Week 1 Flashcards
1
Q
eosinophil
A
kills ab-coated parasites through release of granule contents
2
Q
basophil
A
controls immune response to parasites
3
Q
megakaryocyte
A
make platelets, repair wounds
4
Q
erythrocyte
A
oxygen transport
5
Q
small lymphocyte (B)
A
make antibodies
6
Q
small lymphocyte (T)
A
make cytotixc and helper functions
7
Q
dendritic cells
A
activate t cell and initiate ADAPTIVE immune responses
8
Q
plasma cell
A
fully differentiated form of B cell that secretes antibodies
9
Q
mast cell
A
expulsion of parasite from body through release of granules containing histamine and other active agents
10
Q
NK cell
A
kill cells infected with certain viruses
11
Q
monocyte
A
precursor to macrophage
12
Q
neutrophil
A
phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms
13
Q
macrophage
A
phagocytosis and killing microorganisms
activate T cells
initiate immune responses
14
Q
primary lymphoid organ
A
bone marrow and thymus
15
Q
bone marrow
A
essential for B cell development and all cells mediating innate immunity
16
Q
thymus
A
essential for T cell development
17
Q
secondary lymphoid tissues
A
spleen, gut (payer’s patch) , lymph node
18
Q
combinatory diversity
A
heavy chain, kappa light chain and lambda light chain each have a certain amount of combinations that can occur
19
Q
RAG1 and Rag2
A
recognize and cleave unique recombination signals sequences that flank immunoglobulin gene segments
20
Q
VDJ recombinase
A
enzyme that mediates rearrangements of immunoglobulin gene rearrangement and T cell receptor gene rearrangment
21
Q
what causes SCID?
A
severe combined immunodeficiency; genetic deficiency in either RAG 1 or RAG2 causes complete absence of lymphocytes
22
Q
terminal deoxynucleotidyl trnasferase
A
TdT can add extra nucleotides
23
Q
junctional flexibility
A
mechanism of diversity that can add/subtract nucleotides at junction; changes coding sequences and INCR ab diversity
24
Q
allelic exclusion
A
a given b cell has a single functional heavy chain and a single functional light chiain –> can produce ONE type of antibody with a SINGLE antigenic specificity
25
what do B cells that are coming out of the bone marrow have on their surface
IgM and IgD
26
How is it possible that a B cell can express IgM and IgD at the same time
RNA splicing
27
RNA splicing
allows for antibody molecule to be expressed in transmembrane or secreted form
28
lag period
4-7 days after infection begins during which time the body is mounting primary immune response
29
what immunoglobulin is predominant during primary response
IgM
30
what immunoglobulin is predominant during secondary response
IgG
31
is the primary response dependent on T cells?
no, the primary response is both thymus dependent and thymus independent (you don't need t cells for primary response)
note that the secondary response IS T cell dependent
32
what is the lag period for the secondary response
1-3 days
33
why are somatic mutations important in gene regions coding for antibodies?
somatic mutations in the variable region accumulate to allow for the affinity of the antibody to increase for the antigen
34
affinity maturation
random mutations that can increase or decrease ab affinity for antigen; can also be neutral
35
what occurs in the germinal center?
somatic hypermutations, class switch recombination, devel of plasma and mem b cells
36
class switching and mutation depend on...
antigen and T cell; in secondary lymphoid organs
DO NOT DEPEND ON RAG
37
AID
lymphocyte specific enzyme required for class switching and somatic mutation
38
what are the mechanisms required for variable region diversity
```
gremline segments (V,D,J)
combinatorial joining
juncitonal diversity
association of diverse heavy and light chains
somatic mutations
```
39
what region does class switch affect?
heavy chain constant region
40
CD molecules associated with B cell lineages
CD19, CD20, CD10
41
opsonization
antibody bound to bacteria enhances their phagocytosis
42
phagolysosome
lysosomes fused with phagosomes ( the lysosomes provide the enzymes that degrade the bacteria)
43
what do Fc receptors on neutrophils and macrophages bind to?
IgG bound to antigen --> opsonization
44
systemic lupus erytheamtosus
DNA:anti-DNA antibodies
kidney failure
Ag:Ab mediated immunopathology
45
RhoD immune globulin to Rh factor
prevents Rh based hemolytic disease of newborns
46
Humira (and Embrel)
monoclonal antibodies to TNFalpha (which mediates pathology in arthritis
47
Tysabri
monoclonal Ab that blocks adhesion molecules on T cells --> prevent ability to go to brain/GI
chrone's disease and MS
48
polyclonal ab response
most microbes express many different antigens; ab secreted by dif b cell lineages
49
Hemagglutination
used for typing red blood cells. Antisera specific for the A or B antigens on red blood cells are used as reagents to detect the type of antigen present.
50
how many binding sites on each IgG
2 antigen combining site; capacity for cross linking
51
what forces mediate antigen-antibody interactions?
hydrogen bonding
ionic bonding
van der waals (hydrophobic interactions)
52
hapten
a molecule with only a single epitope
53
law of mass action
antigen antibody reactions are reversible; equilibrium constant or affinity = "K"
54
affinity
strength of a single antigen combining site of an antibody and a single epitope on an antigen
55
avidity
strength of binding of antibody for an antigen
**multivalent antigens bind with greater avidity because the antibody can bind two epitopes, not just one**
56
which has greater avidity- IgM or IgG
IgM because it has more binding sites
57
post streptococcal pharyngitis
10% untreated get rheumatic fever --> immune damage to cardiac valves --> because the streptocococcal ag cross react with cardiac tissue
58
benefits of cross reacting antigens
vaccines (use molecules that are similar but not the same to the toxin)
59
what determines how much visible preccip forms
size of complexes --> depends on amount of cross linking
need complex to get big to fall out of precipitate
60
when does maximal precipitation occur
equivalence; ag/ab is in slight antigen excess
61
agglutination
combination of an antibody with a particulate antigen
| resulting in visible clumps that form within minutes
62
particulate antigen
RBC, latex, bacteria
63
titer
1/highest dilution of antiserum that still gives positive agglutination reaction
64
precipitin reaction
combination of an antibody with a SOLUBLE antigen (protein, polysaccharide) forming a lattice that, if it gets big enough, can fall out of solution and form visible precipitate
65
radioimmunoassay
inhibition assay
66
ELISA (EIA)
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay allowing you to measure antibody in serum
67
indirect fluorescence
looking for antibodies in patients serum; add FI-labeled anti-Ig
68
direct fluoresnces
identify T cells in periphery; add FI-labeled antibody
69
flow cytometry
automated analysis of cell subsets in a mix
70
envelope of a virus
derived from host; contains viral glycoprotein
71
capsid
coat; protein shell surrounding nucleic acid genome
72
nucleocapsid
core; nucleic acid-protein assembly packaged within the viron
73
virion
infection virus particle
74
tegument
structure containing regulatory proteins; include transcription and translation factors;
75
where is the tegument located
between nucleocapsids and envelope
76
what kind of virus is influenza
RNA enveloped
77
what kind of virus is Hep A
RNA nucleocapsid
78
what kind of virus is poliovirus
RNA nucleocapsid
79
what kind of virus is herpes
DNA enveloped virus
80
what kind of virus is Hep B
DNA enveloped virus
81
what kind of virus is epstein barr
DNA enveloped virus
82
+ polarity
RNA with the same base sequence as the mRNA
83
- polarity
RNA sequence that is complimentary to the mRNA
84
segmented
several fragments of RNA that make a complete virus genome
85
reassortment
exchanging entire RNA molecules between "genetically related" viruses w/ segmented genomes
86
recombination
exchanging nucleotides seq among dif RNA molecules
87
proteins on the surface of HIV
GP41 and GP120
88
proteins on the surface of flu
hemagluttinin and neuraminidase
89
cxcr4
7 transmembrane protein on surface of T cell; binds Gp41 and GP120 of HIV virus
90
CD14
binds LPS/LPSBP
91
HMGB1
histone protein secreted by macrophages during inflammation
92
what kind of peptidoglycan layer does gram neg bacteria have
very thin
93
TLR2
peptidoglycan
lipoproteins
gram positive bacteria!!! (also yeast)
94
TLR4
LPS, F-protein
gram negative bacteria (also RSV)
95
RSV
respiratory syncytial virus; recognized by TLR4
uncaring occurs at cell membrane
RNA enveloped virus
96
IL1
Fever; Activates endothelial cells
97
IL 12
Activates NK cells
98
TNF alpha
Causes tissue damage and mediates septic shock
99
IL 6
Induces acute phase proteins in the liver
100
IL8
chemotactic for PMNs (neutrophils)
101
HMGB1
A late mediator of sepsis (a histone protein)
| secreted by macrophages during inflammation
102
serovar
subspecies classification based on a distinct antigenic variant of a species
103
criteria for confounder
1. risk factor for disease in unexposed group
2. associated with the exposure
3. not in causal pathway
104
what is a confounder?
it is a factor on which the exposed and unexposed differ that can cause mixing of effect
105
types of misclassification
non-differential and differential
106
types of bias
information and selection
107
describe types of info bias
diagnostic bias, recall bias, interview bias
108
describe types of selection bias
inclusion/exclusion, group bias, surveillance patterns, non-response rate
109
how to handle confounding
1. Restriction
2. Matching
3. Randomized
4. Analysis (stratified or multivariate)
110
what kind of Fc do mast cells and basophils have
Fc for IgE
111
what kind of Fc do neutrophils and macrophages have
Fc for IgG
112
what are the two most sensitive lab techniques?
ELISA and Radioimmunoassay
113
cross reacting antigens
based on ab:ag cleft, more than one ag may be able to bind an ab; this is why vaccines work and also why rheumatic fever develops
114
how can B cell simultaneously express both IgM and IgD?
RNA splicing; note that a B cell emerging from bone marrow will express both IgM and IgD on surface
115
how can an antibody molecule be expressed in transmembrane or secreted form?
RNA splicing
116
what are the key events of B cell development in the germinal center?
somatic hypermutaiotn and class switch
note - requires T cell and antigen
117
where do DNA viruses replicate?
nucleus with the exception of poxvirus which replicates in the cytoplasm
118
Where do RNA viruses replicate?
cytoplasm with the exception of flu which replicates in nuclear
119
RNA dependent RNA pol
used by ALL RNA viruses except retroviruses, which use a RNA dependent DNA polymerase
120
infectious nucleic acid
viruses that do not require polymerase in the vision
121
ways to make mRNA and viral proteins
post translational cleavage
splicing
multi subgeneric RNAs
122
what viruses use post translational cleavage
HIV , polio , HTLV
123
which viruses use splicing
HIV< HTLV, flu HBV, AAV, adenovirus
124
which viruses use multiple subgeneric mRNAs
adenovirus, herpes, pox
125
three mechanisms for origin of diversity of RNA virus genomes
misincorporation of nucleotides
segment reassortment/recomb
editing
126
defensins
small MW proteins w/ antibiotic properties
| found in neutrophils
127
cationic proteins
largeMW, in lysosomes of neutrophils, punch holes in microbial membranes
128
lysozyme
enzyme breaks down peptidoglycan cell wall
129
myeloperoxidase
enzyme only in neutrophils that converts H2O2 to hypochlorites
130
where are reactive nitrogen species found
only in macrophages
131
acute phase response proteins
C reactive protein
mannose binding lectin
LPS-BP
serum amyloid P
132
what can trigger TLR?
```
dsRNA
CpGs (unmethylated)
bacterial flagella
LPS
peptidoglycan of gram+
```
133
examples of DAMPs
```
heat shock proteins
urate crystals (gout)
HMGB1 = marker of cell damage
```
134
TLR5
recognizes flagellin
135
IL8
chemotactic for neutrophils
136
cytokine storm
massive ants of TNF alpha IL1 IL6 and IL12 to mobilize phagocytes; can cause septic shock and multiple organ dysfunction
137
what role does nitric oxide have in septic shock?
activated macrophages induce iNOS, contribute to lowering BP
138
relationship between IL1 and IL6
IL1 induces production of IL6
139
low conc of TNF
local inflammation, upreg of adhesion molecules, IL1 and chemokines
140
moderate TNF
fever, acute phase proteins, mobilize leukocytes from bone marrow
141
high quantities of TNF
septic shock
142
what are the endpoints of complement
inflammation
microbicidal activity
increased phagocytosis
opsonizaiton
143
what initiates the classical pathway of complement
ag-ab complex
144
what system is mannose binding lectin a part of
innate immunity; recognizes microbes in absence of antibody; it is a protein in the serum that can bind the carbohydrate mannose, which is found on the surface of many microbes
145
CRP
part of the innate immune system bc does not require antigen, but it triggers the CLASSICAL pathway
146
hereditary angioneurotic edema
absence of C1 esterase inhibitor, which usually blocks C1r and C1s
therefore, patients have often triggering of complement
147
what are the plasma protein regulators of complement
Factors H and I
C1 esterase inhibitor
Carboxypeptidases (degrade the anaphylaxins)
148
regulators of complement
plasma proteins
short half life of many components
membrane bound proteins
149
what are the membrane bound protein regulators of complement
DAF
MCP
HRF
150
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobulinuria
defect in homologous restriction factor and CD59, which both block MAC and interfere with C9 polymerization; therefore, you don't have the anchor for factors and RBCs lyse --> clinical sign is waking up with dark pee
151
DAF
delay accelerating factor that breaks down C4b2a and C3bBb
152
MCP
membrane cofactor protein that dissociates C4b2a and C3bBb and facilitates C4b and C3b degradation by factor I
153
factor I deficiency
uncontrolled activation of alternate pathway and depletion of C3
154
deficiency in C5-C8, factor D , properdin
susceptibility to gram negative infections, esp neisseria
155
what immunoglobulin for parasites
IgE
156
cell types doing ADCC
NK, neutrophils, eosinophils and macrophages and monocytes
157
segmented filamentous bacteria
causes up regulation of TH17 secreting cells
158
bacteria assoc with healthy micro biome?
bacteriodetes and bifidobacterium
159
bacteria NOT assoc w healthy micro biome?
proteobacteria and clostridia
160
CD25+ cells
treg (also FoxP3+)
