Practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

factor h and I inhibit the ____

A

alternative pathway

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2
Q

carboxypeptidases degrade ___

A

C3a and C5a

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3
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor blocks ____

A

C1r and C1s

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4
Q

what is hereditary angioneurmtic edema

A

absence of C1 esterase inhibitor and often triggering of the complement system

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5
Q

LPS triggers the ______ pathway

A

alternative complement innate pathway

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6
Q

what are the three components of the acute inflammatory reaction?

A

plasma proteins, plasma fluid and neutrophils

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7
Q

what is J chain made by?

A

plasma cells

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8
Q

what part of the IgM fixes complement?

A

constant region

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9
Q

what cells are PRRs on?

A

macrophages; therefore PRRs activate phagocytosis

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10
Q

TAP

A

MHC I

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11
Q

affinity

A

one antibody combining site for a single antigenic determity

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12
Q

where are peyers patches

A

lamina propria of gut

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13
Q

neutrophils and macrophages Fc recognizes ____

A

bound IgG

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14
Q

TLRs recognize ____

A

PAMPs

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15
Q

an IgG molecule has

A

two identical kappa or lambda chains

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16
Q

antibodies against ABO are ____

A

IgM

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17
Q

chemokine Il8 is most important for which step of leukocyte extravasation?

A

activation

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18
Q

do gamma delta T cells undergo extensive selection in thymus

A

no

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19
Q

defensins

A

oxygen independent factors produced by macrophages and neutrophils to kill microbes and eukaryotic cells ; mostly in neutrophils

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20
Q

desensitization via injection is less effective for ragweed than bee sting because

A

blocking antibody is less likely to bind the allergen

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21
Q

flare

A

vasodilation and blood flow incr

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22
Q

wheel

A

edema resulting from histamine-induced capillary permeability

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23
Q

what is the main dif between asthma and allergic rhinitis

A

asthma affects lower respiratory ; allergic rhinitis affects upper respiratory tract

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24
Q

mast cells and basophils both have

A

histamine-containing granules

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25
Q

mast cells and basophils both have

A

histamine-containing granules

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26
Q

direct coombs

A

RBC

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27
Q

indirect coombs

A

serum

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28
Q

Rh +

A

Dd or DD

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29
Q

Rh -

A

dd (recessive)

30
Q

D is

A

Dominant

31
Q

only ____ determines the Rh+ or - phenotype

A

D/d

32
Q

antibodies can be formed against everything except _____

A

d (null allele)

antibodies form against D, C, c, E, e

33
Q

___ is by far the most immunogenic of the Rh blood group system

A

D

34
Q

antibodies to ABO are ____

A

IgM

35
Q

antibodies to ABO are ____

A

IgM

36
Q

isograft

A

to twin brother

37
Q

what type of hypersensitivity is SLE

A

III

38
Q

what are the pathogenic cytokines for SLE

A

type 1 interferons

39
Q

is diabetes B or T cell mediated?

A

T cell mediated

40
Q

what kind of Th response is diabetes?

A

Th1 and type 4 hypersensitivity

41
Q

what are the main pathogenic cytokines in RA

A

TNF alpha and Il6

42
Q

B cell mediated autoimmune conditions

A

SLE, myasthenia gravis

43
Q

what disease is due to stimulating autoantibodies

A

graves

44
Q

what disease is due to blocking antibodies

A

myasthenia gravis

45
Q

ICOS

A

inducible costimulatory molecule; not present in resting T cells, only in activated T cells and is especially important for Tfh (Tfh have CXCR5 and ICOS to help travel to germinal centers and help B cells)

46
Q

where is ICOS-L

A

APC

47
Q

mixed lymphocyte reaction

A

determine how strong a potential transplant recipients immune system will react to donor organ

48
Q

why do drug resistant bacteria have lower fitness?

A

the drugs will target necessary aspects of replication/life cycle; therefore, in order to avoid drug toxicity, it must have modified one of its own critical functions, therefore making it have lower fitness as compared to WT

in hospitals tho, many patients are on antibiotics and so the WT is wiped out in most of them, and then the drug resistant bacteria can flourish

49
Q

what is iron important for

A

rapid bacterial growth

50
Q

major scavengers of apoptotic cells

A

maacrophages

51
Q

cross-presentation

A

activation of CD8+ T cells, recognizing MHC I, of dendritic cell Ag generated in eptithelial cell

52
Q

what kind of antigen does cross presentation present

A

exogenous antigen

53
Q

enterococcus faecalis

A

gram positive bacteria that causes nosocomial infections that are VRE; takes advantage of antibiotics to displace commensal strains with antibiotic resistant pathogens

54
Q

c diff

A

spore forming; anaerobic; gram +; can be found in healthy indv; often secondary to antibiotic use;

55
Q

conformational determinants are recognized by

A

B cells

56
Q

linear determinants are recognized by

A

B and T cells

57
Q

What kind of determinants can B cells recognize?

A

conformational and linear

58
Q

What kind of determinants can T cells recognize?

A

only linear

59
Q

Microbial superantigens bind multiple T cell receptors via the

A

beta chain

60
Q

typically, how many HLA haplotypes are possible in children of same father and mother?

A

4

61
Q

What does the association constant determine

A

the STRENGTH of antigen binding to antibody

62
Q

acute infections characterized by

A

neutrophils

63
Q

chronic infections characterized by

A

macrophages

64
Q

what diseases can CGD handle?

A

strep and hemophilus

65
Q

what diseases can’t CGD handle?

A

staph, eccoli, candida albicans

66
Q

antigen receptor editing contributes to what kind of tolerance

A

central

67
Q

macrophages make

A

IL12 and nitric oxide and Il8 and IL1

68
Q

whats imp abt Salmonella Typhimurium

A

type 3 secretion system

69
Q

classic example of necessary

A

HIV and development of AIDS

70
Q

what chain do super antigens bind to?

A

B