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Microanatomy > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which 4 kingdoms have eukaryotic cells?

A

Animal, plants, protist, and fungi

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2
Q

Describe what kind of cell yeast is

A

Yeast is a unicellular organism - eukaryotic

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3
Q

DNA is organized into chromosomes which are made up of __________. DNA is wrapped around proteins known as ___________. The wrapping of DNA allows for it to fit inside the nucleus.

A

Chromatins

Histone proteins

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4
Q

Within the nucleus is the __________. This is where ribosomal RNA is made.

A

Nucleolus

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5
Q

Ribosomal RNA is used to make which cellular organ?

A

Ribosomes

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6
Q

What is the function of ribosomes?

A

Ribosomes are enzymes that synthesize proteins within the cell

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7
Q

Some ribosomes are free floating in the cell, others are attached to the _________ __________? Where they make proteins that are then sent to the Golgi apparatus to be packaged and shipped to the plasma membrane.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum.

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8
Q

Cytoskeleton is made up of ______ and ________.

A

Centrioles and microtubuoles

“It is a network of tubules and filaments”

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9
Q

What does amphipathic mean?

A

Ability to be both hydrophilic and hydrophobic

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10
Q

The cell membrane is made up of phospholipids. They have a ________ head and 2 ______ _______ chains attached to it

A

Glycerol

Fatty acid chain tails

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11
Q

The glycerol head of the phospholipid contains a phosphate group making it…..?

A

Partially charged

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12
Q

Non-polar fatty acid chain tails on phospholipids contain only hydrocarbons that are hydro-________

A

Hydrophobic

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13
Q

What are the subtypes of passive transport through cell membrane?

A

Simple diffusion
Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion (uniport)

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14
Q

What are the subtypes of passive transport through cell membrane?

A

Primary and secondary

Subtypes of secondary
= Co-transport (symport) & Exchange (antitransport)

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15
Q

ATP is converted into ADP through which process?

A

Hydrolysis, where a phosphate bond is broken and releases the phosphate group (also energy)

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16
Q

2 major functions of a cell’s nucleus

A
  1. Cellular regulation - houses genetic material which directs all cellular activities and regulates cellular structure
  2. Production - produces ribosomal subunits in nucleolus and exports them into cytoplasm for assembly into ribosomes
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17
Q

In non-dividing cells, _________ is a complex of DNA and proteins that make up the contents of the nucleus of a cell.

A

chromatin

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18
Q

The primary functions of chromatin are to:

A
  1. Package DNA smaller
  2. Strengthen the DNA to allow mitosis (cell division),
  3. Prevent DNA damage
  4. Control gene expression and DNA replication.
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19
Q

The local structure of chromatin during interphase depends on the genes present on the DNA: 2 major structure types

A

Euchromatin (turned on)

Heterochromatin (turned off)

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20
Q

Describe Euchromatin

A

DNA coding genes that are actively transcribed (“turned on”)
They are more loosely packaged and are found associated with RNA polymerases

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21
Q

Describe heterochromatin

A

DNA coding inactive genes (“turned off”) are found associated with structural proteins and are more tightly packaged

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22
Q

Which has more active transport? Euchromatin or heterochromatin

A

Euchromatin is active for transport

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23
Q

What is the visual difference between chromatin and chromosomes?

A

Chromatin: resting state, non dividing cells, looks like loose yarn

Chromosomes: reproducing, dividing cells, looks like skein of yarn

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24
Q

What is a Barr body?

A

Females have a small, dense mass of heterochromatin (Barr body) that’s not present in males.

Heterochromatin = turned off genes

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25
Q

Are Barr bodies present in males?

A

No. Only females

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26
Q

How are the X chromosomes represented in females?

A

Barr bodies:
Facultative heterochromatin - One of the two X chromosomes in females that remains tightly coiled during mitosis

Constitutive heterochromatin - The other X chromosome is uncoiled, transcriptionally active and not visible.

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27
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

A structural unit of eukaryotic chromosome, consisting of a length of DNA coiled around a core of histones

  • DNA + 8 histone core
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28
Q

What is the medical application of Barr bodies?

A

Barr bodies permit gender determination in patients whose external sex organs do not permit determination

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29
Q

Barr bodies help with the presence of other anomalies like XXY chromosomes
[ ___________ syndrome which causes testicular abnormalities and absence of sperm _________]

A
  1. Klinefelter syndrome

2. Azzospermia

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30
Q

What is the absence of sperm called?

A

Azzospermia

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31
Q

Extended loops of transcriptionally active chromatin tethered to protein scaffold is dispersed (Euchromatin or Heterochromatin?)

A

Euchromatin is connected to protein scaffolds

Heterochromatin is condensed

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32
Q

Karyotyping is important to detect ________ ______

A

Genetic anomalies

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33
Q

What is karyotyping and what is it used for?

A

Collection of chromosomes being examined

Allows for determination of abnormalities or structural problems with chromosomes

During division, the chromosomes are arranged by size and appearance and they ‘pair up’

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34
Q

When a cell isn’t dividing, how are the chromosomes arranged?

A

They are spread out in an unorganized way

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35
Q

________ cells (body cells) have all chromosomes and are _______ (have two sets of 23)

________ cells are haploid (have one set of 23)

A
  1. Somatic cells
  2. Diploid
  3. Germ cells - gametes/sex cells: sperm and ova
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36
Q

What is cell replication important for?

A
  1. Reproduction
  2. Growth
  3. Tissue repair
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37
Q

All Somatic cells divide through process called ________

Germ cells divide through process called _______ to produce gametes/sex cells

A
  1. Mitosis

2. Meiosis

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38
Q

Cells that continue to divide throughout their lifespan are called _________

A

Progenitor or stem cells

are categorized as somatic cells

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39
Q

When an ova is penetrated by a sperm cell, they undergo mitosis for about 5-6 days creating a lump of identical cells called _________

A

Totipotent cells - early embryonic stem cells that are capable of becoming any cell

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40
Q

What is a multipotent/pluripotent cell?

A

Typical cells in an adult (can become many cell types *but not all)

Ex: hematopoietic stem cells produce formed elements of the blood

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41
Q

What is a unipotent cell?

A

A cell that can only become one cell type

Ex: epidermal stem cells can only form epithelial cells

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42
Q

Which cells do common myeloid progenitor cells produce?

These come from multipotent hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblasts)

A

Megakaryocytes -> thrombocytes
Erythrocytes
Mast cells
Myeloblast -> basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils Myeloblast -> monocytes -> macrophages

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43
Q

Which cells do common lymphoid progenitor cells produce?

A

Natural killer cells (large granular lymphocytes)
Small lymphocytes -> B and T lymphocytes

B lymphocytes-> plasma cell

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44
Q

The cell cycle leads to DNA replication and cell division: split into ______ and mitosis

A

Interphase = (G1, G2, and S phases)

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45
Q

Mitosis is divided into different phases regulated by _____, which are mediated by ______.

A
  1. Specific checkpoints

2. Specific molecules

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46
Q

Uncontrolled cell replication results in disease states, leading to __________

A

Neoplasms such as cancers

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47
Q

Cells that leave the cell cycle are permanently differentiated and enter the ________ phase.

A

G-0 phase

Example: neurons

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48
Q

What is happening during the S phase?

A

DNA synthesis

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49
Q

Cells considered ______ retain ability to divide if needed

A

Facultative dividers

Example: liver cells

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50
Q

What is an example of a cell that’s permanently differentiated and have entered the G0 phase?

A

Neurons

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51
Q

What is an example of a facultative divider cell?

A

Liver cells

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52
Q

Some of the key checkpoint molecules of the cell cycle are:

A

Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)

Transitions between phases are highly regulated by these molecules with others

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53
Q

What are the 3 Key checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A

G1/S phase transition
G2/Mitosis transition
Metaphase/Anaphase transition within Mitosis

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54
Q

The cell cycle is also influenced by hormones, _____, and cell contact during normal development and reproduction

A

Growth regulators

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55
Q

Interphase is split up into three phases: Gap 1, S phase, and Gap 2 phase. Explain what happens in G1

A

Cell can differentiate (produce cell-specific proteins through transcription and translation = gene expression), grow in size,
and perform its specialized functions

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56
Q

Interphase is split up into three phases: Gap 1, S phase, and Gap 2 phase. Explain what happens in S phase

A

DNA synthesis phase. Cell duplicates it’s DNA in preparation for cell division

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57
Q

Interphase is split up into three phases: Gap 1, S phase, and Gap 2 phase. Explain what happens in G2

A

Cell prepares for mitosis

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58
Q

G1 phase prepares for the S phase:

  1. Preparation of DNA synthesis machinery:
    DNA _________ and other enzymes.
  2. Production of ________ for winding of new DNA
A
  1. Polymerase

2. Histones

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59
Q

During S phase (DNA replication), the DNA unzips and _______ strands of DNA are formed.

Two strands of DNA -> strands separate -> new nucleotides added = _____ of DNA

A
  1. Complementary

2. Two identical copies of DNA (are created)

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60
Q

Which enzyme unwinds/unzips DNA?

A

Helicase

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61
Q

_____ is an enzyme that elongates the ____ strand of DNA (being made in the same 5’ to 3’ direction as the growing fork).
The ____ strand is made from short, separated segments of DNA

A
  1. DNA Polymerase
  2. Leading
  3. Lagging
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62
Q

In DNA replication, for the lagging strand an

RNA-primase makes an RNA _____

A

RNA Primer

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63
Q

During DNA replication, the RNA primer is extended as short DNA segments called _______ fragments

A

Okazaki

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64
Q

During DNA replication, after the RNA primer is replaced by DNA, the ______ fragments are joined together by an enzyme called DNA ___________

A
  1. Okazaki fragments
  2. DNA ligase
    * Quiz Q
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65
Q

Five main steps of DNA replication:

  1. _______ unwinds parental double helix
  2. Single stranded binding proteins _____ DNA
  3. Leading strand is synthesized continuously in the ____ direction by ______
  4. The lagging strand is synthesized ____. Enzyme called ____ synthesizes a short RNA primer, which is extended by DNA polymerase to form an _____
  5. After RNA primer is replaced by DNA, (due to another DNA polymerase), the enzyme ____ joins the Okazaki fragments to the growing strand.
A
  1. Helicase
  2. Stabilize
  3. 5’ to 3’ direction by DNA polymerase
  4. Discontinuously; Primase; Okazaki fragment
  5. DNA ligase
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66
Q

All of the enzymes and proteins needed to replicate DNA are made during the _____ phase

A

G1

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67
Q

Once DNA is duplicated, it is reassembled into ____

A

It’s reassembled into chromosomes

These are more tightly coiled (due to histones) than before replication

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68
Q

After the S phase, the chromosomes are now ____ and are called ___ which are attached to a _____

A

Duplicated
Sister chromatids
Centromere

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69
Q

During the G2 phase, the entire cell prepares for _____ by doing three things:

  1. ________ - inherited by mother - 37 genes responsible for inherited diseases
  2. ____ of DNA
  3. Precursors for ____ form - important for chromosome movement during mitosis
A

Division

  1. Mitochondria division
  2. Repairment of DNA
  3. Mitotic spindles
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70
Q

Key markers of G2 of interphase:

A 
Centrosomes present (with centriole pairs)
Chromatin is duplicated
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71
Q

Mitosis is broken up into how many phases?

A

5

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72
Q

What are the phases of mitosis?

A
  1. Prophase
  2. Prometaphase
  3. Metphase
  4. Anaphase
  5. Telophase
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73
Q

What is mitosis?

A

Equal distribution of chromosomes to daughter cells

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74
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

Is the cytoplasmic division of a replicating cell

Begins in late telophase

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75
Q

When does cytokenesis begin to occur?

A

Begins in late telophase

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76
Q

What are kinetochore microtubules?

A

They invade nuclear space and attach to kinetochore of sister chromatids

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77
Q

What happens in prophase? (Step 1 mitosis)

A

Chromosomes condense and become visible
Mitotic spindle fibers form as centrioles migrate
Nucleolus disappears

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78
Q

What happens during Pro-metaphase?

(Step 2 mitosis)

A

Nuclear envelope degrades
Each sister chromatid has a kinetochore
Kinetochore microtubules invade nuclear space and attach to mitotic spindle kinetochores
Polar microtubules push against each other, moving centrosomes apart

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79
Q

What are polar microtubules?

A

They push against each other, moving centrosomes apart

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80
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Chromosomes line up along metaphase plate

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81
Q

During metaphase, chromosomes line up at ______ equator, known as the __________ or ______ plate

A

Spindle equator known as the equatorial plate or the metaphase plate

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82
Q

During metaphase, the ______ controls entry into the next phase (anaphase) so that mitosis doesn’t proceed until all chromosomes are aligned

This metaphase checkpoint prevents formations of daughter cells with unequal chromosome numbers*

A

Kinetochore

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83
Q

Which checkpoint, during metaphase, prevents formations of daughter cells with unequal chromosome numbers?

A

Kinetochore attachment by kinetochore microtubules

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84
Q

Mitotic microtubules: the ____ ends project away from spindle pole

The ____ ends are anchored at spindle poles (organized by centromeres)

A
  1. Positive ends Project away

2. Negative ends anchored at poles

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85
Q

Interpolar microtubules from two cell poles _______ at the spindle equator

________ microtubules radiate out from the poles into the cytoplasm

A

Interdigitate

Astral microtubules = cytoplasm

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86
Q

Kinetochore microtubules connect the ______ poles with the kinetochores of sister chromatids

A

Spindle poles

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87
Q

Transition from metaphase to anaphase is regulated by?

A

Regulated by destruction of B cyclin

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88
Q

During anaphase the ________ split, and sister chromatids are moved to opposite side (now considered sister ________)

A

Centromeres

Sister Chromosomes

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89
Q

During anaphase, _____ shorten to help move sister chromatids.

Astral microtubules are not connected to kinetochore ***

A

astral microtubules

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90
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

Chromosomes break at centromeres, and sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell

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91
Q

What happens during telophase?

A
  • Nuclear membrane reforms, nucleoli reappear, chromosomes unwind into chromatin.
  • Myosin 2 and actin filament ring contract to cleave cell into two
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92
Q

During telophase, ___ and ___ filament ring contract to cleave cell in two

A

Myosin 2 and Actin filament ring

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93
Q

In telophase, daughter cells form due to _______

A

Cytokinesis

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94
Q

During telophase, the _____ defines the plane of division

A

Spindle equator

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95
Q 
To remember Mitosis:
Prophase= P....
Prometaphase= P..m...
Metaphase = M...
Anaphase= A....
Telophase= T....
A 
Prophase - plainly seen
Prometaphase - pre-middle
Metaphase - middle
Anaphase - apart
Telophase - two new nuclei
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96
Q

Pneumonic (with Interphase) = IPMAT

A

I Propose Men Are Toads
Idiot, Pass Me A Tequila
I Passed My Anatomy Test

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97
Q

During cell death, from necrosis or apoptosis, the chromatin shrink and aggregate. This is called?

A

Pyknosis is nuclear shrinkage

When DNA condenses into shrunken basophils mass

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98
Q

Apoptosis signals can be initiated by the release of _____ C from _______ that stimulates a _______ cascade

A

Cytochrome-C
Mitochondria
Caspase

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99
Q

In reference to apoptosis, the enzymatic _______ ______ results in cleavage of intracellular proteins, including nuclear ______, and activation of DNA-ase that cleaves DNA

A

Caspase cascade

Nuclear lamins

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100
Q 
Bcl-2 family proteins include:
Pro survival (examples:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_)
Pro death (ex:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_)
A

Pro survival ex: Bcl-2, Bcl-xL

Pro death ex: Bax, Bad, Bim

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101
Q

Bcl-2 family proteins form ____ and ____ complexes that regulate the release of pro-apoptotic factors from the mitochondria (ex: cytochrome c)

A

Homomeric and heteromeric complexes

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102
Q

Cancers grow due to ____, which in part incorporates their ability to inhibit ______ mechanisms

A
  1. Uncontrolled cell growth

2. Inhibit apoptosis mechanisms

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103
Q

Cancer that metastasizes means it has?

A

Spread to other areas

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104
Q

Aside from a lot of cell division and lack of cell death, one characteristic of most malignancies are ______ _____

A

Abnormal mitosis

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105
Q

Abnormal metaphase is characterized by?

A

Having four sets of chromatids and four spindles (instead of normal two)

This is called quadripolar mitosis

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106
Q

Abnormal mitosis:

Highly indicative of malignancy marked _____ of surrounding cells also favors malignancy

A

pleomorphism and hyperchromatism

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107
Q

Which tissue type is most abundant in body?

A

Connective tissue

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108
Q

What are 4 distinctive features of connective tissue?

A
  1. Highly vascular
  2. Cells far apart (much intercellular material)
  3. Many kinds of cells, single, groups, fixed, wandering
  4. Matrix can be liquid, jelly, fibrous (strong), or hard
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109
Q

Function of connective tissue?

A
  1. Support = stroma of tissue
  2. Storage of metabolites
  3. Immune and inflammatory responses
  4. Tissue repair
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110
Q

Three basic components of connective tissue:

A
  1. Cells
  2. Fibers
  3. Extra cellular matrix (ground substance)

*proportion of these contributes to classification

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111
Q

In connective tissue, the extracellular substance (ground substance) serves to:

A

The ground substance helps:

  1. Hold cells together
  2. Support cells in CT
  3. Give strength and elasticity to tissues
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112
Q

Three major groups of connective tissue classification

A
  1. Embryonic conn. tissue
  2. Adult conn. tissue
  3. Special conn. tissue (ex:adipose, cartilage, bone, hematopoietic)
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113
Q

Embryonic connective tissue has two major origins:

A

Both from mesoderm

  1. Hematopoietic stem cell
  2. Mesenchyme & Mucous

Mesenchyme = all CT arrises from this tissue. Cells are fuse form and stellate

Mucous (Wharton’s jelly) = supports wall of umbilical cord. Contains stromal mesenchymal cells and hematopoietic stem cells.

114
Q

Mesenchyme is undifferentiated embryonic ________ connective tissue that can migrate and give rise to all other kinds of connective tissue.
It is found within an early developing embryo and consists of irregularly shaped cells lying in a _________, jelly-like matrix.

A
  1. mesodermal

2. homogenous

115
Q

Umbilical cords can be a source of _______

A

Stem cells

Contains Wharton’s jelly (mucous conn. tissue)

116
Q

_______ are the most common cells in connective tissue and maintain most of the tissue’s extra cellular matrix

A

Fibroblasts

117
Q

Fibroblasts synthesize and ________ extra cellular matrix components:

  • Fibers (collagens and elastins
  • Ground substance (___, ___, ____)

*Usually somewhat flattened cells

A

1.Secrete

  1. Ground substances
    a. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
    b. Proteoglycans
    c. Glycoproteins
118
Q

Regeneration of connective tissue can occur due to _______ responding to growth factors.

A

Fibroblasts

119
Q

After injury, fibroblasts help ‘fill in’ the spaces forming ?

A

Dense, irregular scar tissue

120
Q

________ are present in wounds that close fast, containing increased amounts of _____ and _____ (like smooth muscle cells)

A
  1. Myofibroblasts
  2. Actin
  3. Myosin
121
Q

Myofibroblasts are responsible for wound ______

A
  1. Myofibroblasts

2. Wound contraction

122
Q

What are three main types of protein fibers?

A

Collagen
Reticular
Elastic

123
Q

Collagen and reticular fibers are made from proteins of the ____ family.
Elastic fibers are mostly made of ______

A
  1. Collagen family

2. Elastin

124
Q

Collagenous fiber is ____ protein found in the body

A

Most abundant

125
Q

Elastic fibers allow skin, blood vessels, and lungs to ______

A

Stretch

126
Q

Reticular fibers form ______ for organs

A

Framework

127
Q

Collagen is a family of proteins that are all ____ and ______ to normal shearing and tearing

A

Strong and resistant

128
Q

Collagen is a key element in all connective tissue and is found in epithelial ________ membranes and external _______ of muscles and nerve cells.

A
  1. Basement

2. Laminae

129
Q

Collagen is most abundant protein, representing _____% of dry weight in humans

A

30%

130
Q

Collagen is made mostly by ______, with 4 major categories

A

Fibroblasts

131
Q

4 collagen categories are?

A 
Fibrillar collagens (tendons, dermis)
Linking collagens 
Anchoring collagens (anchors basal lamina to reticular)
Sheet collagen (major structural protein in laminae)
132
Q

There are four categories of collagen. The fibrillar collagen (types 1-3) ______ to form large fibrils. Type ___ is most common forming ____, organ capsules, and _____.

A
  1. Aggregates
  2. Type 1 is most common
  3. Tendons
  4. Dermis
133
Q

There are four categories of collagen. The linking collagen (Type 9, 12, 14) are short and link ______ collagens to each other* and to other parts of extra cellular matrix ECM

A

Linking collagens link *fibrillar collagens to each other

134
Q

There are four categories of collagen. The anchoring collagen (type 7) binds to _____ collagen.
It anchors the ____ lamina to the underlying reticular lamina in the basement membrane

A
  1. Sheet (type 4)

2. Basal

135
Q

There are four categories of collagen. The Sheet collagens (type 4) have subunits produced by epithelial cells and are major _____ proteins of external _____ and ______ laminae of epithelia.

A
  1. Structural
  2. Laminae
  3. Basal
136
Q

A ____ is a type of scar that is composed of abnormally large amounts of collagen (mostly type__)

A

Keloid

Type 1

137
Q

Keloids are more prevalent in which group?

A

15% more prevalent in highly pigmented ethnic groups

138
Q

_____ is cause due to a lack of vitamin C, which is a required cofactor for ____ and ____ hydrolysis to produce hydroxylproline and hydroxylysine.
These modified amino acids crosslink and stabilize collagens

A
  1. Scurvy
  2. Prolyl
  3. Lysyl
139
Q

In scurvy, ______ deteriorate and bleed, with loss of teeth. The skin becomes _______. And wounds ______

A
  1. Gums
  2. Discolored
  3. Don’t heal
140
Q

This disease is known as brittle bone or Lobstein disease.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

141
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a ______ in the gene for type 1 collagen

A

Mutation

8 different types

142
Q

Symptoms of Osteogenesis imperfecta include:

A

Bones fracture easily, brittle teeth, loose ligaments, easy bruising, short stature, postural deviations

*can present with blue scelera, barrel chests, and bowing of long bones**

143
Q

______ syndrome is caused by the defect in the structure, production, or processing of collagen

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

144
Q

Symptoms of Ehlers Danlos syndrome include:

A

Hyperflexible/ unstable joints, tearing of muscles & tendons, elastic skin or easy bruising, arterial or intestinal rupture, pregnancy complications, pain

145
Q

Reticular fibers (reticulin) consists of ______ collagen type 3 and form a network around adipocytes, smooth muscle, ____ cells, and blood vessels.

A

Glycosylated

Nerve cells

146
Q

_______ fibers form the stroma* for soft organs like the liver or spleen.
It can ____ forces applied in different directions

A
  1. Reticular fibers (reticulin)

2. Resist

147
Q

_____ is the least specialized type of connective tissue, which is capable of differentiating into several cell types.

A

Fibroblasts

148
Q

A _____ is the inactive form of fibroblasts

A

Fibrocyte

149
Q

Reticular fibers are said to be _______ since they are easily stained during silver nitrate processes

A

Argyrophilic (silver loving)

Fibers appear black after staining

150
Q

Elastic fibers are thinner than type 1 (fibrillar) collagen and form _____ networks interspersed with collagen ________. Branching strands of elastin (protein) and fibrillin (glycoprotein) both made by fibroblasts, ____ and smooth muscle cells

A

Sparse
Bundles
chondroblasts

151
Q

Branching strands of the _____ protein and the _______ glycoprotein, are both made by:
fibroblasts, chomdroblasts, and smooth muscle cells

A
  1. Elastin

2. Fibrillin

152
Q

___ fibers are found in the Mesentary, the dermis and between smooth muscle cells

A

Elastic fibers

153
Q

_______ (the precursor of elastin), is cleaved and secreted

A

Proelastin

154
Q

In the extracellular space, _____ tracts with ______ to organize elastic fibers, which aggregate to form bundles of elastic fibers

A
  1. Elastin

2. Fibrillins

155
Q

Elastic fibers contain a characteristic but uncommon amino acid __________

A

Desmosine

156
Q

Two lysine residues are oxidized by _____ _____ to form a desmosine ring* that cross-links two elastin molecules

A

Lysyl oxidase

157
Q

The cross-linking of elastin fibers enables ______ and _____ of elastin, like rubber bands

A

Stretching and recoil

158
Q

Elastic fibers are produced during ?

A

Embryonic and adolescent development

Not so much in adults

159
Q

Many tissues decrease elasticity with age, particularly in skin causing _________

A

Wrinkles

160
Q

_______ syndrome is a genetic mutation that causes production of dysfunctional fibrillin, which is a component of _______ fibers

A 
Marfan syndrome
Elastic fibers (along with elastin) helps cross-link elastic fibers.
161
Q

Marfan syndrome is characterized by a lack of ______ in tissues rich in elastic fibers

A

Resistance

*multiple signs primarily affecting musculoskeletal and cardiovascular systems

162
Q

4 major parts of the body affected by Marfan syndrome are?

A

Eyesight - myopic, ocular lense dislocation, retinal detachment
Lungs - pneumothorax (spontaneous collapse)
Cardiovascular - wide aorta, aneurism, aortic valve prolapse/leakage
Skeleton - scoliosis, pectus deformity, tall stature, loose joints

163
Q

Becoming myopic is a symptom of Marfan syndrome. What does myopic mean?

A

Near sighted

164
Q

Marfan syndrome Can cause what kind of pectus deformities?

A

Pigeon or funnel chest

165
Q

Ground substance of extracellular matrix:

A
  1. Proteoglycans composed of core proteins and glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) or mucopolysaccarides
  2. Glycoproteins
166
Q

The role of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) is to ___ water, help with diffusion, lubricate organs/joints.

A
  1. Trap water

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->

Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate

167
Q

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) include:

A

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->

Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate

168
Q

What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Hyaluronic acid?

A

Hyluronic acid lubricates joints*

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->

Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate

169
Q

What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Chondroitin sulfates?

A

Chondroitin Sulfates offer support in cartilage

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->

Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate

170
Q

What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Heparan Sulfate?

A

Heparin Sulfate help with blood coagulation and angiogenesis

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->

Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate

171
Q

What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan Dermatan sulfate?

A

Dermatan Sulfate is found in skin tendons, heart valves

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->

Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate

172
Q

What is the role of the Glycosaminoglycan keratan sulfate?

A

Keratan sulfate is found in bones and cornea of eye,

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) ->

Hyaluronic acid, Chondroitin Sulfate, Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate, Keratan Sulfate

173
Q

Several ______ storage disorders like (Hurler, ____, San Filipino, and ______ syndromes) are due to genetic mutations affecting ______ enzymes that degrade Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs).

A
  1. Lysosomal
  2. Hunter
  3. Morquio
  4. Lysosomal
174
Q

In lysosomal storage disorders, Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) accumulate in tissues causing progressive __________ of different tissues, including ______ _________

A
  1. Deterioration

2. Mental retardation

175
Q

______ are core proteins 5at various numbers and combinations of sulfates GAGs are attached.
Diversity is due to differential processing in _______

A
  1. Proteoglycans
  2. Golgi apparatus

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

176
Q

Aside from holding water (due to GAGs), _______ also bind and sequester cell signaling proteins, like ______

A
  1. Proteoglycans
  2. Growth factors

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> proteoglycans-> glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

177
Q

________ are degraded during the early phase of tissue repair and release these _____ ______ to stimulate new cell growth and ECM synthesis

A
  1. Proteoglycans

2. Growth factors

178
Q

___________ have binding sites for cell surface receptors (example: _______)

A
  1. Glycoproteins
  2. Integrins

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->

Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin

179
Q

Glycoproteins play important roles in ________ of cells for substrates.

A
  1. Adhesion

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->

Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin

180
Q

The glycoprotein, ______ , provides adhesion for epithelial cells and binds ________, type IV collagen, and specific proteoglycans

A
  1. Laminin
  2. Integrins

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->

Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin

181
Q

The glycoprotein, ______ , provides binding sites for collagens and certain GAGs; important for cell _______ and _______.

A
  1. Fibronectin
  2. Adhesion
  3. Migration

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->

Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin

182
Q

_______ bind laminin, fibronectin, some collagens, and other components of ECM.
With their intracellular connections to membrane and cytoskeletal proteins, ______ allow cells to monitor their microenvironment (like orientation of cells and fibers)

A
  1. Integrins
  2. Integrins

Extracellular matrix -> ground substance -> Glycoproteins->

Fibronectin, laminin, entactin, tenascin, chondronectin, osteonectin

183
Q

______ ______ are the external lamina of muscle and nerve cells

A

Basement membranes

184
Q

________ separate epithelia from connective tissue

A

Basement membrane

185
Q

The basement membrane is composed of what two layers?

A

Basal lamina and reticular lamina

*the basal lamina is split into lamina lúcida and lamina densa

186
Q

The basal lamina of the basement membrane is split into two: the lamina _____ and the lamina ______

The former has the glycoprotein _______
The latter has mostly collagen type ______

A
  1. Lúcida
  2. Densa
  3. Laminin
  4. Type 4

Lúcida - laminin
Densa - collagen type 4

187
Q

The reticular lamina has mostly _____ fibers and the glycoprotein ________

A
  1. Reticular

2. Fibronectin

188
Q

Basement membranes vary in thickness. The trachea, H&E have _______ basement membranes while the interstitial glands, PAS have _______ basement membranes

A
  1. Thick

2. Thin

189
Q

PAS reacts with carbohydrate rich molecules such as perlecan, ______, and type ____ collagen associated with the basement membrane.

A
  1. Laminin

2. Type 3 collagen

190
Q

There are 4 key components to the basement membrane:

A
  1. Type 4 collagen —> forms a mesh network
  2. Laminin —> binds type 4 collagen and links to receptors
  3. Fibronectins —> binds reticular fibers to integrins
  4. Heparan sulfates —> angiogenesis
191
Q

Type 4 collagen is a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?

A

Type 4 collagen forms a mesh network

192
Q

Laminin is a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?

A

Laminin binds type 4 collagen and links to receptors (like integrins) in the basal plasma membranes of epithelia.
This allows the cell to monitor extracellular environment (signal transduction)

193
Q

Fibronectins are a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?

A

Fibronectins bind reticular fibers to integrins in the basal plasma membrane of epithelia

194
Q

Heparan Sulfate is a key component of the basement membrane. What is it’s role?

A

Heparan sulfate promotes angiogenesis

195
Q

The main functions of the basement membrane are:

  1. _____/support for epithelial cells
  2. Restrict _____ growth of epithelium (can occur with malignant transformation into cancer)
  3. Provide ___ and remove ____ (epithelial cells do not have blood vessels)
  4. Regulate _____ of molecules b/w compartments (b/w vessels and tissues) especially in kidneys for blood filtration
A
  1. Attachment
  2. Inward
  3. Nutrients; waste
  4. Passage
196
Q

Basement membrane disorder:

  • Abnormal growth of mutated epithelial cells (cancer) causes _________
  • In people with diabetes mellitus, the basement membrane of the _____ ____ cells thicken, increasing protein permeability (and protein loss in ______)
A
  1. Invasion of local tissue

2. Kidney glomerular; urine

197
Q

Basement membrane disorders:

  • Alport disease in _________
  • _____ ______ distrophy in muscles
  • _______ epidermolysis ______ appears blistery in skin
A
  1. Kidneys
  2. Congenital muscular
  3. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa
198
Q

_________ syndrome is an autoimmune disease attacking the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs, resulting in organ failure

A

Goodpasture

199
Q

Loose areolar connective tissue can be found in _____ layer of the skin. Scattered ____ are the most common cell. Mostly _______ fibers, but elastic and reticular present too.

Flexible, yet delicate

A
  1. Subcutaneous
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Collagen

Connective tissue -> adult CT -> Loose CT

200
Q

Dense regular connective tissue are tightly packed bundles of ______ in parallel arrangement. _______ in rows in between _______ bundles. Tendons are poorly ________ and heal slowly when damaged

Very strong!

A
  1. Collagen
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Collagen
  4. Vascularized

Connective tissue -> adult CT -> Dense CT -> dense regular

201
Q

Dense irregular connective tissue contain fibers without regular orientation. Located where _____ are exerted in a number of different directions
Ex: ______ region of dermis in skin.
Ex:_______ of bone
Ex:_______ of cartilage

A
  1. Tensions
  2. Reticular
  3. Periosteum
  4. Perichondrium

Quiz Q - Dense reg. CT = tendons

Connective tissue -> adult CT -> Dense CT -> dense irregular

202
Q

The reticular CT contain reticular cells that produce ______ networks. Reticular cells are modified _____. Interlacing reticular fibers form the _____ of lymphoid organs, like: ______ and _____ ____

  • leukocytes are commonly seen
  • reticular fibers of type 3 collagen shown on slide
A
  1. Fibrous
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Stroma
  4. Spleen and lymph nodes

Connective tissue -> Adult CT -> Reticular CT

203
Q

________ are specialized cells for fat storage; connective tissue with mostly these cells is ________. Lipid is a cell ________. A signet class ring shape is formed when the _______ and the nucleus are pushed to the periphery of the cell

A
  1. Adipocytes
  2. Adipose tissue
  3. Inclusion
  4. cytoplasm

Connective tissue -> special CT -> adipose tissue

204
Q

The function of adipocytes are storage of neutral fats (_______ and ___ chain fatty acyl esters of _____).
Also acts as shock absorbers, mainly in ______

A
  1. Triglycerides
  2. Long
  3. Glycerol
  4. Soles and palms
205
Q

Adipocytes release hormones, making it an _____ gland. Most adipocytes are part of _____ fat used for insulation.

A
  1. Endocrine

2. White

206
Q

3 main hormones affect adipocytes:

  • ______ (made by beta cells of pancreatic islets) stimulate uptake of glucose, accelerate synthesis of fatty acids from glucose, increase lipoprotein lipase synthesis, and inhibits hormone sensitive lipase to reduce fatty acid release
  • _______ (made by alpha cells of pancreatic islets) promote triglyceride breakdown and release of fatty acids and growth hormone
  • _______ (made my adipocytes) is a satiety factor that normally regulates hunger
A
  1. Insulin
  2. Glucagon
  3. Leptin
207
Q

______ results from excessive adipose tissue formation. Occurs when energy intake ____ energy expenditure.

A
  1. Obesity

2. Exceeds

208
Q

Most adult onset obesity involves increased size of existing cells. This type of obesity is called _____

A

Hypertrophic obesity

209
Q

Childhood obesity involves both increases in adipocyte size and numbers

A

Hyperplastic obesity

210
Q

Mesenchymal cells produce fibroblasts and preadipocyte cells. Differentiation of peradipocytes lead to _______ adipocytes and _____ adipocytes

A
  1. Multilocular (brown fat)

2. Unilocular

211
Q

Brown adipose tissue (multilocular) occurs for the production of heat (thermogenesis). It’s color is due to ____ and _____.
The biggest differences from white fat:
-smaller cells w/ smaller lipid droplets
-mostly found b/w __________ in mediastinum and inguinal regions
-widespread in fetus and infants

A
  1. Rich blood supply
  2. Many mitochondria
  3. Shoulder blades
212
Q

Patient with multiple fractures of long bones and blueish tint in the sclera of eyes is due to which mutation?

A

Collagen type 1 molecule mutation

213
Q

Scurvy (bleeding gums, improper wound healing, discolored skin) is caused by mutation in production of?

A

Hydroxyproline from lack of vitamin C

214
Q

______ fibers can be represented with a black stains from a silver staining

A

Reticular fibers

215
Q

Scoliosis, funnel chest, elongated appendages, is caused by disfunctional ….?

A

Fibrillin -> Marfan syndrome

216
Q

Tendon is a ______ connective tissue

A

Dense regular CT

217
Q

Mesenchymal cells give rise to _______

A

fibroblasts

218
Q

What are main differences in mitosis when comparing it to meiosis?

A

Mitosis:
Somatic cell division
Results in formations of 2 daughter cells
Contains a full compliment of chromosomes (diploid) in homologous pairs

219
Q

Meiosis occurs in ______ cells. It involves 2 cell division processes called __________. It results in the formation of ____ haploid daughter cells called _____ (n=23).
A ______ is formed by the fusion of 2 specialized male and female gametes in ______ (n=46)

A
  1. Germ cells
  2. Gametogenesis
  3. 4 haploid daughter cells
  4. Gametes
  5. Zygote
  6. Fertilization
220
Q

A particular cell has half as much DNA as some of the other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell is most likely in which phase?

A

G1

221
Q

When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis it results in?

A

Cells with more than one nucleus

222
Q

During gamete formation, germ cells undergo a special kind of division called _______. It reduces the number of __________ by half

A
  1. Meiosis

2. Chromosomes

223
Q

Meiosis is a type of nuclear division found only in _____ cell production in the ____ of sexually reproducing animals

A
  1. Germ cell

2. Gonads

224
Q

Meiosis involves how many cellular divisions?

A

2

Meiosis 1 and 2

225
Q

Meiosis 1 is a _____ in division. The _____ number is halved.

Meiosis 2: when ___ cells divide, they produce _ new cells
Each cell contains a haploid number of ____ stranded chromosomes

A
  1. Reduction; chromosome

2. Haploid; 2; single

226
Q

Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces ___ in females and ____ in males

The number of chromosomes doubles during ______ from 46 to 92

By the end of meiosis, there are __ chromosomes and 4 daughter cells

A
  1. Eggs
  2. Sperm
  3. Interphase
  4. 23
227
Q

________ are identical copies of a chromosome joined at the centromere.

______ chromosomes are 2 different copies of the same chromosome

A
  1. Sister chromatids

2. Homologous

228
Q

In meiosis 1, the _____ chromosomes separate. It produces two _______ daughter cells with chromosomes.

A
  1. Homologous

2. Haploid

229
Q

In meiosis 2, the ______ separate. Producing ____ haploid cells with chromosomes

A

Sister chromatins separate producing 4 haploid cells

230
Q

Meiosis reduces the number of ______ sets from diploid to ______. Like mitosis, meiosis is preceded by the ____ of chromosomes.

A
  1. Chromosome
  2. Haploid
  3. Replication
231
Q

Meiosis takes place in two sets of cell division called meiosis 1 and meiosis 2, resulting in ?

A

Four daughter cells

232
Q

In interphase there are __ number of chromosomes.
In prophase there are ___ number of chromosomes
In Prometaphase the ____ dissolves and microtubules attach to centromeres

A
  1. 46
  2. 92
  3. Nucleus
233
Q

In metaphase 1, the chromosomes align at the ____
In anaphase 1, separated chromosomes are ____
In telophase 1, ____ disappear and division begins

A
  1. Middle of the cell
  2. Pulled apart
  3. Microtubules
234
Q

During interphase 2, two cells formed with ____
In metaphase 2, _____ attach at the centromere
In anaphase 2, chromosomes pulled apart to ____
In telophase 2, microtubules disappear and ___ begins
Cytokinesis begins in ____ resulting in _____

A
  1. 46 chromosomes each
  2. Microtubules
  3. 23 chromosomes
  4. Cell division
  5. Late telophase
  6. 4 cells formed each with 23 chromosomes
235
Q

In males, meiosis produces ___ gametes (sperm)

In females, meiosis produces ____ (ovum)

A 
Males = 4 gametes
Females = 1 gamete
236
Q

In prophase, as chromosomes condense and link, _____ occurs.

*this is the first important source of genetic variation

A

Crossing over

237
Q

In Metaphase, microtubules move homologous chromosomes to the _______ plate. _______ begins to occur

*this is the second important source of genetic variation

A
  1. Metaphase

2. Independent assortment

238
Q

_______ precedes meiosis 1, but not meiosis 2. During this, DNA is replicated and condensed to form _______. The single centrosomes replicates forming _______

A
  1. Interphase
  2. Sister chromatids
  3. Two centrosomes
239
Q

_________ typically occupies more than 90% of the time required for meiosis. In this phase, homologous chromosomes loosely pair up, aligned ____.
Nonsister chromatids exchange DNA segments, this is called _______.

A
  1. Prophase 1
  2. Gene by gene
  3. Crossing over*
240
Q

_______ is the exchange of regions of non-sister chromatids. This is the first important source of genetic variation.

A

Crossing over

241
Q

In Metaphase 1, microtubules from each pole are attached to the _______ of one chromosome. Independent assortment occurs

A

kinetochore

242
Q

_______ the random distribution of chromosomes into new daughter cells occurs in metaphase 1 and 2.

A

Independent assortment

243
Q

In anaphase 1, one chromosome moves toward each pole, guided by the ______. Sister chromatids stay attached at the ______, moving as a unit towards pole.

A
  1. Spindle apparatus
  2. Centromere

microtubukes separate homologous chromosomes (moms chromosome 1 from dads chromosome 1), sister chromatids remain together**

244
Q

At the onset of _____, each half of the cell has a haploid set of chromosomes; each chromosome consists of sister chromatids.
_____ occurs, forming two haploid daughter cells.

A
  1. Telophase1
  2. Cytokinesis

*No chromosome replication or DNA condensing/deco sensing occurs between meiosis 1 and 2

245
Q

In prophase 2 the _______ forms. Chromosomes move towards the _______

A
  1. Spindle apparatus

2. Metaphase plate

246
Q

In metaphase 2, sister chromatids are arranged at the ______. Due to _____ in meiosis 1, the sister chromatids of each chromosome are no longer ______

A
  1. Metaphase plate
  2. Crossing over
  3. Genetically identical
247
Q

In metaphase 2, the _______ of sister chromatids attach to microtubules extending from oposite poles

A

Kinetochores

248
Q

In _____ 2, sister chromatids separate and move as individual chromosomes to opposite poles

A

Anaphase 2

249
Q

In ____ chromosomes arrive at opposite poles, nuclei form, and chromosomes decondense*
____ separates cytoplasm.

A
  1. Telophase 2*

2. Cytokinesis

250
Q

At the end of meiosis, there are ______ daughter cells, each with a haploid set of _______ chromosomes. Each daughter cell is ____________ from the others and from the parent cell

A
  1. Four
  2. Unreplicated
  3. Genetically distinct
251
Q

In meiosis cell division, 4 haploid gametes are formed. In males, these each develop into a _______. In females, the ______ in unequally divided so that only one gametes has the cytoplasm from the mother cell. This one gamete cell develops into an ________. The other 3 degenerate and are called ______.

A
  1. Spermatozoon
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Ovum
  4. Polar bodies
252
Q

In females, germ cells enter prophase 1 during the _____ month of fetal life. They remain suspended until some time after sexual maturity. The 1st meiosis division can be suspended for ___ years!

A
  1. 5th month

2. 50 years

253
Q

After _____ of ovum, groups of cells differentiate. Cell division and cell differentiation are balanced by cell death and programmed cell death (_____)

A
  1. Fertilization

2. Apoptosis

254
Q

The area inside of the nucleus is called the _______

A

Nucleoplasm

255
Q

These three organelles are involved in manufacturing protein..

A
  1. Endoplasmic reticulum - surface of rough ER
  2. Ribosomes
  3. The golgi complex - packages for EC use
256
Q

The endoplasmic reticulum is associated with chemical production and shipping through the ___. Rough ER is also associated with ___ modification or maturation
Smooth ER is associated with ____ synthesis

A
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Protein
  3. Lipids
257
Q

________ is a process by which cells absorb metabolites, hormones, other proteins by inward budding of plasma membrane vesicles containing proteins with receptor sites specific to the molecules being absorbed

A

Clathrin-dependent endocytosis

258
Q

A major function of _____ is the breakdown of long chain fatty acids through beta-oxidation.
Long chain fatty acids are converted to medium chains, which are subsequently shuttled to ________ where they are eventually broken down to ___ and water

A
  1. Peroxisomes
  2. Mitochondria
  3. CO2
259
Q

_____ produce peroxide, detoxifying alcohol similar to lysosomes except that _____

A
  1. Peroxisomes

2. Peroxisomes do not bud from ER

260
Q

Cellular respiration: glucose breakdown takes place mostly in ______. Energy liberated from glucose molecules is captured by _______. Cellular energy production captures ____ of energy contained in glucose. *the rest is given off as heat

A
  1. Mitochondria
  2. ATP molecules
  3. 30%
261
Q

Lipid synthesis is necessary for _____. They can be used for transportation (ex: ______). Precursor molecules for synthesis are from intermediates of _____.

A
  1. Membrane repair
  2. Chylomicrons
  3. Glycolysis
262
Q

Lipid biosynthesis: fatty acids and triglycerides cam by synthesized in ______.
Cholesterols and phospholipids are synthesized in ____

A
  1. Cytoplasm

2. Smooth ER

263
Q

Cytoskeleton components:

  1. _______ dynamic structure, built from actin.
  2. ________ for supporting function; determines cell shape
  3. ________ dynamic except if highly specialized like in muscle or cilia.
A
  1. Microfilaments
  2. Intermediate microfilaments
  3. Microtubules
264
Q

Microtubules have rods consisting of _______. The ____ is the organizing center of microtubule. ____ is the name for 9 sets of triplet microtubules arranged in a ring

A
  1. alpha and beta tubulin
  2. Centrosome
  3. Centrioles
265
Q

____ is a process by which cells absorb matabolites, hormones, other proteins by the inward budding of plasma membrane vesicles containing proteins with receptor site specific to the molecules being absorbed

A

Clathrin-dependent endocytosis

266
Q

Large molecules and cells are ingested by _____

A

endocytosis

*Quiz Q

267
Q

The recycling of cell contents and organelles is called ____

A

autophagy

268
Q

A major function of ___ is the breakdown of very long chain fatty acids through beta oxidation. They produce ____ which is a detoxifying alcohol

A
  1. Peroxisomes

2. hydrogen peroxide

269
Q

cytoskeleton & cell movement:
Microfilament - _____ structure
Intermediate microfilaments - ____ function
Microtubules - ___ except where specialized as in ____

A

Microfilament - dynamic structure
Intermediate microfilaments - supporting function
Microtubules - dynamic except where specialized as in muscle and cilia
*Quiz Q

270
Q

Microfilaments:
Built from molecules of ___
Part of contractile apparatus of muscle cell
___ motor proteins walk across actin filaments
Has ____ or false feet

A
  1. actin
  2. myosin
  3. pseudopodia
271
Q

Intermediate filaments:
Determines ___ of cell
Function as framework for cytoskeleton

A

Shape (ex: RBC)

272
Q

Microtubules:
Rods consisting of ___ and ___.
Organizing center is called ___.
9 sets of triplet microtubules arranged in a ring that helps organize microtubule assembly is called _____

A
  1. alpha and beta tubulin
  2. centrosome
  3. centrioles
273
Q

A ____ is a cylindrical structure composed mainly of tubulin.

A

centriole

274
Q

An associated pair of centrioles, surrounded by a shapeless mass of dense material (_____) makes up a centrosome

A

PCM pericentriole mater

275
Q

Collagen biosynthesis:

The synthesis of collagen starts in ____ following the typical pathway of ‘‘synthesis for export from the cell’’

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

276
Q

Collagen biosynthesis:

_____ is synthesized with a signal peptide and released as procollagen within the cisterna of RER

A

Preprocollagen

277
Q

Collagen biosynthesis:
_____ consists of three polypeptide chains (2alpha1 and 1alpha2 type 1 collagen), lacking the signal peptide, assembled in a triple helix

A

Procollagen

278
Q

Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine are typically observed in collagen. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues occurs in the RER and requires ____ as a cofactor

A

Ascorbic acid -Vitamin C

*Packaging and secretion of procollagen occurs in the golgi apparatus

279
Q

Procollagen with clipped ends = ______

A

Tropocollagen

280
Q

Elastic fiber synthesis:
____ the precursor of elastin is cleaved and secreted.
In extracellular space, elastin proteins interacts with ___ to organize elastic fibers, which aggregate to form bundles of elastic fibers

A

Proelastin

fibrillins

281
Q

Elastic fiber synthesis:

Elastic fibers contains a characteristic but uncommon amino acid: ____

A

desmosine

282
Q

Elastic fiber synthesis:

Two lysine residues are oxidized by ___ to form a desmosine ring that cross-links two elastin molecules

A

lysyl oxidase

Microanatomy (4 decks)

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