week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a fit note for?

A
  • free of charge
  • statement for fitness to work advising either
    a) not fit for work
    b) you may be fit for work taking account certain pieces of advice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when does a fit note need to be issued

A

when an individual has been off work for more than 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

can altered hours be stated as a request for a patient issued with a fit note

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

palliative management of anorexia

A

dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

palliative management of pruritus

A

cholestyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

palliative trx muscle spasms

A

baclofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

palliative trx insomnia

A

temazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

palliative trx hiccups

A

metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

palliative trx dyspnoea

A

morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

palliative trx restlessness

A

haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

palliative trx excessive resp secretions

A

hyoscine hydrobramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

palliative trx capillary bleeding

A

tranexamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 basic principles of end of life care

A
  • autonomy
  • beneficience
  • non maleficence
  • justice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

time definition of end of life

A

person likely to die within next 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1st line management of delirium tremens

A

oral lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

presentation of delerium tremens

A

tachycardia, HTN, pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when does delerium tremens occur

A

1-2 days following cessation of alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

other signs of alcohol withdrawal

A
  • n+v
  • headache
  • tremors
  • extreme sweating
  • hallucinations
  • agitation/anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

during what period is alcohol withdrawal symptoms worst

A

first 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

peak incidence of alcohol withdrawal seizures

A

36 hours

21
Q

peak incidence of delirium tremens

A

48-72 hours

22
Q

symptoms of delirium tremens

A
  • seizures
  • hallucinations
  • coarse tremor
  • confusion
  • fever
  • tachycardia
23
Q

cause of wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

thiamine deficiency

24
Q

offer thiamine to…. (4)

A
  • those at high risk of wernickes encephalopathy
  • are malnourished
  • decompensated liver disease
  • in acute withdrawal
25
Q

2 supplementations during alcohol withdrawal

A

thiamine + folic acid

26
Q

why is folic acid required in alcohol withdrawal

A

alcohol affects the bodys ability to absorb folate

27
Q

where is alcohol detoxification carried out

A

undertaken by specialist community alcohol services

  • in patient, or
  • close supervision at home
28
Q

treatment for alcohol withdrawal

A

benzodiazepine regimen: chloorodiazepoxide

29
Q

therapy for alcohol dependancy (4)

A
  • self help groups: AA
  • 12 step facilitation therapy
  • CBT
  • family therapy
30
Q

4 medications for alcohol dependancy

A
  • acamprosate
  • disulfiram
  • naltrexone
  • nalmefene
31
Q

mechanism of acamprostate and how long advised course

A
  • weak NDMA antagonist

- 6 months course

32
Q

promotes abstinence if you are concerned you may have a relapse

A

Disulfiram

33
Q

mechanism of disulfiram

A

prevents you drinking by causing an unpleasant reaction when you do drink

  • nausea
  • chest pain
  • vomiting
  • dizziness
34
Q

what must you warn patients about when starting disulfiram

A

May have reaction to other alcohol containing things such as perfume, mouthwash, aftershave

35
Q

blocks opioid receptos

A
  • Naltrexone

- Nalmefene

36
Q

lower back pain red flags (6)

A
  • age <20
  • age >50
  • hx previous malignancy
  • night pain
  • hx trauma
  • weight loss
  • fever
37
Q

gradual onset of unilateral/bilateral pain with numbness, weakness; worse on walking.

  • pain resolves sitting down
  • diagnosed by MRI
A

spinal stenosis

38
Q

causes of spinal stenosis (3)

A
  • tumour
  • disc prolapse
  • degenerative changes
39
Q

Management of disc herniation/prolapse

A
  • NSAIDs
  • PPI protection
  • exercise programme
  • manual therapy
  • epidural injections of local anaesthesia + steroids
40
Q

what tool do GPs use as a prognostic questionnaire to help identify modifiable risk factors for back pain

A

STarT tool

41
Q

presentation of lumbar muscle sprain/strain

A
  • muscle spasms on movement
  • lasting < 30 minutes
  • aggravated by movement
  • usually lasts 2-4 weeks
42
Q
  • saddle anaesthesia
  • urinary/faecal incontinence
  • bilateral sciatics
A

cauda equina

43
Q

spinal cord compression presentation

A
  • gradual onset
  • aching night pain
  • localised spinal tenderness
  • worse with coughing/straining
44
Q

infection e.g. spinal epidural abscess

A
  • fever
  • TB
  • recent UTI
  • HIV infection/immunosuppressed
45
Q

causes of lumbar spinal stenosis

A
  • tumour
  • disc prolapse
  • degen changes
46
Q

easier to walk uphill than downhill

A

lumbar spinal stenosis

47
Q

management of lumbar spinal stenosis

A
  • laminectomy
48
Q

common side effects of Metformin

A
  • Abdo pain
  • anorexia
  • diarrhoea
  • nausea
  • taste disturbances
  • vomiting
49
Q

rarer side effect of metformin

A

decreased B12 absorption