Week 1 (Test 1) Flashcards

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1
Q

pro(s)-

A

in front

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2
Q

tel(e)-

A

far

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3
Q

di(a)-

A

across or through

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4
Q

mes-

A

in the middle

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5
Q

rhomb-

A

in the for of a diamond (shape of the 4th ventricle)

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6
Q

met(a)-

A

after

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7
Q

myel-

A

marrow

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8
Q

rostral=

A

toward the nose

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9
Q

caudal=

A

toward the tail

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10
Q

dorsal=

A

toward the back

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11
Q

ventral=

A

toward the belly

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12
Q

-fugal

A

leaving from

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13
Q

-petal

A

arriving to

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14
Q

funiculus

A

a bundle of axons, like a cord

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15
Q

column

A

a funiculus directed ventrally

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16
Q

soma

A

cell body

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17
Q

the gray matter consisting of abundant somata at the surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum as opposed to white matter that is located deeper and consists of abundant fibers

A

cortex

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18
Q

net like, a loose arrangement of somata and dendrites intermingled with passing fibers

A

reticular

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19
Q

a fiber bundle which connects homtopic (same) regions across the midline

A

commissure

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20
Q

a crossing of the midline by fibers usually in the shape of an X

A

decussation

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21
Q

a deep sulcus

A

fissure

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22
Q

a convolution (coil or twist), especially of the brain

A

gyrus

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23
Q

somata in cerebral cortex

A

upper motor neurons

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24
Q

somata in the brainstem motor nuclei and spinal cord ventral horns; send their axons out of the central nervous system in peripheral nerves to innervate skeletal muscle

A

lower motor neurons

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25
Q

a term applied to the structure composed of the medula, pons, and midbrain

A

brain stem

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26
Q

hind brain

A

medulla

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27
Q

the part of the brainstem that bridges between the midbrain and the medulla

A

pons

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28
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A

the motor region for speech formulation and defines the dominant hemisphere

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29
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

A

region concerning the sense of hearing, which functions in the interpretation of speech

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30
Q

What two important sets of arteries supply the entire brain?

A

internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries

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31
Q

What is an ischemic stroke?

A

caused by a blood clot that blocks or plugs a blood vessel in the brain

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32
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

caused by a blood vessel that breaks and bleeds into the brain

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33
Q

the receptor itself is an ion channel

A

ionotropic

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34
Q

The receptor is linked to an ion channel with the help of a G-protein

A

metabotropic

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35
Q

directly coupled (fast)

A

ionotropic

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36
Q

second messenger mediated (slow)

A

metabotropic

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37
Q

Remember: excitation or inhibition is determined by the _____________ involved and NOT by _______

A

receptor NOT the neurotransmitter being released

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38
Q

What does an excitatory neurotransmitter cause?

A

depolarization of the membrane towards firing threshold

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39
Q

What does an inhibitory neurotransmitter cause?

A

hyperpolarization of the membrane away from firing threshold

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40
Q

What is unique about peptide neurotransmitters?

A

1) Synthesis directed by mRNA 2) Usually exist as inactive precursor proteins first 3) Made in the cell body and transported to the axonal terminal (instead of made in the terminal) 4) During the transport, they are cut into smaller pieces because of peptidase activity. They become active after this process.

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41
Q

What are the common catecholamine neurotransmitters?

A

dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

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42
Q

What are catecholamines derived from?

A

tyrosine

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43
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme for catecholamine synthesis and what does it do?

A

tyrosine hydroxylase; puts the 2nd -OH onto the benzene ring of the tyrosine molecule

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44
Q

What is the precursor for serotonin?

A

tryptophan

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45
Q

What is the precursor for histamine?

A

histidine

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46
Q

What is the precursor for acetylcholine?

A

choline; it is not an amino acid or derived from an amino acid

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47
Q

What is the rate limiting step for synthesis of acetylcholine?

A

uptake of choline

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48
Q

The nicotinic receptor for Acetylcholine is ____.

A

ionotropic

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49
Q

The muscarinic receptor for acetylcholine is ____.

A

metabotropic

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50
Q

What is the degradative enzyme for acetylcholine?

A

acetylcholine esterase (AChE)

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51
Q

____ is considered an excitatory neurotransmitter because all of its receptors lead to depolarization.

A

glutamate

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52
Q

What is the precursor for glutamate?

A

glutamine

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53
Q

What happens to glutamate after its function is completed?

A

taken up by axon terminal and recycled

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54
Q

What is the ionotropic receptor for glutamate?

A

NMDA receptor Non-NMDA receptor

55
Q

What is the metabotropic receptor for glutamate?

A

IP3, diacylglycerides are released after the receptor is activated

56
Q

This receptor is important for learning and memory.

A

NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor

57
Q

List the important properties of NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) subtype of inotropic glutamate receptors. (5 things)

A

1) activated by endogenous release of glutamate 2) - requires co-activation of its glycine binding site 3) - requires partial depolarization of the membrane before it can be activated 4) - ligand binding causes the opening of a non-specific cation conducting channel (can release Ca2+ or Na+) 5) - second messenger effect of Ca2+ influx (calcium influx can lead to generation of NO)

58
Q

____ is considered as an inhibitory neurotransmitter because all of its receptors lead to hyperpolarization.

A

GABA

59
Q

What is the precursor for GABA?

A

glutamate

60
Q

What is the ionotropic receptor for GABA?

A

GABAa receptor; leads to Cl- influx, thus hyperpolarization

61
Q

What is the metabotropic receptor for GABA?

A

GABAb receptor; leads to K+ efflux, thus hyperpolarization

62
Q

_____ is considered an inhibitory neurotransmitter because activation of its receptor leads to hyperpolarization.

A

glycine

63
Q

What does glycine receptor activation result in?

A

leads to Cl- influx, thus hyperpolarization

64
Q

What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord?

A

glycine

65
Q

acts as a retrograde messenger (goes from postsynaptic cell to presynaptic cell)

A

nitric oxide

66
Q

blocks binding of ACh to its nicotinic receptor in the neuromuscular junction

A

alpha-bungarotoxin

67
Q

increases the frequency of GABAa Cl- channel opening

A

benzodiazepine (valium)

68
Q

prevents the release of ACh from the nerve terminal

A

botox (botulinum toxin)

69
Q

irreversibly inactivates acetylcholinesterase

A

organophosphates (insecticides)

70
Q

blocks serotonin reuptake so that the neurotransmitter remains active longer

A

Zoloft (and other anti-anxiety agents)

71
Q

muscarinic receptor blocker (used clinically to block postganglionic parasympathetics)

A

atropine

72
Q

GABAb agonist (used clinically to treat spasticity and some forms of epilepsy)

A

Baclofen

73
Q

increase the duration of GABAa Cl- channel opening

A

Barbiturate sedatives (Phenobarbital)

74
Q

blocks monoamine re-uptake at synapse to prolong action of neurotransmitters

A

cocaine

75
Q

blocks binding of acetylcholine to its nicotinic receptor on skeletal muscle

A

curare

76
Q

-acts as an agonist at postsynaptic serotonin receptors

A

LSD

77
Q

mimics binding of opioid peptides to their receptors to produce analgesia

A

morphine

78
Q
  • inhibit acetylcholinesterase activity, prolonging acetylcholine activity
A

Neostigmine

79
Q

a NMDA glutamate receptor blocker

A

Phencyclidine (PCP, “angel dust”)

80
Q

-glycine receptor blocker (ingredient in rat poison)

A

Strychnine

81
Q

block monoamine uptake

A

tricyclic antidepressants

82
Q

What brain structures are supplied by the internal carotid artery?

A

The carotid artery supplies the eye, frontal cortex, and portions of the temporal and parietal lobes.

83
Q

Nissl bodies and ribosomes are found in all parts of a neuron with the exception of the ____.

A

axon

84
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes?

A

myelination of CNS axons

85
Q

Microglia are of ____ origin.

A

mesodermal; vs. ectodermal origin, like the rest of the CNS

86
Q

What is the resting membrane potential for mammals?

A

-70mV

87
Q

What causes the absolute refractory period?

A

In neurons, it is caused by the inactivation of the Na+ channels that originally opened to depolarize the membrane. These channels remain inactivated until the membrane hyperpolarizes. The channels then close, de-inactivate, and regain their ability to open in response to stimulus.

88
Q

What causes the relative refractory period?

A

K+ channels remaining open lead to hyperpolarization. During this hyperpolarization, another action potential could be generated, but it would take a stimulus that is larger than normal since the membrane potential is not at its resting level

89
Q

conduction of an action potential away from the soma (normal)

A

orthodromic conduction

90
Q

conduction of an action potential towards the soma

A

antidromic conduction

91
Q

Local anesthetics block what?

A

voltage gated Na+ channels

92
Q

What is another name for the cell body of a neuron (besides soma)?

A

perikaryon

93
Q

What type of neurons compose sensory ganglion?

A

pseudounipolar

94
Q

What causes Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Antibodies to ACh Receptors on Skeletal Muscle Cell Membrane (i.e., on postsynaptic membrane)

95
Q

sense light touch

A

Messner’s Corpuscle

96
Q

sense deep touch and vibration

A

Pacinian Corpuscle

97
Q

What is Wallerian Degeneration?

A

is a process that results when a nerve fiber is cut or crushed, in which the part of the axon separated from the neuron’s cell body degenerates distal to the injury.[1] This is also known as anterograde or orthograde degeneration

98
Q

What is Central chromatolysis?

A

retrograde degeneration

99
Q

weakness is distal and asymmetrical

A

neuropathies

100
Q

Weakness is proximal and symmetrical

A

myopathies

101
Q

Purkinje motor neurons are found where?

A

cerebellum

102
Q

Pyramidal motor neurons are found where?

A

cerebrum (upper motor neurons)

103
Q

Alpha motor neurons are found where?

A

brainstem & spinal cord (lower motor neurons)

104
Q

If something is wrong with purkinje motor neurons, what would you see?

A

you would see ataxia or tremors

105
Q

If something is wrong with pyramidal motor neurons, what would you see?

A

You would get spasticity (muscles contracting really hard)

106
Q

If something is wrong with alpha motor neurons, what would you see?

A

you would see muscle twitching

107
Q

What neurotransmitters are used in the parasympathetic branch of ANS?

A

ACh exclusively

108
Q

For the autonomic nervous system, what is the location of preganglionic cell bodies?

A

CNS

109
Q

For the autonomic nervous system, what is the location of postganglionic cell bodies?

A

peripheral nervous system

110
Q

What neurotransmitters are typically used in the sympathetic branch of ANS? What are the exceptions to this?

A

typically ACh at the ganglion and norepinephrine at the target cells; Exception: Sweat glands and chromatin cells in the adrenal medulla use ACh exclusively

111
Q

Sympathetic neurons exit via the lateral horns of the spinal cord at what vertebral level?

A

T1-L2

112
Q

of bone marrow origin (mesodermal origin)

A

microglia

113
Q

Stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)

A

astrocytes

114
Q

Have MHC-I and MHC-II and are infected by HIV

A

microglia

115
Q

What forms the blood - CSF barrier?

A

tight junctions between choroid epithelial cells

116
Q

What composes the choroid plexus and what does it do?

A

pia, ependyma, and blood vessel it makes CSF (~20ml/h)

117
Q

This ion causes the majority of inhibitory potentials

A

chloride

118
Q

What is the rate limiting step for dopamine/NE?

A

tyrosine hydroxylase

119
Q

What is the rate limiting step for serotonin?

A

Tryptophan hydroxylase

120
Q

What is the rate limiting step for ACh?

A

choline transport uptake

121
Q

The type of astrocytes found in white matter

A

fibrous

122
Q

the type of astrocytes found in gray matter

A

protoplasmic

123
Q

What intercellular connections are responsible for Blood-Brain barrier?

A

Endothelial cell tight junctions-Zona occludens Supported by astrocytes. Nurturing role

124
Q

a dense network of neurons and glia in the central nervous system

A

neuropil

125
Q

All CSF made in the brain has to find its way out through these two foramen.

A

Foramen Magenie and Foramen Luschka

126
Q

What is the earliest sign of irreversible neuron death?

A

eosinophilic neuronal necrosis (red neurons)

127
Q

What causes axonal spheroids?

A

occurs when an axon is transected and all the axonal transport material traveling from the cell body towards the synapse starts accumulating at the site of the injury, since it can’t move any further

128
Q

What is this? What is it diagnostic of?

A

Lewy body; Parkinsons

129
Q

What is this? What is it diagnostic of?

A

Pick body; Pick’s disease/frontotemporal lobar degeneration

130
Q

What is this? What is it diagnostic of?

A

neurofibrillary tangle; Alzheimer’s

131
Q

•Secondary degeneration of a neuron connected to a dying neuron

A

trans-synaptic degneration

132
Q

What is this?

A

Creutzfeldt astrocyte

133
Q

What is this? What is it diagnostic of?

A

This one shows peculiar circular multilayered proliferations of Schwann cells (the myelin-producing cells in the PNS), forming a structure called “onion bulb”. This appearance is diagnostic of a genetic disease called Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, but it can also be seen in CIDP (chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy), with some differences.

134
Q

What are the key functions of astrocytes?

A
  • Scavenge for IONS & Neurotransmitters
                   (K+, GABA, Glutamate)
  • • Glycogen Storage and Release
  • •VIP & NE = Release
  • Tell Endothelial cells to form Blood Brain Barrier (ZO)
  • GLIAL SCAR Formation (Prevents CNS Axon Regeneration)
  • Cytokines = Produced & Secreted (e.g. S-100b)