischemic colitis

A

Supportive: most cases improve in 1-2 days

Antibiotics: when ischemia is severe or has culminated in peritonitis. Gereal Surgery may then become involved.

Address underlying CV risk factors

207
Q

Infectious colitis:

Cause, presentation, diagnosis, treatment

A

Organisms contaminating food and water, common in developed countries.

Manifest in acute onset bloody diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, fever

Diagnosis: stool for infectious workup; endoscopy (rarely)

Treatment: hydration, antibiotics if diarrhea is severe

208
Q

Angiodysplasia: presentation, treatment

A

Dilated, tortuous submucosal bleeds, spider-like appearance.

Associated with end-stage renal disease, aortic stenosis, and advanced age. Common in the cecum and right colon. Does not typically manifest in bleeding, but if it is does, bleed is slow and occult.

Treatment: endoscopy with argon plasma coagulation

209
Q

Colon Cancer

Presentation, course, management

A

Responsible for 10% of lower GI bleeds in patients over 50 yrs. Presents as a low grade chronic bleed. May be bright red blood if lesion is left sided or maroon stools/melena if right sided. Most commonly presents with occult iron deficiency. Patients may experience altered bowel habits. May lead to bowel obstruction or metastasis.

Management: Surgery. Endoscopic treatment not ideal because tumours are highly friable (will just bleed)

210
Q

Initial management of a GI bleed and evaluation of cause

A
  1. ABCs: airway, breathing, circulation
  2. IV setup
  3. Monitory closely
  4. Fluid resucitation and prepare blood for transfusion in case it is needed

evaluation of cause:

  • History: symptoms, type of bleed, medications, liver disease, upper GI bleed
  • Vitals: assess level of blood loss
  • Assess mental status
  • Digital rectal exam
211
Q

How may a large upper GI bleed be identified in blood work

A

elevated blood urea to creatinine ratio (ACR) because of elevated urea.

212
Q

Colonoscopy for GI bleed

A

Can investigate and treat at same time. But patient needs to be stable and have their bowel prepped (polyethylene glycol). Enema only cleanses left colon and refluxes blood up, making it hard to identify source. If a brisk bleed is expect, EGD can be done as well (microclips applied that are pooped out later).

213
Q

Role of imaging for diagnosing GI bleed

A

Can diagnose bleeding throughout the GIT. Quick and no need for bowel prep. A better option for patients who are unstable or the bleed wasn’t foudn on colonoscopy.

Options: RBC scan, CT angiography, angiography

214
Q

What is an RBC scan?

A

Technetium tagged RBCs or sulfur colloid injected and then repeat XR taken for up to 24 hr. Non-invasive, sensitive for bleeding 0.1mL-0.5mL/min.

Disadvantage: requires active bleeding and not good at localizing source due to persitalsis. High false positive rate that leads to unnecessary surgeries.

215
Q

CT angiography

A

Contrast enhanced CT scan. Widely available, fast, non-invasive. Sensitive - detects bleeds of 0.3-0.5mL/min.

Disadvantages: IV contrast, radiation exposure, lack of therapeutic capability.

216
Q

Angiography

A

Performed by an interventional rediologist. For pt who can’t do endoscopy or it wasn’t diagnostic.

Requires active bleeding of 0.5-1mL/min. Can stop bleed during the test. No need for bowel prep.

May cause complications such as bowel ischemia, renal failure, rebleeding, not widely available. Need general surgery involved

217
Q

Epidemiology of Irritable Bowel Sydrome and impact on the patient, society, health care

A
  • May be present in 15-20% of adults (only 20% present to health care)
  • More common in women and middle aged
  • Accounts for 12% of primary care visits and 25-40% of GE referrals.
  • Huge impact on pt due to investigations, interventions, psychosocial distress
  • Huge burden on health care and economy due to missed work and disbaility
218
Q

Presentations of IBS

A
  • huge variability in presentation
    • constipation, pain, diarrhea
  • Extraintestinal manifestations:
    • Gynecologic: dymenorrhea, dyspareunia
    • Urologic: dysuria, frequent urination
    • MSK: fibromyalgia
    • Psychological: depression, anxiety, abuse (risk factor)
219
Q

Pathophysiology of IBS

A
  • Motility disturbance and Visceral hypersensitivity
    • Normal perception of abnormal motility OR abnormal perception of normal motility
    • dysregulation in gut-brain axis : increased perception of visceral pain and altered secretomotor function
  • Multifactorial etiology
    • Microbiome imbalance
    • Psychological stress, smoking, diet
    • Genetics
  • Often psychological comorbities (anxiety, depression, somatization)
220
Q

Alarm symptoms for IBS pts (5)

A
  • new onset over age 50
  • significant wt loss
  • GI bleeding
  • Fever
  • Nocturnal bowel movements
221
Q

How may fibre be implicated in pathophysiology of IBS?

A

Normally, fibre acts to bulk stool and accelerate transit time. In IBS, fibre may be fermented into short-chain FAs and gas. Gas causes pain, bloating and flatulence. FAs result in increased osmotic load, decreased pH, changes to microbiome and possible inflammation and permeability of gut.

222
Q

Treatment for IBS

A
  1. Dialogue
  2. DIet
    • Regular meals, time time and eat slow, good fluid intake
    • Limit fats, fizzy drinks, caffeine, sugar-free sweets, fruits
    • Specific food avoidances when specific intolerance is identified (lactose, gluten, fructose)
  3. Drugs (variable, based on symptoms)
223
Q

FODMAPs

A

Fermentable Oligosaccharaides DIsacharaides Monosaccharaides and Polyols

Fermented by gut bacteria to produce gas and short chain FAs, leading to distension and diarrhea.

224
Q

Drug therapy for IBS

A

Chosen based on symptoms

  • Diarrhea
    • absorbants
    • GI relaxants
  • Constipation
    • Fibre supplements, Osmotic laxatives, GI stimulants, Pro-secretory
  • Pain/Bloating
    • _​_Anxiolytics, antispasmodics, anti-gas, SSRIs, TCA, pro-secretory
  • Others… CBT/psychotherapy very effective but expensive
225
Q

3 kinds/families of laxatives

A

Bulk

Osmotic

Stimulant (contact)

226
Q

General function of bulk laxatives, indications, contraindications, SEs.

A

Dietary fibre through altered intake (food or supplement). Introduce indigestible, water-absorbing molecules that pull water into the gut, therbey bulking up stool. Intestinal distension leads to ENS stimulation of peristalsis.

Used to treat constipation. Do not use if GI blockage is suspected - could exacerbate the problem.

SE: flatulence/hypersensitivity

227
Q

Function of osmotic laxatives

A

Osmotic laxatives are poorly absorbed salts and sugars that ast to retain or draw back waterinto the colon by osmosis. Increased distension leads to stimulation of peristalsis. Some (lactulose, glycerin) have additional effectiveness as stool softeners.

228
Q

When may use of an osmotic laxative be indicated? Contraindicated?

A

Indicated in constipation or for bowel evaculation prior to a GI examination. Contraindicated in case of known or suspected GI blockage

229
Q

Side effects of osmotic laxatives

A

Electrolyte imbalance (salts only)

bloating and/or flatulence, abdominal cramps, and/or diarrhea

230
Q

Stimulant/contact laxatives:

example

MOA

pharmacokinetics

SIde effects

A

Ex: Sennosides aka Senna

MOA: Direct stimulation of myenteric plexuses in ENS resulting in smooth muscle motility and evacuation of contents.

Pharmacokinetics: Minimal systemic absorption. May require enteric coating to get through stomach.

Side effects: Craming and/or diarrhea; pigmentation of the colon (=melanosis coli)

231
Q

Indications and contraindications for Senna

A

Indications: Constipation

Contraindications: Known or suspected GI blockage. Other cotnact laxatives unsafe in pregnancy.

232
Q

example of an osmotic laxative

A

PEG3500

233
Q

example of a stimulant/contact laxative

A

Senna

234
Q

Stool Softeners

A

Also known as emollients (i.e., glycerin, docusate). Oral and rectal formulations.

MOA: Increase lubrication of feces. Mostly lubricates surface, some core penetration. Soften fecal matter to reduce effort of excretion.

SE: rectal irritation

Contraindications: known or suspects GI blockage

235
Q

Opioid receptor antagonists

A

Selective competitive block of mu-pioid receptors (ex: methynaltrexone). Re-establish GI mobility that may have been blocked by opioid use.

Indicated for pt experiencing opioid-related constipation.

Administered subcutaneously. Does not readily fross BBB, so minimal effect on opioid-induced analgesia. May cause abdominal pain or cramping, diarrhea/flatulence, or nausea. Contraindicated in case of known or suspected GI blockage.

236
Q

Treatment for opioid-induced constipation

A

Try laxatives and stool softeners first, followed by peripherally-active, mu-opioid receptor antagonists if the first line treatment doesn’t work.

237
Q

Diarrhea - theory of treatment

A

Depends on severity of contition, the cause, and the pt nutritional/health status.

Non-pharm therapy: diet changes and supportive management until resolution (fluid and electrolyte supplementation)

Pharmacological: Antimotility agents (Loperamide)

238
Q

Loperamide

A

A selective mu-opioid receptor agonist (antimotility agent).

MOA: inhibits ENS activity, increasing colonic transport time, allowing more time for water absorption.

Pharmacokinetics: Doesn’t readily cross BBB, and that which does has high affinity for P-glycoprotein transporter, which swiftly effluxes the drug. Does not appear to produce tolerance with chronic use.

SE: constipation

Indicated for use in acute, non-infectious diarrhea, chronic diarrhea.

Contraindicated if use of the drug results in worsened diarrhea

239
Q

Bismuth subalicylate

A

Pepto Bismol!

Can treat diarrhea by reducing intestinal PGs, resulting in reduced smooth muscle contraction (motility) and reduced chloride secretion (decrease liquid). Also antimicrobial effects.

240
Q

Theory of treatment for IBD

A
  • symptomatic relief (pain, diarrhea)
  • nutrient supplementation
  • reduce inflammatory response
241
Q

Pharmacotherapy for IBD

A
  • Reduce inflammatory activity
    • aminosalicylates
    • glucocorticoids
    • immunosuppressants
    • anti-TNF alpha therapy
    • anti-integrin therapy

treat according to severity of disease, responsiveness to each line of treatment and induction or maintenance of remission.

242
Q

5-ASA

A

An aminosalicylate:

Anti-inflammatory – NSAID-like inhibition of PGs, interference with cytokine production, reduced leukocyte activity

243
Q

Contraindications for administration of prednisone

A

All glucocorticoids should be avoided in pt with peptic ulcer disease, heart disease, HTN with heart failure, or osteoporosis

244
Q
A
245
Q

Aldosterone upregulatres which channel in the gut?

A

ENaC in the distal colon and rectum