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weather Flashcards

1
Q

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to:

A.stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes
B.friction between the wind and the surface
C.stronger Coriolis force at the surface

A

B.friction between the wind and the surface

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2
Q

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and

A.either stable or unstable air
B.unstable, moist air
C.unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei

A

B.unstable, moist air

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3
Q

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

A.continuous downdrafts
B.the start of precipitation
C.formation of the anvil top

A

B.the start of precipitation

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4
Q

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

A.water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land
B.warm, dense air moving inland from over the water
C.cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

A

C.cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

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5
Q

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A.Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain
B.Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds
C.Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation

A

B.Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds

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6
Q

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

A.Freezing drizzle
B.Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures
C.Freezing rain

A

C.Freezing rain

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7
Q

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

A.Heavy rain
B.Hail
C.Lightning

A

C.Lightning

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8
Q

What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

A.Cooling from below
B.Warming from below
C.Decrease in water vapor

A

B.Warming from below

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9
Q

The suffix “nimbus,” used in naming clouds, means

A.a cloud with extensive vertical development
B.a middle cloud containing ice pellets
C.a rain cloud

A

C.a rain cloud

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10
Q

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

A.Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing
B.In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence
C.When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds

A

B.In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence

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11
Q

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

A.Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
B.Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence
C.Stratus clouds with little vertical development

A

A.Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence

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12
Q

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is

A.a change in temperature
B.an increase in relative humidity
C.an increase in cloud coverage

A

A.a change in temperature

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13
Q

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

A.across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable
B.parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable
C.down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable

A

A.across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable

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14
Q

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

A.Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface
B.Variation of terrain elevation
C.Coriolis force

A

A.Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface

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15
Q

The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a

A.front
B.frontolysis
C.frontogenesis

A

A.front

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16
Q

When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it

A.produces stratus type clouds
B.causes showers and thunderstorms
C.develops convective turbulence

A

A.produces stratus type clouds

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17
Q

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

A.Wind-shear turbulence
B.Steady rain
C.Precipitation static

A

A.Wind-shear turbulence

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18
Q

A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a

A.dry line
B.squall line
C.prefrontal system

A

B.squall line

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19
Q

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by

A.cloud types and the type of precipitation
B.measuring the dry adiabatic lapse rate
C.the height of the tropopause

A

cloud types and the type of precipitation

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20
Q

What is meant by the term “dewpoint”?

A.The temperature at which dew will always form
B.The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated
C.The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal

A

B.The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

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21
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A.The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface
B.The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface
C.The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing

A

C.The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing

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22
Q

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

A.Steam fog
B.Upslope fog
C.Rain-induced fog

A

A.Steam fog

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23
Q

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

A.High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds
B.High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions
C.Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover

A

B.High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions

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24
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A.An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
B.A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
C.A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains

A

air mass moving inland from the coast in winter

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25
Q

Cumulus clouds often indicate

A.a temperature inversion
B.possible turbulence
C.a dry adiabatic lapse rate

A

B.possible turbulence

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26
Q

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?

A.Evaporation and sublimation
B.Heating and condensation
C.Supersaturation and evaporation

A

A.Evaporation and sublimation

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27
Q

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

A.height range
B.composition
C.outward shape

A

A.height range

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28
Q

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type weather is most likely to develop?

A.Thunderstorms
B.Fog or low clouds
C.Freezing precipitation

A

B.Fog or low clouds

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29
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A.Precipitation beginning to fall
B.The appearance of an anvil top
C.Maximum growth rate of the clouds

A

A.Precipitation beginning to fall

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30
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

A.air temperature
B.stability of the air
C.dewpoint

A

A.air temperature

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31
Q

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

A.Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation
B.Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation
C.Poor visibility and smooth air

A

B.Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

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32
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A.Cumulus
B.Mature
C.Dissipating

A

C.Dissipating

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33
Q

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

A.Cirrus clouds
B.Towering cumulus clouds
C.Nimbostratus clouds

A

B.Towering cumulus clouds

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34
Q

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

A.Atmospheric pressure
B.Surface temperature
C.Actual lapse rate

A

C.Actual lapse rate

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35
Q

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A.An unstable layer of air
B.A stable layer of air
C.Chinook winds on mountain slopes

A

B.A stable layer of air

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36
Q

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

A.type of precipitation
B.wind direction
C.stability of the air mass

A

B.wind direction

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37
Q

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

A.10 knots
B.15 knots
C.25 knots

A

C.25 knots

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38
Q

Clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain are a sign of

A.a stable air mass
B.an unstable air mass
C.a dry adiabatic lapse rate

A

B.an unstable air mass

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39
Q

The development of thermals depends upon

A.temperature inversions
B.solar heating
C.a counterclockwise circulation of air

A

B.solar heating

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40
Q

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A.Roll cloud
B.Continuous updraft
C.Frequent lightning

A

B.Continuous updraft

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41
Q

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint is 38°F?

A.9,000 feet AGL
B.11,000 feet AGL
C.10,000 feet AGL

A

C.10,000 feet AGL

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42
Q

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as

A.an inactive frontal cloud
B.a funnel cloud
C.a lenticular cloud

A

C.a lenticular cloud

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43
Q

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

A.small temperature/dewpoint spread
B.visible moisture
C.stratiform clouds

A

B.visible moisture

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44
Q

What are the characteristics of an unstable atmosphere?

A.Descending air in the northern hemisphere
B.A cool, dry air mass
C.A warm, humid air mass

A

C.A warm, humid air mass

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45
Q

An increase in temperature with an altitude increase

A.denotes the beginning of the stratosphere
B.is indication of an inversion
C.means a cold front passage

A

B.is indication of an inversion

46
Q

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

A.cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
B.stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
C.stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence

A

B.stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

47
Q

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

A.relative humidity reaches 100 percent
B.water vapor is present
C.water vapor condense

A

C.water vapor condense

48
Q

What is a characteristic of stable air?

A.Stratiform clouds
B.Unlimited visibility
C.Cumulus clouds

A

A.Stratiform clouds

49
Q

The destination airport has one runway, 8-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left-hand pattern to runway 8. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to

A.fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly
B.delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated
C.depart expecting the thunderstorm to dissipate prior to arrival, then land on runway 8

A

C.depart expecting the thunderstorm to dissipate prior to arrival, then land on runway 8

50
Q

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

A.warm front thunderstorms
B.steady-state thunderstorms
C.squall line thunderstorms

A

C.squall line thunderstorms

51
Q

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

A.Radiation fog and ice fog
B.Steam fog and ground fog
C.Advection fog and upslope fog

A

C.Advection fog and upslope fog

52
Q

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as

A.roll clouds
B.standing lenticular clouds
C.mammatocumulus clouds

A

B.standing lenticular clouds

53
Q

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

A.heat exchange
B.movement of air
C.pressure differential

A

A.heat exchange

54
Q

Where does wind shear occur?

A.Only at lower altitudes
B.Only at higher altitudes
C.At all altitudes, in all directions

A

C.At all altitudes, in all directions

55
Q

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A.Nimbostratus
B.Cumulonimbus
C.Towering cumulus

A

B.Cumulonimbus

56
Q

When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience

A.an increase in temperature as altitude increases
B.good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft
C.clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft

A

A.an increase in temperature as altitude increases

57
Q

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F?

A.5,000 feet MSL
B.4,000 feet MSL
C.6,000 feet MSL

A

C.6,000 feet MSL

58
Q

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

A.warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
B.terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night
C.the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air

A

B.terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night

59
Q

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

A.mature stage
B.cumulus stage
C.downdraft stage

A

A.mature stage

60
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

A.is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude
B.has been cold frontal passage
C.are thunderstorms in the area

A

A.is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude

61
Q

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

A.Turbulent air
B.Showery precipitation
C.Poor surface visibility

A

C.Poor surface visibility

62
Q

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to

A.temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset
B.outgoing terrestrial radiation peaking at noon
C.minimum temperature occurring after sunrise

A

C.minimum temperature occurring after sunrise

63
Q

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

A.Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water
B.The movement of cold air over much warmer water
C.Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights

A

C.Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights

64
Q

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft as safe for flight?

A. The pilot in command
B.The owner operator or operator
C. The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection

A

A. The pilot in command

65
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A. The pilot in command
B.The owner operator or operator
C. The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection

A

B.The owner operator or operator

66
Q

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

A.Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
B.Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
C.Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.

A

B.Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

67
Q

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
A. Constanat altitude and airspeed
Constant angle of attack
C. Level flight attitude

A

C. Level flight attitude

68
Q

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to.

a.Immediately establish the proper gliding and attitude and airspeed
b.Quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion
C.determine the wind direction to plan for a forced landing

A

a.Immediately establish the proper gliding and attitude and airspeed

69
Q

When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will

a) increase the chances of shock cooling the engine
b) assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare
c) nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot

A

c) nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot

70
Q

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

a) at a higher airspeed
b) with a steeper descent
c) the same as during daytime

A

c) the same as during daytime

71
Q

If you experience an engine failure in a single-engine aircraft after takeoff, you should

a) establish the proper glide attitude
b) turn into the wind
c) adjust the pitch to maintain Vy

A

a) establish the proper glide attitude

72
Q

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and-level flight?

A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

A

A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

73
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
B. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
C. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

A

C. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

74
Q
  1. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

A. Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.
B. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
C. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

A

C. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

75
Q
  1. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

A. Look only at far away, dim lights.
B. Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.
C. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

A

B. Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.

76
Q

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

A. look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
B. scan the visual field very rapidly.
C. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.

A

A. look to the side of the object and scan slowly.

77
Q

The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a

a.look to the side of the object and scan slowly
b.scan the visual field very rapidly
c.look to the side of the object and scan rapidly

A

a.look to the side of the object and scan slowly

78
Q

What is a benefit of flying with a glass cockpit?
a. There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight.
b. Situational awareness is increased
c. Terrain avoidance is guaranteed

A

b. Situational awareness is increased

79
Q

What steps must be taken when flying with glass cockpits to ensure safe flight?

a. Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check engine systems and weather, back up with supplementary forms of information
b. Regularly scan each item on the PFD, confirm on the MFD
c. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information

A

c. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information

80
Q

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can

a) compensate for an airman’s lack of skill or knowledge

b) offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task

c) improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot t

A

b) offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task

81
Q

You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

a) ADS-B in capability

b) Airspeed indicator

c) Attitude Indicator

A

b) Airspeed indicator

82
Q

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
a. adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
b. place he magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding
c. test each brake and the parking brake

A

a. adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

83
Q

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

a. Adjust for the proper RPMWhat should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A: Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.

B: Test each brake and the parking brake.

C: Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

A

C: Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

84
Q

During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by
A- congealed oil from the crankcase
B- moisture from the outside air which has frozen
C- ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen

A

C- ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen

85
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

a) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon
b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
c) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

A

b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

86
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class aircraft?

a) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
b) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
c) Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon

A

b) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

87
Q

The definition of nighttime is

a) sunset to sunrise
b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
c) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

A

c) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

88
Q

With respect to certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

a) Normally, utility, acrobatic
b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider
c) Landplane, seaplane

A

a) Normally, utility, acrobatic

89
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class aircraft?

a) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
b) Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited
c) Transport, restricted, provisional

A

a) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon

90
Q

An ATC clearance provides

a) priority over all other traffic
b) adequate separation from all traffic
c) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

A

c) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

91
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

a) Vfe
b) Vlof
c) Vfc

A

a) Vfe

92
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

a) Vle
b) Vlo
c) Vfe

A

a) Vle

93
Q

Vno is defined as the

a) normal operating range
b) never-exceed speed
c) maximum structural cruising speed

A

c) maximum structural cruising speed

94
Q

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

a) Va
b) Vlo
c) Vne

A

a) Va

95
Q

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

a) Vy
b) Va
c) Vx

A

c) Vx

96
Q

Vso is defined as the

a) staling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
b) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration
c) stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed

A

a) staling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

97
Q

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

a) Vy
b) Vx
c) Va

A

a) Vy

98
Q

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

a) as long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate
b) Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage
c) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

A

c) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

99
Q

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

a) For informational purposes only
b) They are mandatory
c) They are voluntary

A

b) They are mandatory

100
Q

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

a) yes, under VFR conditions only
b) yes, ADs are only voluntary
c) Yes, if allowed by the AD

A

c) Yes, if allowed by the AD

101
Q

What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?

a) pilot performed maintenance does not need to be documented
b) only major repairs and alterations need to be documented
c) the pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s maintenance records

A
102
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA’s Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office?

a) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action
b) No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action
c) Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate

A

a) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action

103
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

a) An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller
b) an airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots
c) An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepowe

A

c) An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepowe

104
Q

To act as PIC of a high-performance airplane, which training or experience would meet the additional requirements?

a) logged at least five hours as SIC in a high-performance or turbine-powered airplane in the last 12 calendar months
b) Received and logged ground and flight training in an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller
c) Received and logged ground and flight training in a high-performance airplane and a received a logbook endorsement

A

c) Received and logged ground and flight training in a high-performance airplane and a received a logbook endorsement

105
Q
  1. While experiencing a hangover, a pilot

A. will have impaired motor and mental
responses.
B. is no longer under the influence of alcohol.
C. may experience discomfort, but no

A

A. will have impaired motor and mental
responses.

106
Q

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

a) After one-half the battery’s useful life
b) During each annual and 100-hour inspection
c) Every 24 calendar months

A

a) After one-half the battery’s useful life

107
Q

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
b) An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed
c) A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles

A

a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body

108
Q

Anemic (hypemic) hypoxia has the same symptoms as hypoxic hypoxia but it’s most often a result of
A. poor blood circulation
B. a leaking exhaust manifold
C. use of alcohol or drugs before flight

A

B. a leaking exhaust manifold

109
Q

One purpose of crew resource managment(CRM) is to give the crews tools to
a. recognize and mitigiate hazards
b. matain currency with regulations
c.reduce the need for outside resources

A

a. recognize and mitigiate hazards

110
Q
A

personal (3 decks)

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