week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the main features of natural killer cells

A

Recognise stressed or infected cells
express cytotoxic enzymes
produce IFN-Y

10% of lymphocytes
collaborate with macrophages (via IL-12) to enhance killing ability.

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2
Q

Explain the mechanisms underlying target cell recognition by natural killer cells

A

have inhibitory and activating receptors.

stimulation of inhibitory by ligands on healthy cells causes cascade and blocks activating receptors

if no inhibit, or recognition of foreign then the activating cascade is greater causing degranulation.

MHC1 can present the protein but downregulated in virus or cancer.

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3
Q

Describe the main molecules and steps involved in target cell killing by natural killer cells

A

Cytoplasmic tails of inhibitory receptors contain ITIM motif
* ITIMs engage molecules (phosphatases) that block the
signalling pathways triggered by activating receptors
* Activating receptors contain ITAM motif
* ITAMs engage protein tyrosine kinase-mediated signalling
events (→ promote target cell killing and cytokine secretion
by NK cells)
* ITAMs are often located not in activating receptors but in
cytosolic portion of adaptor molecules (e.g. DAP 12)

Perforin: forms pores → delivery of granzymes
Granzymes A, B, C: initiate apoptosis (B- mitochondrial)
→ prevents killing of neighbouring healthy cells
Delivered at the site of contact between NK cell & target

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4
Q

Give some examples of lymphocytes with limited antigen recognition capacity

A

Combine features of T/B lymphocytes and innate cells
γδ (gamma/delta) T cells
NK-T cells
Marginal zone B cells
Mucosa-Associated Invariant T (MAIT) cells
B-1 B cells

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5
Q

Describe defects in various components of the innate immune response and explain the mechanisms by which they cause disease

A

Quantitative (dec number)
- Qualitative (dec function)

Chronic granulomatous disease
mutation in NADPH component
defect in oxidative burst

Chediak-Higashi syndrome- rare + genetic
defective phagosome-lysosome fusion

Defective neutrophil chemotaxis Defect in B2-chain integrins (LFA-1, Mac-1)

Deficiencies in complement proteins:C3 deficiency → frequent serious infections with pyogenic bacteria (e.g. Staphylococcus aureus, etc.)
C2, C4, C1q deficiency → SLE-like syndrome

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6
Q

outline the clinical utility of H1 and H2 receptor antagonists and their major side effects

A

H1 antagonists- treat acute inflammation
1st gen (meptramine, promethazine, diphenhydramine) - sedatives/ motion sickness

2&3 Gen- Fexofenadine = active, non-toxic metabolite of terfenadine (can cause arrhythmia)

H2 antagonists- cimetadine, ranitidine- dec gastric acid production- can cause gynocomastia, confusion, dizziness, diarrhoea

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7
Q

Describe the role of histamine in inflammation

A

Histamine - A local hormone (amino acid based)
released from mast cells, basophils, nrueons, histaminergic cells in gut.

dec TPR, inc permeability of post capillary venules. H2 inc HR.
pain (H1)

Lewis triple response- Red-Flare-wheal

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8
Q

Define the terms prostanoid, leukotriene and eicosanoid

A

Prostanoids are lipid mediators that regulate the inflammatory response

Leukotrienes are a family of eicosanoid inflammatory mediators produced in leukocytes by the oxidation of arachidonic acid

Eicosanoid- family of molecules derived from polyunsaturated fats- arachidonic acid.

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9
Q

Describe the major enzymatic pathways leading to the formation of prostaglandins and leukotrienes, with special reference to areas where drug therapy can be applied

A

Cyclooxygenases (COX) convert AA to Prostanoids
COX 1 constitutionally active.
COX 2 needs activation (IL-1, TNFA) COX2 inhibitors prevent this.
Aspirin prevents Thromboaxane prod

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10
Q

Outline the main effects of eicosanoids with special reference to their roles in inflammation, haemostasis and gastric cytoprotection

A
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11
Q

Present an overview of the development of innate and adaptive immune cells

A

Lymphoid lineage (not pic)
common progenitor–> pro B or T/NK cells. –> NK or Pro T cells

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12
Q

Describe the main stages of T and B lymphocyte maturation and selection

A

Immature T cells enter thymus- tested to recognise MHC1/2 and small response to self antibodies

B Cells remain in the bone marrow, again tested for small but not overwhelming self antigen response.

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13
Q

Understand the concept of self/immunological tolerance

A

If too much reaction to own antibodies- will cause autoimmune disease.

If no reaction at all then cell will die due to lack of signals.

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14
Q

Describe the main mechanisms of central tolerance induction in T and B lymphocytes

A

If weak or no recognition then death by neglect
if significant reaction then negative selection- death by apoptosis.

antigens are presented to the developing cells by epithelial cells in the thymus/ bone marrow.

positive selection is the process of selecting T cells that recognise MHC and self antigens but not significantly.

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15
Q

Describe the main mechanisms of peripheral tolerance induction in T and B cells

A

Anergy- where there is no reaction- cell gets no signals and dies
suppression- where the response is suppressed by T reg cells
Deletion- by apoptosis (negative selection)

B cells can gene switch and alter their antibody binding site to change the level of response.

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16
Q

Describe the natural history of tuberculosis infection

A
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17
Q

give pathological features of tuberculosis

A

Ghon focus leading to a Gohn complex (when engages with lymph node).
usually infects a peripheral mid zone lung area.

caseous necrotic tissue.

waxy coat, immune system cannot destroy it- inhibits phagolysosome fusion and acidificaiton. can escape into phagocyte.

body ‘contains’ it in calcified nodule- liquefied interior builds pressure and can burst.

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18
Q

Demonstrate an appreciation of the global health burden of disease caused by respiratory infections

A
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19
Q

Outline and differentiate between the clinical presentations of common upper and lower respiratory tract bacterial and viral infections

A

many similar prodromes - cough, sore throat, fever.

Flu has sudden onset of symptoms (myalgia, fever)

croup- barking cough, insp stridor, significant distress.

acute epiglotitis- short illness- drooling, stridor, fever, wont lie down, silent chest.

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20
Q

List organisms that commonly cause: community acquired pneumonia, croup, epiglottis, tonsillitis, pharyngitis (sore throat)

A

CAP- S Pneumoniae (35-40%) H Influenzae (9%)
S aureius and legionells higher for ICU admissions.

Croup- parainfluenza virus
acute epiglotitis- Haemophiluis influenzae
tonsilitis- strep pyogenes
pharyngitis- group A strep/ viruses

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21
Q

Outline the principles of laboratory investigation and diagnosis of respiratory tract infections

A

culture bacteria
blood results
spirometry
chest x-ray

PCR test if viral, sometimes no diagnosis and treat clnically

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22
Q

Explain how COPD may be exacerbated by respiratory infections

A

chronic colonisation by Pneumococcus
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

can exacerbate if host defences weaken temporarily.

sputum cultures only useful lab invesitigation, blood cultures useless.

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23
Q

Describe symptoms and signs found in people affected with pulmonary tuberculosis

A

The classic clinical features of pulmonary TB include chronic cough, sputum production, appetite loss, weight loss, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis (Lawn and Zumla 2011).

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24
Q

Outline the investigation of a patient with suspected TB

A

chest x-ray to look for nodes.
3x sputum samples- deep cough, one in the morning.

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25
Q

Demonstrate an understanding of the mechanisms that control cell proliferation and cell death.

A

depends on combination of intra and extra cellular components.

controlled by checkpoints

growth can only be stimulated in G1 phase, can be stopped at checkpoints.

26
Q

Relate these mechanisms to the loss of growth regulation in neoplasia.

A

TGF -B stimulates many inhibitor pathways

also stimulates differentiation of cells to specialise

27
Q

summarise the key steps in growth

A

Rb- retinoblastoma a tumor suppressor protein. phosphorylated to allow cell growth

28
Q

What is TP53 role in DNA repair/ checking

A

TP53 facilitates a pause in cell cycle to allow repairs. also impacts DNA repair enzymes.

It can also promote transcription of pro apoptotic factors, inducing cell death

29
Q

Describe the biochemical and morphological differences between cells undergoing necrosis

A

Necrosis- whole groups of cells affected
result of injurious event or agent
reversible events proceed irreversible
results in an inflammatory response.
haphazard destruction by released lysosozomes

30
Q

Demonstrate an understanding of the normal and pathological processes that result in cell death and tissue damage.

A
31
Q

Outline the endogenous and exogenous initiators of apoptosis.

A
32
Q

Detail the different mechanisms of apoptotic cell death. - Caspases

A

Caspase cascades- most produced in ineffective form. once activated go onto activate more

33
Q

Describe the morphological and biochemical differences between cells undergoing apoptosis.

A
34
Q

how are initiator caspases activated

A

induced proximity

35
Q

Detail the different mechanisms of apoptotic cell death. - cytochrome C

A

mitochondrial matrix protein.

BCL-2 usually blocks channels keeping it contained

If BAD proteins phosphorylated they can from dimers with BCL-2- opening channels.

OR p53 transcription inserts open channels into the membrane.

36
Q

Detail the different mechanisms of apoptotic cell death. - TNF

A

Initially all separate.
come together to form a super killing complex

37
Q
  1. Define the terms: differential, selective and enriched media and give examples
A

Differential: used to differentiate different types of microorganisms based on different colours or colony shapes. Macconkey’s agar

Selective: used to select for the growth of a particular “selected” microorganism Macconkyes agar

media with substance added to promote growth of certain organism- blood agar

38
Q
  1. Define the terms: alpha and beta haemolysis; lactose fermenter; anaerobe, and explain how these properties can be shown by culture techniques
A

alpha- reduction of haemogloblun to methemglobulin - culture goes brown

beta- complete lysis of cells surrounding- goes clear

lactose fermenter grows pink on macconickys (turns PH indicator to pink as prod acid)

anaerobes- grows without o2.

39
Q
  1. Explain the value of blood agar and MacConkey’s agar in bacterial identification
A

can be used to grow pathogens that are difficult to grow and require different nutrient profile

40
Q
  1. Explain the relationship between bacterial numbers in a urine specimen and urinary tract infections
A

if greater than 10 to the power 5 /ml then consider an infection.
IF less but clinically positive might be.

41
Q
  1. List commensal organisms commonly found in: naso-pharynx, skin, gut, vagina.
A

Haemophilus influenzae,, streptococus pneumoniae

skin:Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Escherichia coli, and Proteus spp

Bifidobacterium bifidum, staph aureus

candida, lactobacilus

42
Q

Describe the genetics of blood group antigens: ABO and Rh systems.

A

A and B are co dominant. O recessive.

RHD +ve dominant, RHD -ve recessive.

43
Q

Describe the production of naturally occurring antibodies to blood group antigens.

A

Exposed to A/B like antigens in the gut bacteria. antigens are then developed as a result.
A blood group will have anti B antibodies. O blood group will have anti both.

44
Q

Outline the mechanisms of haemolytic disease of the newborn and current guidelines for prevention of the disease.

A

RHD negative mother carrying RHD + baba.

Woman can develop anti D antibodies.

These cross placenta and attack faetus- not 1st born only subsequent babies.

blood group antiboy screen at 28 weeks. administration of Anti-D meds to remove fetal blood. 1500iu @ 28 weeks.

45
Q

Explain the possible consequences of mis-matched blood transfusions.

A

acute hemolytic reaction followed by disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and acute kidney injury (AKI)

spleen and liver failure to try and get rid of all the cells.

46
Q

Describe testing for ABO blood group

A
47
Q

Define myeloma and its typical symptoms and clinical presentation

A

B Cell malignancy derived from antiboy producing plasma cells in bone marrow

48
Q

Describe the common laboratory abnormalities detected in myeloma and clinical significance of these abnormalities

A

Serum protein electrophoresis - big spikes at certain antibodies.

ratio of light chains to each other- if vastly one sided indication of excessive numbers

free light chains can build up. cause damage to kidneys if in excess amounts. parprotein >10G/L

49
Q

Understand the tests required to make a diagnosis of myeloma

A

hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, and bone disease

S for 60% plasma cells, Li for light chains, and M for MRI lesions

50
Q

Understand the pathology of myeloma associated bone disease

A

increased action of osteoclasts.
decreased regulation of OPG (osteoprotegrin)
increased regulation Rank ligand

51
Q

Understand the possible causes of renal failure in myeloma

A

hypercalcaemia from increased bone breakdown

focus on cast injury- leads to inflamatory response –> scarring and failure

52
Q

Understand the pathological link between myeloma and amyloidosis

A

amylodosis- build up of protein in places it shouldn’t be

light chains build up in the kidney, and other places

15-20% of pts with myeloma develop amyloidosis

The majority of patients with amyloidosis
have lambda light chain secreting tumours

53
Q

Describe the microbiological investigation of a case of bacterial lobar pneumonia

A
54
Q

Describe the microbiological investigation of a case of herpes zoster

A

swab of pustule/ rash.

PCR amplification of the virus giving DNA profile.

Acyclovir often given to treat

55
Q

Explain how immunological defects in myeloma may result in susceptibility to infections

A

underlying immunological deficit, primarily in antibody production.

immmunosupressive effects of Chemo also predispose to infection

56
Q

Describe the mechanism of action and uses of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A

Rx pain
fever
inflammation

57
Q

Outline the major side effects of NSAIDs

A

GI injury, including bleeding, ulcer.

paradoxical hyperpyrexia, coma, stupor

delay labour, delay uterine contractions, increase bleeding risk.

chronic renal injury due to decreased blood flow.

aggravate athsma.

inhibit platelet cyclooxygenase, thereby blocking the formation of thromboxane A2

58
Q

Outline and compare the mechanisms of other anti-inflammatory agents used to treat gout, ulcerative colitis and inflammatory diseases of joints

A

Naproxen- COX 1 and 2 inhibitor.

59
Q

Describe the major metabolic, cardiovascular, haematological, neuro- and immunological effects of endogenous and synthetic glucocorticoids

A

Breakdown of protein and fats. Decreased utility of glucose and promotes gluconeogenesis.

CVS: HTN, decreased vasodilation, permeability

CNS: mood changes

60
Q

Outline the major therapeutic uses of glucocorticoids

A
61
Q

Describe the mechanisms of action of steroids, with reference to changes in gene regulation

A

steroid receptor complexes prevent transcription - stops inflam mediators being produced.

induction of IkBa (inhibitor of NF-κB) which causes NF
-κB repression

62
Q

describe mechanism of IkBa action and its inflammatory effects

A

NF-kB is a transcription factor

inhibition of this causes reduction of inflammaroty mediations being created.

it is triggered by TNF-a IL-1b