Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an antiphospholipid antibody test for?

A

Helps determine cause of inappropriate blood clot formation eg unexplained thrombus, excessive clotting, miscarriages after week 10, premature births before week 34, 3 or more miscarriages before week 10.

Antiphospholipid syndrome could be indicated.
Normal range is less than 15ig G without GPL, 12 or less igm without MPL, 12 or less igA without APL.

Common types of apl are anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant, antibeta2glycoprotein and antiprothrombin

For anticardiolipin:
igG indicates abnormal clots and miscarriage
IgM indicates clots and autoimmune disease like SLE
which also can cause clots and miscarriages

Livido sign can indicate antiphospholipid antibodies

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2
Q

What does raised ribonucleoprotein indicate? / anti-rnp

A

Commonly high in those with often autoimmune connective tissue conditions like RhA, SLE, Progressive systemic sclerosis, mixed connective tissue disease

If high ANA also/anti ana - likely MCTD or SLE

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3
Q

What are the CIN grades?

A

Refers to stage of neoplasia for cervical intraepithelium

CIN1 is low grade dysplasia in 1/3 thickness of epithelium

CIN2 is abnormalities in 1/3-2/3 of the layer

CIN3 is a condition of neoplasia in over 2/3 of the depth of the epithelium

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4
Q

What is chronic salpingitis?

A

The milder inflammation left after acute salpingitis/ Fallopian tube inflammation, detected by cogwheel sign. Often caused by bacteria like mycoplasma, staphyl or strepto, STIs like gonorrhoea or chlamydia. Treat with antibiotics. Risk infertility. Can be granulomatous.

Symptoms uterine pain, cervical pain, fever, elevated crp and esr and wbcs
Sonography shows thick fluid filled tubes

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5
Q

What is GTD/ Gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

Where abnormal trophoblast cells grow inside the uterus after conception, then a tumour forms. Symptoms are vaginal bleeding in first trimester, bigger than expected uterus, nausea and vomiting. Often nonviable with empty egg and includes molar pregnancies. Treatment includes chemotherapy, surgery, dialation and cuterrage with hcg monitoring

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6
Q

What is folate deficiency?

A

B12 or B9 deficiency anaemia leads to oversized blood cells. Symptoms include fatigue, lethargy, breathlessness, faintness, headaches, pale skin, palpitations. Severe leads to paraesthesia, numbness, cognitive and visual changes. Usually give daily folic acid tablets. In pregnancy, this deficiency leads to neural tube defects.

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7
Q

What is a quinsy?

A

An abscess between the tonsil and the wall of the throat. Gives asymmetric sore throat, difficulty opening mouth, pain on swallowing, bad breath and earache. Give Antibiotics, IV if significant size. Can be a complication of tonsillitis. Often treated with amoxicillin with clindamycin or metronidazole.

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8
Q

What is interstitial lung disease?

A

Lung diseases that cause fibrosis. Most common and dangerous us idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. also includes acute or non specific interstitial pneumonia, sarcoidosis, cryptogenic pneumonia. RhA fibrosis, SLE, scleroderma, polymyositis, dermatomyositis, Sjögren’s syndrome, chemotherapy, methotrexate, amiodarone, Macrobid

Most common symptoms are breathlessness ( on exertion also), dry hacking cough, weight loss, mild chest pain, haemoptisis, fast shallow breathing

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9
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Airways are displayed with mucus and scarring.

Commonly short of breath, wheezing, blood, bloody phlegm, chest pain, joint pain. Often given iv antibiotics, eg macrolides for inflammation and bacteria.

3 types- cylindrical, varicose abs cystic. Often caused by cystic fibrosis, pneumonia, whooping cough or TB

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10
Q

What happens in Diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Complicating from hyperglycaemia often and also adrenaline depleting insulin. Includes polyuria/dipsia, vomiting, nausea/abdominal pain. Kussmaul deep laboured breathing, fruity breath.

Fluid loss > kidney damage and brain swelling > coma and also fluid on the lungs

Neutrophil count is high for some reason. Hypokalaemia.

Treatment = iv insulin, fluids ( do that first) and electrolytes

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11
Q

What happens in hypoglycaemia?

A

Deficiency in circulating glucose less than 70mg/dl. Can be from overdose of meds. Can cause DKA. Early signs sweating/tingling, dizzy/shaking, palpitations, fatigue. Later signs are blurred vision, confusion, drunk behaviour, seizures and collapse.

Can give glucose tablets, or iv dextrose solution +/- fluids

hunger irritability trouble concentrating fatigue sweating confusion fast heartbeat shaking headache

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12
Q

What happens in hyperglycaemia?

A

Excess glucose in circulation over 130mg/dL. Commonly can give hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic syndrome/state/HHS

Symptoms include thirst, dry mouth, polyuria, weight loss, blurred vision, infections, fruity breath, abdominal pain, high blood pressure (not low)

Treated by fast acting insulin

extreme thirst dry mouth weakness headache frequent urination blurry vision nausea confusion shortness of breath

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13
Q

What is Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic syndrome/state/HHS?

A

In type 2 diabetes with over 30-40mmol/L circulating glucose and serum osmolarity > 330mmol/kg. Is without ketoacidosis. ( dKA is from hypo making hyper via ketones) It is treated with IV saline, correction of Hypokalaemia and IV insulin.

A reading between 140mg/dL and 199 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L and 11.0 mmol/L) indicates prediabetes

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14
Q

Treatment for cystic fibrosis?

A

Kaftrio ivacaftor, tezacaftor and elexacaftor. The medicine helps lung cells to work better for less mucus.

Antibiotics

Dornase alfa, hypertonic saline and mannitol dry powder for thinner mucus

ivacaftor taken on its own (Kalydeco) or in combination with lumacaftor (Orkambi) also for less mucus

Other medicines based on secondary issues

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15
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Cancer that begins in glandular cells

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16
Q

Carcinoma

A

Cancer cells of skin or tissue lining organs like the liver or kidney

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17
Q

Adenoma

A

Non cancerous tumour in glandlike tissues

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18
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Most common type of primary liver cancer. Often started by hep B, C or alcoholic cirrhosis

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19
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

A

Bile duct cancer - rare and aggressive. A type of adenocarcinoma.

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20
Q

Urothelial carcinoma

A

Bladder squamous cell carcinoma often onset by chronic UTIs and bladder irritation eg from a catheter. Often high grade and invasive

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21
Q

Biliary cholesterolosis

A

Build up of cholesterol esters that stick to the wall of the gallbladder forming polyps. If they block the duct can lead to obstructive jaundice or pancreatitis. GC has a strong negative association with gallbladder cancer

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22
Q

Adenomyosis vs adenomyoma

A

Adenomyoma- focal region of adenomyosis of a benign fibroid like tumour of glandular tissue surrounded by endometrial stroma that grows into the smooth muscle wall/ myometrium or out into the endometrium like a polyp

Adenomyosis - when this happens extensively so glandular endometrial tissue grows into the myometrium so the uterus thickens and enlarges. Treatment is often hormonal, anti inflammatory or hysterectomy. Symptomatic heavy frequent bleeding.

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23
Q

What is Thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Compression of the nerves, arteries or veins in the passageway of the lower neck besides the brachial plexus. It can be neurogenic, venous, arterial.

Neurogenic = common + shows pain, weakness abs sometimes muscle wasting in the thumb.
Venous shows swelling, pain, grey-blue limb
Arterial shows pain, coldness and pallor

Can be trauma, repetitive strain, tumours, pregnancy, cervical rib.

Differentials: rotator cuff tear, cervical disc disorder, fibromyalgia, multiple sclerosis.

Naproxen and surgery, maybe blood thinners

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24
Q

Lithotripsy

A

Uses an electrohydraulic lithotripsy or a laser probe through a scope can be used to break up main intrahepatic duct stones and allow balloon for dialation if pathway is narrowed. Uses high voltage sparks between two probes to produce increase in fluid pressure to break the stone. Be careful not to damage bile duct wall. Done with peroral cholangioscopy or endoscope.

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25
Q

Spyglass ERCP

A

Small telescope for looking at strictures and large stones of the biliary system when standers retrograde cholangiopancreatography ercp won’t work

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26
Q

Where does pancreatic pain radiate?

A

To the back more than the gallbladder, unless it affects the diaphragm and pain goes to the left shoulder.

27
Q

What is mesenteric artery thrombosis?

A

Occlusion of arterial supply from the mesenteric arteries, usually sma. The clot usually originates from an atherosclerotic clot from the heart. Can lead to acute ischemia . Present postprandial pain, nausea and weight loss. Give unfractionated heparin. Can surgery if no peritonitis.

28
Q

Conventional culture

A

Detects bacteria and fungi by growing in vitro.

29
Q

Serology and antigen detection

A

Presence of antigen suggests active infection. Antibody suggests infection at some time. Can get false positives for copd.

Easy, safe without pathogens, looks retrospectively, delay of using igG and can’t pick up igM for many pathogens

30
Q

Molecular target amplification

A

Sensitive, fast, safe, positive antibiotics, costly, can be contaminated, identifies dead microbes and

31
Q

What does FODMAP mean?

A

Fermentable oligosaccharides, disaccharides, monosaccharides and polyols (all short chain carbs) the SI can be difficult to digest them. Can be cramping. Advised for those with IBS to avoid. Examples fruits, lactose, green vegetables, beans, rye and wheat.

32
Q

What is functional abdominal pain syndrome?

A

Frequent pain by the input if overly sensitive nerves of the GI tract muscles

33
Q

What is Anterior cutaneous nerve entrapment?

A

Anterior cutaneous nerve entrapment syndrome acnes is a common cause of abdominal pain in adults and children as nerves become pinched within the abdominal wall. Corticosteroid injections are helpful.

34
Q

Name 4 mucolytics

A

Guaifenesin, carbocisteine, hyperosmolar saline and mannitol powder.

35
Q

What is uniparental disomy?

A

When person receives two copies of a chromosome or part of one from just one parent

36
Q

X inactivation

A

X inactivation in females ensures one functional chromosome in each person rather than two. Random if maternal or paternal.

37
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance

A

DNA from the egg cell’s mitochondria passed on to child. Eg Leigh’s syndrome and MELAS

38
Q

Carter effect

A

One sex is more likely to be affected but the other more likely to transmit

39
Q

X link dominant

A

A dominantly expressive gene only occurring on the X chromosome. So presents in both males and females if inherited.

40
Q

Incontinenta pigmenti/ Leigh’s syndrome

A

Genetic ectodermal dysplasia affecting hair, skin, teeth, microvessels and cns. Involves blistering rash that ages to patchy skin colour. Wart growths, hair loss, smaller or less teeth, pitted fingernails.

41
Q

Y linked inheritance

A

Gene only carried on the Y chromosome abs is also always transmitted father to son. Eg CAH, haemolytic and hypoplastic anaemia, alagille syndrome, angioedemas and ataxia telangiectasia

42
Q

Digenic inheritance

A

Phenotype controlled by two genes together rather than monogenic.

43
Q

Triallelic inheritance

A

Phenotype contributed to by mutations in several inherited genes working together. Eg bardet biedl syndrome

44
Q

Genetic anticipation

A

Signs and symptoms of genetic phenotype become worse as more mutations accumulate through generations

45
Q

Germ line mosaicism

A

More than one set of genetic info is found within a gamete. The offspring inherits a mix of these sets of genes. The parent however, has not inherited these sets.

46
Q

Pseudo achondroplasia

A

Short limbed dwarfism caused by a variety of mutations of COMP gene. Not like achondroplasia which is one or two mutations in FGFR3 gene

47
Q

Angiosarcoma

A

Rare cancer originating in lining of vessels. Often skin, breast, liver, spleen

48
Q

Creatinine test (serum)

A

Measures how well kidneys filter waste products

49
Q

BUN test

A

Blood urea nitrogen- a measure of urea in the blood vs the urine.

50
Q

Which hormones are produced by each layer of the adrenals?

A

Glomerulosa- aldosterone
Fasiculata- cortisol
Reticularis- androgens eg DHEA
Medulla- catecholamines

51
Q

Describe the relationship between Cushings, pituitary adenoma, Addison’s & primary aldosteronism, conn’s and adrenal crisis.

A

Raised cortisol = cushings (can be bc of pituitary adenoma or corticosteroid) low cortisol = Addison’s. High aldosterone can be primary aldosteronism eg via conns. Low aldosterone can be Addison’s also, or adrenal insufficiency. Low aldosterone and cortisol can give adrenal crisis- hypovolemic shock, vomiting, fever, coma. Give hydrocortisone injection.

52
Q

Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

Acute glomerulonephritis and pulmonary alveolar haemorrhage from autoimmune disease. Can also be caused by/with acute kidney injury and ckd. There are circulating antiglomerular basement membrane anti bodies anti gbm. In some patients, only the kidney is affected. Smoking related, post renal transplantation.

Symptoms chills/fever, nausea/vomiting, weight loss, chest pain, anaemia, haematuria, arthralgia,tachy/dyspnea, inspiratory crackles, rash

Also occurs in RhA, SLE, glomerulonephritis and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

Give iv methyl prednisolone with cyclophosphamide maybe bilateral nephrectomy or transplant.

53
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A

Acute inflammation of the pancreas releasing exocrine enzymes causing auto digestion. Often caused by gallbladder disease and alcohol leading to periductal necrosis. Also gallstones blocking the bile duct making back pressure, haemorrhage.

Shows pain upper left quadrant penetrating to the back with vomiting. Might be fever, tachy, jaundice, ascites or pleural effusion, cullens sign or grey turners sign. Test lipase, FBC, U&E, glucose, CRP, bilirubin and Lfts.

54
Q

Chronic pancreatitis

A

Result of chronic inflammation leading to irreversible damage. Has severe ULQ abdominal pain and glandular dysfunction. Calcification can occur years after. Caused by reduced bicarbonate excretion, alcohol, CF, trauma etc resulting in too many pancreatic enzymes. Also biliary disease, azathioprine and sulphonamides and loop diuretics. Can give octreotide somatostatin analogue inhibiting pancreatic enzymes and cck.

55
Q

Glandular fever/ infectious mononucleosis

A

Glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein bar virus a kind of herpes. It is not that contagious, but is through saliva, semen, blood. Infectious for 4-7 weeks. Leads to lifelong carrying of the latent virus. Most common age 15-24.

Fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat.
Complications: upper airway obstruction, splenic rupture, neutropenia. In immunocomprimised it could lead to Hodgkin lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

Investigations: fbc, monospot test, ebv serology.
Differentials : strep throat, leukaemia, lymphoma, rubella, acute toxoplasmosis, mumps, hiv

56
Q

Necrotising fasciitis

A

Bacteria attacking skin and subcutaneous tissue and surrounding fascia until it dies. Without antibiotics and debridement, the patient could develop toxic shock syndrome from the bacterial toxins leading to T cell cytokine storm and multi system failure.

Early signs are like flu: high fever, sore throat,stomach ache, nausea, diarrhoea, chills, body aches.
May develop redness around infection site. Travel inch per hour. Wound becomes hot, swollen, purple/black/red.

Late phase progression the nerves die and pain reduces, hypotension and tachycardia, anuria, yellow blistering, tachypnoea.

Causative agents are streptococcus or staphylococcus/mrsa very often

57
Q

Pneumobilia

A

Gas in the biliary system. Common in recent biliary surgery or endoscopy. Can sometimes indicate pathology eg biliary enteric anastomosis, biliary infection, incompetent sphincter of oddi or spontaneous biliary enteric fistula, eg gallstone ileus

58
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of toxic shock syndrome

A

38.9’C, <90mmhg, diffuse macular erythroderma, desquamation, GI symptoms, myalgia or high creatinine phosphokinase, kidney failure, liver inflammation, low platelets, cns involvement.

No other bacteria detected, negative serology for rickettsia, leptospirosis, measles.

Treatment is supportive and also cephalosporins, penicillin/vancomycin and clindamycin/gentamicin

59
Q

What is rickettsia

A

Parasitic bacteria responsible for rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus. Susceptible to tetracyclines.

60
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

Tick transmitted rickettsia bacteria making fever, headache, petechial rash beginning on wrists and ankles. Muscle pain, vomiting. Complications are limb loss and hearing loss.

Treat with doxycycline

From north and south/Central America

61
Q

Typhus types

A

Fever, headache and rash can complicate to meningoencephalitis. Treated with doxycycline. Rickettsia cause.

Types: epidemic (spread by body lice -prowazekii) scrub (spread by chiggers mites-o tsutsugamushi) murine (spread by fleas- typhi)

62
Q

Leptospirosis

A

Leptospirosis is a blood infection caused by the bacteria Leptospira.

Signs and symptoms can range from none to mild (headaches, muscle pains, and fevers) to severe (bleeding in the lungs or meningitis).Weil’s disease, the acute severe form of leptospirosis, causes the infected individual to become jaundiced, develop kidney failure, and bleed.

Bleeding from the lungs associated with leptospirosis is known as “severe pulmonary haemorrhage syndrome”.

Spread by animals via direct contact, sewage and poor sanitation. Treatment is doxycycline, penicillin or ceftriaxone.

63
Q

Measles

A

Measles is a highly contagious infectious disease caused by measles virus.

Symptoms usually develop 10–12 days after exposure to an infected person and last 7–10 days.
Initial symptoms typically include fever, often greater than 40 °C (104 °F), cough, runny nose, and inflamed eyes.Small white spots known as Koplik’s spots may form inside the mouth two or three days after the start of symptoms.A red, flat rash which usually starts on the face and then spreads to the rest of the body typically begins three to five days after the start of symptoms.

Common complications include diarrhea (in 8% of cases), middle ear infection (7%), and pneumonia (6%).These occur in part due to measles-induced immunosuppression.Less commonly seizures, blindness, or inflammation of the brain may occur. Other names include morbilli, rubeola, red measles, and English measles. Both rubella, also known as German measles, and roseola are different diseases caused by unrelated viruses.